When checking on a patient for therapeutic benefits, the nurse should evaluate the nature and intensity of the patient's cancer pain.
What can lead a nurse to believe that a patient is becoming ketoacidosis?Malaise, widespread weakness, and fatigability are other indicators of DKA. Vomiting and nausea, which may also be accompanied by widespread stomach pain, decreased appetite, and anorexia.
Can a side effect have a beneficial medical outcome?A documented therapeutic impact known as a side effect happens when a therapy has an unintended consequence or when a problem develops along with the intended therapeutic result. In order to balance the risks and benefits of a treatment, side effects are examined throughout clinical trials and drug development.
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a client with a peptic ulcer is about to begin a therapeutic regimen that includes a bland diet, antacids, and famotidine. before the client is discharged, the nurse should provide which instruction?
a client with a peptic ulcer is about to begin a therapeutic regimen that includes a bland diet, antacids, and famotidine. before the client is discharged, the nurse should provide "Avoid aspirin and products that contain aspirin."
Since some of the calcium in calcium carbonate antacids is absorbed by the body, they are used in calcium deficiency conditions like postmenopausal osteoporosis. Magnesium deficiency caused by diet or medication-related magnesium depletion is treated with magnesium oxide antacids. The nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug aspirin, also referred to as acetylsalicylic acid, is used to treat inflammation, fever, and pain as well as being an antithrombotic. Kawasaki disease, pericarditis, and rheumatic fever are a few specific inflammatory conditions that aspirin is used to treat.
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a) what percent of patients in the treatment group were pain free 24 hours after receiving acupuncture?
Answer:
-10/50=.2=20%
Explanation:
the nurse is gathering a health history for a client with osteoarthritis. what clinical manifestation will the nurse expect to find?
The nurse should anticipate that this health issue will affect how flexion is approached. Flexion is the process of bending the joint (or limb) so that the angle between the limb and the joint itself is reduced.
What causes osteoarthritis primarily?
Osteoarthritis causes
Osteoarthritis develops when the cartilage and other tissues in the joint degenerate or undergo structural change. Simple joint wear and tear is not the reason for this. Instead, the disintegration, which typically occurs gradually over time, might be brought on by changes in the tissue.
Is walking a treatment for osteoarthritis?
People with arthritis are advised to walk since it is low impact, keeps the joints flexible, promotes bone health, and eases the pain.
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when assessing a client with an indwelling urinary catheter, which observation requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
The clamp on the urinary drainage bag is open requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse.
What is a urinary catheter?
A hollow tube that is partially flexible, collecting urine from the bladder, leading a drainage bag is known as urinary catheter. These catheters come in many types and sizes. They are often made of
RubberPlasticSiliconeCatheters are often necessary in cases where a person cannot empty their bladder. If the bladder is not emptied, urine can build up and this may lead to pressure on the kidneys. This pressure may just lead to kidney failure, which can even lead to permanent kidney damage.
Most catheters are usually necessary only for a short period of time, i.e., until the person regains the ability to urinate on their own. Those with a permanent injury or severe illness or older adults may need to make use of urinary catheters for a much longer period of time or even permanently.
So, therefore, the clamp on the urinary drainage bag is open requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse.
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question 1 according to research by the national survey on drug use and health (nsduh), in 2013 an estimated 28.7 million people reported driving under the influence of alcohol at least once during the previous year. a) true b) false
According to findings from the national study on drug use and health, this is the case.True.
What is beneficial to health?You may keep your weight stable by eating a balanced diet that contains plenty of fruit, vegetables, whole grains, and a little quantity of unsaturated fats, meat, and dairy. Everyday consumption of a good range of these meals reduces the need for foods heavy in fat and sugar, which are the main contributors to weight gain.
Why is good health so crucial?Being healthy has a direct impact on living a successful life. Different organs in the body communicate with one another to operate properly. For optimal operation, the organs must be kept in good health. Being healthy is significant because it refers to a condition of being in excellent bodily, mental, and social health.
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the nurse has just completed teaching a client, newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes, about the treatment options. which response by the client leads the nurse to conclude that additional teaching is needed?
Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg or below. Combining diabetes and hypertension can increase the risk of cardiovascular disease, kidney disease, and other health issues.
If left untreated, diabetes and high blood pressure can result in serious complications like visual problems and kidney failure. As a result of shared risk factors such hypoperfusion, vascular inflammation, arterial remodeling, atherosclerosis, renal failure, dyslipidemia, and obesity, diabetes and hypertension are intimately linked. Over time, diabetes has an impact on the body's microscopic blood vessels, hardening the blood vessel walls. High blood pressure is the outcome of this increasing pressure. Your risk of having a heart attack or stroke might be considerably increased by having high blood pressure and type 2 diabetes. ARBs, like ACE inhibitors, reduce the negative effects of diabetes
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cpco which one of the following federal regulations is not pertinent to billing companies? a. safe harbor rules b. patient protection and affordable care act c. health insurance portability and accountability act d. false claims act
Safe Harbor Principles (option a), The "safe harbor" laws outline several payment and business methods that may, but not always, violate the federal anti-kickback law.
How would they characterize themselves?"Patient" is an English translation of the Latin word "patiens," which meaning to endure or suffer. Through the use of this statement, the patient is portrayed as being immensely submissive, experiencing the necessary discomfort, and accepting the interventions of the outside expert.
Patients can be nouns or verbs.We have the chance to acquire patience since it requires us to learn to wait calmly despite irritation or discomfort, which is almost always present. However, patience may be the key to a happy existence.
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manny, age 52, is a postal worker who drives a truck every day. he presents with low back pain and has decreased sensation to a pinprick in the lateral leg and web of the great toe. this indicates discogenic disease in the dermatomal pattern of which area?
participation of the L4/L5 root In the dermatomal pattern, this denotes discogenic disease.
What is the root of discogenic illness?excessive lifting, playing sports, or occupations that require a lot of physical effort can all cause low back pain. due to excessive sitting and/or bad posture, the lumbar spinal discs are put under stress. weak core muscles result in inadequate disc support. Obesity.
what is it A discogenic disorder: ?When disc tears or splits occur to allow the nucleus and annulus to connect, the result is an instance of discogenic disorder known as internal disc disruption (IDD). Proteoglycans, a substance as a result of this that can lead to pain and inflammation, may be released.
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Trace minerals are found in both plant and animal foods, but their actual bioavailability is influenced by many factors.
...
Trace minerals are found in both plant and animal foods, but their actual bioavailability is influenced by many factors.
The factors that affect the bioavailability of minerals in the body are as follows:
1. The form of minerals present in the body.
2. The supplements that are taken apart from the meals.
3. Excretory loss of a mineral.
4. Nutrient intake and dietary factors.
5. Health of the individual.
What are trace minerals?
Trace minerals, also called micro minerals, are essential minerals that the human body must get from food, but, unlike macro minerals, we only need a very small amount. Even though trace minerals are needed in tiny doses, they are still crucial to our health and development. The recommended daily allowance for most trace minerals is between .2 and 15 milligrams. Find below a list of trace minerals, their functions, and common foods that contain them.
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5. which nursing action will the nurse include in the plan of care when admitting a patient with an exacerbation of inflammatory bowel disease (ibd)?
Nursing action that the nurse will include in the plan of care when admitting a patient with an exacerbation of inflammatory bowel disease is to : monitor stools for blood.
How do you deal with inflammatory bowel disease?Following are some ways deal with inflammatory bowel disease: lifestyle and home remedies, limiting of dairy products, having small meal, drinking plenty of liquids, having multivitamins and talking to a dietitian.
As anemia or hemorrhage may occur with IBD, it is necessary that stools is assessed for the presence of blood. Dietary fiber may cause an increase in gastrointestinal (GI) motility and exacerbate the diarrhea. Fatigue is common with IBD exacerbations, and also dehydration may occur.
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a 54-year-old man presents with chest pain. he has a past medical history of hypertension and diabetes mellitus. the pain is located in the middle of his chest and radiates to his jaw. the pain began about 20 minutes ago, and he rates the pain as a 10 on a 0-10 point scale, with 10 being the worst pain he has ever felt. he has had 3 similar episodes, but they have always resolved after 5 minutes or so of rest. he has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes a day for the past 36 years. he drinks 2 or 3 beers on friday nights. review of systems (ros) is positive for diaphoresis, acute dyspnea, and impending doom. ros is negative for fever, chills, and malaise. physical exam shows an obese, middle-aged man in moderate distress. bp is 148/80; pulse is 100; and respirations are 26. heart and lung exams are normal, except for tachycardia and tachypnea. he has no pedal edema. electrocardiogram (ecg) shows st elevation in leads ii, iii, and avf; this is a new finding when compared to ecg from 3 months ago. question: what is the diagnosis?
The presence of diabetes mellitus (DM) increases the chance of developing atherosclerosis. A patient with diabetes who has previously experienced a myocardial infarction (MI) has the same risk of having another MI as a person without diabetes.
What does "diagnose" actually mean?Pay attention to the pronunciation. the method of identifying a condition, sickness, or harm from its symptoms and indications. In addition to a physical examination, medical history, and procedures like blood tests, imaging studies, and biopsies, a diagnosis may also be made.
Having been diagnosed?If someone or something has been diagnosed with the condition, it is known what the problem is that they are dealing with. A problem or condition is identified after a diagnostic. The soldiers were found to have influenza.
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the nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with shock. during report, the nurse reports the results of which assessments that signal early signs of the decompensation stage? select all that apply.
The results of the assessment indicating the initial signs of the decompensation stage for clients in shock were shortness of breath, weak pulse and palpitations, and sweating.
What are the shocks?Shock is a condition that occurs when oxygen perfusion to the tissues becomes inadequate. Loss of blood cells in patients with bleeding results in a reduced transport of oxygen to body tissues. As a result, the body's cells become disturbed and major changes begin to occur in the body's tissues.
The main causes of shock are:
Heart attack. Experiencing an injury that results in bleeding or rupture of blood vessels. Lack of fluids in the body.Your question is incomplete, but most probably your full question was:
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with shock. Does the nurse report the outcome of which judgment indicates the early signs of the decompensation stage? Select all that apply.
Shortness of breath, weak pulse and palpitations, and sweating.Abdominal pain and fever.Weakness and cramps.Learn more about the difference between heart attack and heart failure here :
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s.t. said she was not taking kcl because the drug makes her sick. what information can you give her concerning the administration of potassium
The respective person should make her understand with the following reason: her body could experience hypokalemia, which is quite deadly. She must continue taking the potassium chloride orally on a daily basis to keep herself healthy.
What is hypokalemia ?Blood potassium levels are too low in hypokalemia. The most common causes of low potassium levels are diuretic use, adrenal gland problems, vomiting, and diarrhea. A low potassium level can cause irregular heart rhythms to form and cause muscles to feel weak, cramp, or even become paralyzed.
Weakness and fatigue, muscle cramps, aches and stiffness, tingling and numbness, heart palpitations, breathing issues, digestive symptoms, and changes in blood pressure are typical signs and symptoms of potassium deficiency.
Causes are : Alcohol use (excessive), Chronic kidney disease., Diabetic ketoacidosis., Diarrhea etc.
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a parent brings her 12-year-old to the clinic and informs the nurse that the child may have anorexia nervosa (an). using the diagnostic criteria for an, what subjective data should the nurse obtain during the assessment? select all that apply.
The child have a fear of gaining weight is the subjective data the nurse should obtain during the assessment.
Anorexia is characterized by intense concern about gaining weight, inaccurate weight perceptions, and unusually low physical weight. Anorexics typically resort to extreme methods to keep their weight and looks in check, which seriously compromises their quality of life.
Anorexics typically drastically restrict their calorie intake in order to prevent gaining weight or maintain their weight reduction. They could lower their calorie intake by forcing themselves to vomit shortly after eating or by misusing laxatives, diet pills, diuretics, or enemas. To reduce weight, they could go overboard. The fear of gaining weight persists no matter how much weight is lost.
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Distinguish between borderline personality disorder and antisocial personality disorder.
Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by impulsive, irresponsible and often criminal behavior whereas borderline personality disorder is characterized by patterns of unstable relationships.
What are the differences between borderline personality disorder and antisocial personality disorder?Those with borderline personality disorder are very sensitive and they also struggle with managing their emotions and someone with antisocial personality disorder will be manipulative, deceitful and reckless.
Antisocial personality disorder is a mental condition in which a person has a long-term pattern of manipulating and exploiting.
Borderline symptoms are: identity disturbance, disproportionate anger, and fear of abandonment whereas antisocial symptoms are: lack of empathy and remorse, irresponsibility, reckless disregard for the safety of self and others.
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a client has a diagnosis of bladder cancer with metastasis. the client asks the nurse about the characteristics of hospice care. the nurse should explain that:
The most typical locations of metastasis from bladder cancer include lymph nodes, bones, the lung, liver, and peritoneum. Advanced T category tumours and those with unusual histologic characteristics spread more quickly.
How is metastatic urethral cancer detected?The main method for detecting bladder cancer is a cystoscopy. It enables the medical professional to view into the body using a cystoscope, a thin, illuminated, flexible tube. Flexible cystoscopy can be done without anaesthesia, which is a drug that dulls the perception of pain, at a doctor's office.
Which course of action is ideal for metastatic bladder cancer?To determine how far the tumour has penetrated the bladder wall, transurethral resection (TURBT) is frequently performed initially.
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a child weighing 14.5 kg has von willebrand disease and has been prescribed desmopressin 0.3 mcg/kg iv. how much desmopressin should the nurse administer?
The nurse should administer 4.4 mcg of desmopressin.
What happens during overdosage of desmopressin ?Headache, fuzziness, tiredness, rapid weight gain, and urine issues are just a few examples of overdose symptoms. Diabetes insipidus of the central nervous system is managed with desmopressin. The body loses too much fluid as a result of this disorder, leading to dehydration. Additionally, nocturnal enuresis, frequent urination, and excessive thirst brought on by specific kinds of brain damage or brain surgery are all controlled with it.
Desmopressin acetate pills, or DDAVP, have no known particular antidote. The patient needs to be monitored and given the proper symptomatic therapy.
In the Postural Tachycardia Syndrome (POTS) - PMC, desmopressin significantly reduces tachycardia and ameliorates symptoms.
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a nurse knows to advise a patient who is taking atarax, an over-the-counter (otc) antihistamine, to be aware of the serious potential side effect of:
Only Atarax is an over-the-counter antihistamine that could cause seizures and other serious side effects.
What brings about a seizure?A seizure can result from anything that disrupts the regular connections made by brain nerve cells.This covers conditions including a high fever, low blood sugar, alcohol or drug withdrawal, or a concussion.However, epilepsy is labeled when a person experiences two or more seizures without any apparent explanation.
what it's like to experience a seizure?an overall sense of strangenessa physical component, such as an arm or hand, becoming stiff or twitching.Tingling in your arms and legs and a sense of déjà vu are common symptoms.
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an adult resident of an assisted living facility has a history of migraines and has a prescription for sumatriptan, administered prn. before the client takes a dose, the nurse should ask what question to ensure the client's safety?
At the first symptom of a migraine, take this medication by mouth with or without food, as prescribed by your doctor. Your medical condition and treatment response will determine the dosage. Do not take further doses of this medication if your symptoms do not improve before consulting your doctor. You may take a second dose at least two hours after the first one if your symptoms only partially improve or if your headache returns. Taking more than 200 mg in a day is not advised.
Additionally, this drug may be utilised as a fallback for sumatriptan injection. At least two hours following the injection, you may take a dose of sumatriptan by mouth up to 100 milligrams in a 24-hour period if your symptoms are only partially eased or your headache returns.
Your doctor might conduct a heart check before you begin taking sumatriptan if you are more likely to experience heart issues (see Precautions). Additionally, in order to check for major side effects, he or she might advise you to take this drug for the first time at the office or clinic (such as chest pain). To learn more, consult your physician.
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a 64-year-old man presents to the clinic with generalized pain in his neck, shoulders, and hips. he states the pain is worse in the mornings and is sometimes associated with one-sided headaches. his erythrocyte sedimentation rate and c-reactive protein are both elevated. you diagnose him with polymyalgia rheumatica. what other condition would you suspect in this patient?
Giant cell arteritis is the condition suspected in the patient.
What is Giant cell arteritis?
The lining of your arteries becomes inflamed when you have giant cell arteritis. The arteries in your head are most frequently affected, particularly those around your temples. Because of this, temporal arteritis is another name for giant cell arteritis.Giant cell arteritis commonly results in headaches, soreness in the scalp, jaw pain, and vision issues. Without treatment, it can cause blindness.Signs and symptoms of giant cell arteritis include:
Persistent, severe head pain, usually in your temple areaScalp tendernessJaw pain when you chew or open your mouth wideFeverFatigueUnintended weight lossVision loss or double vision, particularly in people who also have jaw painSudden, permanent loss of vision in one eyeTherefore, Giant cell arteritis is the condition suspected in the patient.
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I understand that the question is A 64-year-old man presents to the clinic with generalized pain in his neck, shoulders, and hips. He states the pain is worse in the mornings and is sometimes associated with one-sided headaches. His erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein are both elevated. You diagnose him with polymyalgia rheumatica. What other condition would you suspect in this patient?
A. Fibromyalgia
B. Giant cell arteritis
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Trigeminal neuralgia
a client with diabetes punctured the foot with a sharp object. within a week, the client developed osteomyelitis of the foot. the client was admitted for iv antibiotic therapy. how long does the nurse anticipate the client will receive iv antibiotics?
The duration of IV antibiotics for osteomyelitis of the foot would depend on the severity of the infection and the type of bacteria causing the infection.
What do you mean by Osteomyelitis?
Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that is caused by bacteria. It is a serious condition that can cause pain, swelling, and inflammation in the affected bone and the surrounding tissue. The infection usually starts in the soft tissue around the bone, and can spread to the bone itself. If left untreated, the infection can cause permanent damage to the bone and the surrounding tissue. Symptoms of osteomyelitis may include fever, redness and pain in the affected area, swelling, and loss of joint movement.
It depends on the severity of the infection, the type of bacteria causing the infection, the client's overall health, and the client's response to the antibiotics. Generally, the client would likely receive IV antibiotics for a minimum of one to two weeks but could need up to six weeks of IV antibiotics.
What do you mean by IV Antibiotics?
IV antibiotics are antibiotics that are administered through an intravenous (IV) line directly into the bloodstream. This method of administration allows the antibiotic to reach the bloodstream quickly and in a more concentrated form than an antibiotic taken orally. IV antibiotics are typically used to treat more serious bacterial infections, such as those that affect the respiratory system, urinary tract, or bloodstream.
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a client had a previous myocardial infarction and has been experiencing angina from occluded coronary arteries. what teaching should the nurse provide in the stable phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness?
The nurse should try to make the client understand the important notions of myocardial infarction and she should also tell him/her to quit smoking or any other addictive health injurious habits.
What is angina ?Angina is typically brought on by a narrowing of the arteries that carry blood to the heart muscles due to an accumulation of fatty substances. Atherosclerosis is the term for this. An improper diet is one of the factors that can raise your chance of developing atherosclerosis.
The most typical angina symptoms are as follows: a discomfort that is crushing, pressing, or both, typically felt in the chest beneath the breastbone. Your neck, both arms, upper back, and ear lobes could all experience pain.
Thrombosis frequently coexists with angina pectoris . As a result, drinking enough water may aid in reducing blood coagulation and lower the OR for angina pectoris.
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recovery time is: question 12 options: 1) amount time for the body increase heart rate to moderate intensity. 2) amount of time for the body to return to resting levels before exercise. 3) amount of time for the body to recover to moderate intensity. 4) amount of time for the body to return to resting levels after exercise.
Recovery time is the amount of time for the body to return to resting levels after exercise.
Recovery from exercise refers to the period between the tip of a bout of exercise and therefore the resultant come to a resting or recovered state. It additionally refers to specific physiological processes or states occurring when exercise that area unit distinct from the physiology of either the elbow grease or the resting states.
Plan to eat a healthy snack or meal among forty five minutes of finishing your physical exertion. this can facilitate fill again muscle energy stores and begin the recovery process. Eat foods that contain carbohydrates and protines. Carbs facilitate to revive glucose levels therefore you'll recharge your energy levels.
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a healthcare provider prescribes an antibiotic intravenous piggyback twice a day for a client with an infection. the healthcare provider prescribes peak and trough levels 48 and 72 hours after initiation of the therapy. the client asks the nurse why there is a need for so many blood tests. what reason does the nurse provide?
There is a need for so many blood tests after initiation of the therapy for antibiotic intravenous piggyback twice a day for a client with an infection is to determine adequate dosage levels of the drug.
An intravenous piggyback could be a tiny bag of answer connected to a primary infusion line or intermittent blood vessel access device to deliver medication over a given amount of your time. This "piggyback" technique suggests that the patient doesn't need multiple IV sites.
A test done on a sample of blood to live the number of sure substances within the blood or to count differing kinds of blood cells. Blood test is also done to appear for signs of illness or agents that cause illness, to see for antibodies or tumour markers, or to visualize however well treatments are operating.
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a client seeks medical attention for the development of a rash on the hands. which assessment findings indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing irritant contact dermatitis? select all that apply.
Patch testing is the most effective method for determining irritant contact dermatitis. The materials are taped to your back using a non-allergic tape of some sort. They might occasionally be fastened to the upper arms.
What is contact dermatitis?The skin becomes dry, cracked, itchy, blistered, and irritated as a result of contact dermatitis.
Darker skin can turn dark brown, purple, or grey, while lighter skin can turn red. After being exposed to an irritant or allergy for a few hours or days, this reaction typically happens.
Symptoms of contact dermatitis often disappear in two to three weeks. Your symptoms will almost certainly recur if you continue to come into contact with the allergy or irritant.
Two frequent and frequently misunderstood kinds of eczema are atopic dermatitis and contact dermatitis.
Both of these inflammatory skin disorders have similar symptoms, but they have different underlying causes. While contact dermatitis is brought on by external stimuli, atopic dermatitis is an interior skin disorder.
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a client is admitted with a cervical spine injury sustained during a diving accident. when planning this client's care, the nurse should assign highest priority to which nursing diagnosis?
The nurse should assign highest priority to Ineffective breathing pattern.
What is a cervical spine injury?
Cervical spine injury is caused due to deformation of the cervical spinal column that can damage the spinal cord. Cervical spinal cord injuries are the most severe kinds of spinal cord injuries.
These kinds of injuries causes permanent change in strength, sensation and other functions of the body below the site of the injury.
Spinal cord injuries may lead to quadriplegia or tetraplegia and paraplegia. These are associated with loss of muscle strength in all four extremities. quadriplegia or tetraplegia and paraplegia are paralysis caused by spinal cord injuries.
Quadriplegia or tetraplegia affects the arms, hands, trunk, legs and pelvic organs.
Paraplegia affects all or a part of the trunk, legs and pelvic organs.
So, the nurse should assign highest priority to Ineffective breathing pattern.
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treating clients with anorexia nervosa with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor antidepressant such as fluoxetine (prozac) may present which problem?
Fluoxetine can suppress the appetite and lead to weight loss.
What is fluoxetine's preferred use?An selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, such as fluoxetine, is a class of antidepressant (SSRI).Obsessive compulsive disorder, bulimia, and depression are occasionally also treated with it.Serotonin levels in the brain are raised, which causes it to work.
What is fluoxetine's most frequent adverse effect?The most frequent side effects of Prozac (fluoxetine) are nausea, sleeplessness, and anxiety.These frequently get better with time for a lot of folks.Medications like Prozac might have sexual side effects.
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a nurse has instituted a turn schedule for a patient to prevent skin breakdown. upon evaluation, the nurse finds that the patient has a stage ii pressure ulcer on the buttocks. which action will the nurse take next?
The action that the nurse should take after finding out that the patient has a stage II pressure ulcer on their buttocks is to reassess the patient and situation before deciding on any change.
Pressure ulcer is a type of injury that breaks down the skin and the underlying tissue. It's caused by prolonged pressure on the skin.
There are four stages of pressure ulcer:
Stage 1: Area looks red and feels warm if touched.Stage 2: Area may have an open sore, blister, or scrape.Stage 3: Area has a crater-like appearance.Stage 4: Area is really damaged and contains a large wound.To treat a stage 2 pressure ulcer, one must clean the area by rinsing to remove any loose dead tissue. One can use saline (salt water) or any specific cleaner that doesn't damage the skin.
The question above seems incomplete. The completed version is as follows:
A nurse has instituted a turn schedule for a patient to prevent skin breakdown. Upon evaluation, the nurse finds that the patient has a stage II pressure ulcer on the buttocks. Which action will the nurse take next?
a. Reassess the patient and situation.
b. Revise the turning schedule to increase the frequency.
c. Delegate turning to the nursing assistive personnel.
d. Apply medication to the area of skin that is broken down.
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lovastatin (mevacor) is prescribed for a patient for the first time. how should the nurse instruct the patient on how to take the medication?
As prescribed by your doctor, take this mevacor by mouth once day with dinner. It may be necessary for certain people to take this medication twice.
What is the purpose of MEVACOR?In order to raise "good" cholesterol (HDL) and lower "bad" cholesterol and fats (such as LDL and triglycerides) in the blood, lovastatin is used in conjunction with a healthy diet. It is a member of the class of medications known as "statins." It functions by reducing the quantity of cholesterol the liver produces.
How soon does lovastatin start to work?Peak levels are noticed two hours after administration, but it may take one to two weeks of consistent dosing before improvements in your cholesterol level are noticed, and up to four weeks before the maximum cholesterol-lowering effects.
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in cases of psittacosis, mortality is approximately in the absence of antibiotic therapy via tetracyclines. group of answer choices 0% (this infection is not lethal) 5-10% 1-3% 15-20% 80-90%
The morality is approximately 15-20%.
Psittacosis is an infectious disease that is typically transmitted from diseased parrot family birds to humans. Psittacines, or members of the parrot family of birds, include parrots, macaws, budgerigars (also known as parakeets or cockatiels), and cockatiels.
Additionally, pigeons and domestic turkeys have infected humans. The illness is brought on by bacteria called Chlamydia psittaci.
This illness, which is communicated by birds in the parrot family, can infrequently be discovered in pet store employees, bird owners, zoo staff, and veterinarians.
Farmers and slaughterhouse employees who handle poultry (turkeys, chickens, and ducks), particularly turkeys, may also occasionally test positive for it. Less than ten instances have been reported annually since 2010 in the United States, making it a rare condition.
Psittacosis is less prevalent than it formerly was thanks to contemporary rules that control the pet bird trade.
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