All patients should have it assessed initially. Level of alertness, focused cortical functioning, cognition, mood and emotion, and thought content are the five components of a mental status examination.
What results of the infant's neurological evaluation?A basic battery of tests called a neurological exam provide your child's doctor the chance to see and evaluate your child's neural system while she is performing the following: condition of mind (level of awareness and interaction with the environment) sensory and motor skills. coordination and stability
Why is it necessary for a newborn to consult a neurologist?Our group assesses and manages a range of neurological issues and illnesses, such as: When a baby is born without receiving adequate oxygen, they are said to have had birth asphyxia. Neonatal epilepsies are those that happen within the first month of life. blood loss inside the skull
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question 9 of 10a nurse cares for a client who is post op open cholecystectomy and has a t-tube in place. which clinical situation will the nurse notify the health care provider about as a possible complication of the surgery?
A T-tube is a silicone stent for the trachea with an external limb. Thus correct answer (c)Significantly reduced bile output from the T-tube.
A T-tube is placed after open cholecystectomy to drain excess bile. The T-tube should remain below the level of the incision in order to ensure proper drainage. The nurse should report an output of greater than 500 mL in 24 hours or a significantly reduced bile output from the T-tube. There should not be bloody or serous output from the T-tube.
Do T tubes fall out of ears?
An ear tube often remains in the eardrum for four to 18 months before falling out on its own. A tube may not always fall out and must be surgically removed. In certain circumstances, the ear tube falls out too quickly, and a new one must be inserted into the eardrum..
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Full Question: A nurse cares for a client who is post op open cholecystectomy and has a T-tube in place. Which clinical situation will the nurse notify the health care provider about as a possible complication of the surgery?
Absence of blood or serous fluid in the T-tube.
Greater than 250 mL bile output from the T-tube in 24 hours.
Significantly reduced bile output from the T-tube.
Finding the T-tube placed below the level of the incision
a nurse educator is preparing to discuss immunodeficiency disorders with a group of fellow nurses. what would the nurse identify as the most common secondary immunodeficiency disorder?
Perhaps the most well-known secondary immunodeficiency disorder is AIDS, which is also the most prevalent secondary disorder. Human immunodeficiency virus infection is the cause (HIV).
What test will the nurse evaluate to find out whether the patient is responding to antiretroviral therapy?The CD4 cell count is used to evaluate the immunologic response to ART in patients on ART and to determine whether prophylaxis for opportunistic infections has to be started or stopped.
What types of diseases cause immunodeficiency?Common variable immunodeficiency and other primary immunodeficiency disorders are examples (CVID) Alymphocytosis, commonly known as severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). A persistent granulomatous condition (CGD).
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a public health nurse has formed a partnership with an advocacy group that acts on behalf of individuals who have experienced spinal cord injuries (scis). health promotion efforts are being planned with a knowledge that the incidence of scis varies widely between demographic groups. what population has the highest incidence of spinal cord injuries?
Health promotion efforts are being planned with a knowledge that the incidence of SCIs varies widely between demographic groups and the highest incidence of spinal cord injuries is in males between ages 16 and 30.
Health promotion is that the method of sanctionative folks to extend management over, and to boost, their health. It moves on the far side attention on individual behaviour towards a good vary of social and environmental interventions.
Spinal cord injuries may end up from harm to the vertebrae, ligaments or disks of the backbone or to the funiculus itself. A traumatic funiculus injury will stem from a sudden , traumatic blow to your spine that fractures, dislocates, crushes or compresses one or a lot of of your vertebrae.
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A client on the behavioral health unit tells the nurse that she experiences palpitations, trembling, and nausea while traveling alone, outside her home. These symptoms have severely limited her ability to function and have caused her to avoid leaving home whenever possible. The nurse recognizes that this client has symptoms of what disorder?
1. Thanatophobia
2. Aerophobia
3. Hodophobia
4. Agoraphobia
His symptoms severely limited his ability to function and caused him to avoid leaving the house, so the nurses recognized that this client had symptoms of 4. agoraphobia.
What is agoraphobia?Agoraphobia is a type of anxiety disorder. This disorder causes excessive feelings of fear and worry when in a place that makes it difficult for the sufferer to leave or feels unable to ask for help from anyone.
The causes of agoraphobia are still not known with certainty. However, this phobia is more prone to occur in people with a history of recurrent panic attacks. Although rare, agoraphobia can also occur in people who don't have a history of panic attacks.
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your protocols state that during the first few minutes of working on a cardiac arrest patient, you should provide passive ventilation. this means that you will:
your protocols state that during the first few minutes of working on a cardiac arrest patient, you should provide passive ventilation. this means that you will: allow recoil of the chest between compressions to draw air into the lungs.
What is ventilator?
A ventilator is a piece of medical equipment that transfers breathable air into and out of the lungs on behalf of a patient who is physically unable to breathe or who is not breathing sufficiently. However, a simple, manually operated bag valve mask can also be used to ventilate patients. Ventilators are electronic, microprocessor-driven gadgets. Ventilators are primarily used in intensive care, emergency medicine, home care, and anaesthesia.
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the nurse provides instructions to a client who will be taking cyclosporine oral solution. which action would the nurse tell the client to do?
Each patient is different. We provide medication referencing content solutions that acknowledge these variations and give you the tools you need to create the best evidence-based decisions.
What is the purpose of cyclosporine oral solution?When combined with other medications, cyclosporine helps to prevent the body from rejecting a transplanted organ (eg, kidney, liver, or heart). It is a member of the class of drugs known as immunosuppressive agents.
What ailments is cyclosporine used to treat?Immunosuppressive medication called cyclosporine is used to treat organ rejection after transplant. Additionally, it is used to treat organ rejection after allogeneic kidney, liver, and heart transplants and rheumatoid arthritis when methotrexate has not sufficiently alleviated symptoms.
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you have an odd friend: she is convinced that she can lose weight on a diet consisting entirely of walrus blubber (she read it on wikipedia so it must be true, right?!). aside from the fact that her breath smells like a dead walrus, you are concerned because you have some knowledge of biochemistry and you have seen some glaring problems with her new diet. you suggest to her that if she intends to stay on this diet, she should supplement it with a daily regimen of odd-chain fatty acids which she can purchase at the local health food store. why is this a good suggestion, and what will happen to her if she fails to heed your advice?
Someone is convinced that she can lose weight on a diet of walrus blubber only. Her friend advised that she should supplement it with some fatty acids.
This is a good suggestion because: fatty acids are important as energy storage for our body. If she fails to heed the advice, then: her body will likely have too much collagen and cholesterol, but lack sugar, fatty acid, and other essential vitamin and mineral.What does the importance of fatty acids to our body?A fatty acid is a component of complex lipids, which is either saturated or unsaturated. We need a good amount of fatty acid in our body as energy storage for our body. When someone’s body is short in sugar, fatty acids can be used to fuel the cells. That is why the girl needs to consume another source of fatty acids besides walrus blubber.
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a client who has an autosomal dominant inherited disorder is exploring family planning options and the risk of transmission of the disorder to an infant. the nurse's response should be based on what information?
The nurse's response should be based on the fact that each pregnancy carries a 50% chance of inheriting the disorder.
What is autosomal inherited disorder ?Using autosomal recessive inheritance, a genetic disorder or trait can be passed from parent to offspring. When a child receives one copy of a mutant (changed) gene from each parent, a genetic disease may result. A child with an autosomal recessive disease typically does not have affected parents.
Autosomal dominant disorders include Marfan syndrome and Huntington's disease. This method of transmission also applies to gene mutations in the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes, which have been linked to breast cancer.
All males receive a Y chromosome from their father, hence all characteristics that can only be found on the Y chromosome were passed down from father to son.
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A nurse is reviewing the plan of care with a client who has a new prescription for lovastatin. Which of the following statements by the client should indicate to the nurse a need for further assessment?
a. "I was just diagnosed with hepatitis B."
b. "I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice."
c. "I take metformin for my diabetes."
d. "I am trying to decrease my dietary fat intake."
d. "I am trying to decrease my dietary fat intake."
The client should indicate the nurse by saying: "I am trying to decrease my dietary fat intake."
What is cholesterol ?
A class of drugs known as HMG CoA reductase inhibitors includes lovastatin (statins). It functions by reducing the amount of cholesterol that may accumulate on the artery walls and obstruct blood flow to the heart, brain, and other organs of the body. This is done by delaying the body's creation of cholesterol.
a waxy, fat-like material that is produced in the liver and is present in all of the body's cells, including the blood. In addition to being necessary for the formation of hormones, tissues, cell walls, vitamin D, and bile acid, cholesterol is crucial for optimum health.
You can form fatty deposits in your blood vessels if you have high cholesterol. Over time, these deposits thicken and restrict the amount of blood that can pass through your arteries. These deposits can occasionally suddenly separate and form a clot that results in a heart attack or stroke.
Chronic stress raises stress hormone levels over time, which can result in over time raised blood pressure, blood sugar, cholesterol, and/or triglycerides.
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the nurse is conducting discharge teaching to the caregiver of a 6-month-old child diagnosed with acute otitis media and prescribed amoxicillin and alternating acetaminophen and ibuprofen for fever. which statement by the caregiver establishes a need for additional teaching by the nurse?
Baby aspirin may be used if the fever persists despite taking acetaminophen and ibuprofen alternately. This claim made by the caregiver indicates that the nurse needs to provide further instruction.
What is amoxicillin commonly used for?It is employed to treat bacterial illnesses such abscesses in the teeth and chest infections (including pneumonia). Additionally, it can be used in combination with other antibiotics and medicines to treat stomach ulcers. It is widely used for the treatment of ear infections and chest infections in children. Several bacterial diseases are treated with amoxicillin. Because it is effective against a wide variety of bacterial strains, doctors consider it to be a strong antibiotic.
What is the most common side effect of amoxicillin and is amoxicillin used to treat STDS?Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea are the most typical amoxicillin adverse effects. These ought to be disposed of when you've done taking the medication. Contact your healthcare provider right away if you experience any serious side effects, such as extreme diarrhea or signs of an allergic reaction.
For the treatment of some sexually transmitted illnesses, amoxicillin is an antibiotic that is consumed orally (STIs). such as amoxicillin, penicillinV-K, or any antibiotic that is a cephalosporin, such as cefixime (Suprax®), cephalexin (Keflex®), cefaclor (Ceclor®), or another medication in this group. get in touch with your doctor.
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an older adult woman was admitted to the hospital for the treatment of a complicated urinary tract infection. since admission the patient has developed urosepsis and failed to respond to treatment. the patient's most recent changes in condition are indicative of septic shock and she has been transferred to the critical care unit. what aspect of care will be prioritized in the woman's subsequent phase of treatment?
Eliminating the cause of the patient's infection aspect of care will be prioritized in the woman's subsequent phase of treatment.
What is urinary tract infection?
Any infection in the urinary system is referred to as a urinary tract infection (UTI). The kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra are components of the urinary system. Most infections affect the bladder and urethra, which are parts of the lower urinary system.
Compared to men, women are more likely to get a UTI. An infection that only affects the bladder can be uncomfortable and painful. A UTI, however, can spread to the kidneys and cause serious health issues.
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an infant with the diagnosis of exstrophy of the bladder undergoes surgery to close the defect. what must the nurse include in the discharge teaching for the parents?
Complete primary repair of bladder exstrophy is the name of the procedure, and the nurse is helping the RN with discharge instructions.
How is bladder exstrophy treated?The bladder, abdomen, and outer sex organs are all closed during a single surgery that also reconstructs the urethra. This can be carried out as soon as the infant is born or about two to three months old. The majority of infant surgeries include pelvic bone replacement.
What is the bladder's surgical repair?Neobladder reconstruction is a surgical procedure that results in the creation of a new bladder. If the bladder is malfunctioning or was removed to treat another condition, a surgeon can create an alternative pathway for pee to exit the body.
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it is determined that the client is experiencing a cholinergic crisis, possibly due to an overdose of anticholinesterase medication. question 11 of 26 in planning care for the client the nurses should identify which nursing diagnosis as a priority?
Withdrawing any anticholinesterase medications, doing mechanical respiration if necessary, and administering atropine intravenously for any side effects of the overdose are treatments for cholinergic crises.
What are the uses of anticholinesterase medications?Cholinesterase inhibitors work to slow down the acetylcholine's deterioration. They employ it to treat dementia and Alzheimer's symptoms. The use of cholinesterase inhibitors in treating dementia problems and various uses in other specialties are covered in this activity, along with its indications, mechanisms of action, and contraindications.
Which medications inhibit cholinesterase?The therapies that are most frequently used to treat myasthenia gravis include anticholinesterase medications, prednisone, thymectomy, immunosuppressive medications other than prednisone, and plasmapheresis. Pyridostigmine bromide is the anticholinesterase medication that is most frequently utilized (Mestinon).
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a pediatric patient with a weight of 20 kg is prescribed diphenoxylate with atropine for diarrhea. the dosage is 0.3 mg/kg/day in four divided doses. how many milligrams will the nurse administer for each dose?
A pediatric patient with a weight of 20 kg is prescribed diphenoxylate with atropine for diarrhea. The dosage is 0.3 mg/kg/day in four divided doses. 1.5 milligrams will the nurse administer for each dose.
What is diarrhea?
Having at least three watery, loose, or loose-moving bowel motions every day is referred to as diarrhea. Due to fluid loss, it frequently lasts for a few days and can lead to dehydration. Dehydration symptoms frequently start with irritability and a lack of the skin's usual stretchiness. As it worsens, this might lead to decreased urine, skin discoloration, a rapid heartbeat, and a decrease in responsiveness. However, among infants who are exclusively breastfed, loose but dry feces are typical.
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the ems brought a 31-year-old motor vehicle accident patient to the emergency department. after a comprehensive history, a comprehensive exam and medical decision making of high complexity; the provider determines the patient has multiple internal injuries and needs immediate surgery. what level ed code is reported?
A 31-year-old patient of a vehicle accident has multiple internal injuries and needs immediate surgery. The level ED code that is reported: is 99285.
What is the level ED code?ED code stands for Emergency Department codes that are classified into 5 levels: 99281, 99282, 99283, 99284, and 99285. These codes determine the complexity and complication a patient has. If a patient is having code 99281, it means they are in a level 1 emergency. Hence, the higher the number, the worse complexity a patient has. The patient in question has multiple internal injuries and needs immediate surgery, so they are classified as code 5 (99285).
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a hospital client is immunocompromised because of stage 3 hiv infection and the physician has ordered a chest radiograph. how should the nurse most safely facilitate the test?
The safest way to facilitate the procedure is using a portable x-ray machine in the patient's room.
Is HIV a harmful condition?
If HIV is not treated appropriately, it can lead to AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome). There is no HIV treatment that works, and the human body cannot get rid of HIV.
What does a typical chest radiograph entail?When taking a normal chest radiograph, the subject must be upright and the X-ray beam must travel through them from posterior to anterior (PA). The chest X-ray image created is viewed as though facing the patient directly in the front.
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the nurse is caring for a client with advanced liver disease who has ascites. which treatment will the nurse anticipate being used for the daily management of ascites?
The treatment will the nurse anticipate being used for the daily management of ascites is diuretics.
The correct option is A.
How do diuretics work?Any medication that encourages diuresis—the increased output of urine—is referred to as a diuretic. This includes compelled urination. A water pill is a common nickname for a diuretic tablet. Diuretics can be divided into numerous groups. The elimination of water by the body through the kidneys is increased by all diuretics.
BriefingThe injection of diuretics to reduce fluid retention and sodium restriction are often the main daily care strategies for ascites. Diuretics that spare potassium or loop are employed. Large-volume paracentesis is only performed on patients with severe ascites that is uncomfortable for the patient. By managing the ascites on a regular basis, it should be feasible to avoid this intrusive treatment and its hazards.
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The complete question you are looking for is :
The nurse is caring for a client with advanced liver disease who has ascites. Which treatment will the nurse anticipate being used for the daily management of ascites?
A. diuretics
B. desmopressin
C. thoracentesis
D. paracentesis
quizelt if a person presents to the emergency department and collapses outside the er doors, is emtala evoked? a. yes, but only if they are in active labor. b. yes, the 250-yard zone applies in this case. c. no, the patient must be inside the emergency room for emtala to apply. d. no, the emergency department is not considered "on the hospital campus."
The correct option (a) Yes, the 250-yard zone applies in this case
Response Feedback
The 250-yard zone will continue to apply when defining the "hospital campus." Now, however, that sphere does not include non-medical businesses (shops and restaurants located close to the hospital), nor does it include physicians' offices or other medical entities that have a separate Medicare identity.
EMTALA applies to anybody who appears anywhere on the hospital grounds and demands emergency services, or who seems to a reasonably sensible person to be in need of medical treatment. EMTALA is not invoked in other presentations outside of the emergency department.
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which developmental milestone related to feeding would the nurse anticipate for a 36-month-old client? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The nurse expected the 36-month-old child to use a fork for feeding by gripping it in his fist and spilling a few bites when using a spoon.
What developmental milestones should a four-year-old child meet, according to the nurse?Your child's gross motor skills—using their arms and legs to move around and play—and fine motor skills—working on crafts and puzzles—are still growing between the ages of 4 and 5. Playtime helps kids develop their imaginations and is crucial to their development.
What stage of development should my 3-year-old be at?Your child is incredibly mobile, energetic, and learning in very physical ways at this age. At this age, kids are capable of running, kicking, walking, and throwing.
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the nurse is conducting a health history of a child. the parent states that the client continually has a cold all winter with a runny nose, is not doing well in school, and is itching all the time. the nurse suspects the child has which condition?
The nurse suspects that the child has option A: allergies.
Sneezing, runny or stuffy nose, itchy eyes and nose, sore throat, coughing, and dark circles under the eyes are all signs of seasonal allergies. There may be more to seasonal allergies than just a minor irritation. When their skin is warmed after being exposed to cold temperatures below 39 degrees, people with cold urticaria feel itchy hives, redness, and swelling.
Mold, dust, dust mites, and animal dander are the most common allergens in the winter. These are more prevalent during the winter because people spend more time indoors, in cramped spaces, where those things thrive. Allow your child's doctor to take a look up their nose if you are unsure of what ailment your child has.
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Complete question is:
The nurse is conducting a health history of a child. The mother states that the client continually has a cold all winter with a runny nose, is not doing well in school, and is itching all the time. The nurse suspects the child has which of the following?
a) Allergies
b) Sinusitis
c) Ringworm
d) Fifth disease
the nurse is evaluating client risk for the development of overactive bladder/urge incontinence and determines that which client is at highest risk for this condition?
The nurse is evaluating client risk for the development of overactive bladder/urge incontinence and determines that a client with diabetes is at highest risk for this condition.
What does diabetes mean?Diabetes affects how your body converts food into energy and is a continuous (long-lasting) health issue.A large portion of the food you eat is turned by you organism into sugar (glucose), which itself is later released into your circulation. The rise in blood sugar levels triggers your pancreas to release insulin.
How does diabetes affect the color of your urine?Urine that has too much sugar in it due to diabetes might become murky. Also, your urine could have a fruity or sweet odor. Diabetes can also cause kidney issues or raise your risk of urinary tract infections, which also can cause your urine to appear hazy.
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a patient has received epinephrine for treatment of anaphylaxis. which additional drug may be helpful to prevent recurrent anaphylaxis?
Although evidence are limited to case studies, glucose may be helpful for patients with severe anaphylaxis who are on beta-blockers (it should be taken in addition to epinephrine, not as a substitute). Bronchospasm can also be treated with glucagon.
Which drugs are effective in preventing anaphylaxis?The only medication that effectively cures anaphylactic responses is epinephrine. When administered quickly, before symptoms worsen, it works best.
Can anti-allergy medications stop anaphylaxis?Antihistamine therapy does not alleviate or prevent all of the pathophysiological symptoms of anaphylaxis, including the more serious side effects like airway obstruction, hypotension, and shock, despite the fact that histamine is involved in the condition.
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the parents of a child with ataxia-telangiectasia (at) ask the nurse if the child will have a normal intellect. what is the nurse's best response?
The nurse should make the client understand by saying that : "Early in the course of the disease, cognitive development is normal but stops by age 10. Both cellular and humoral immunity are lacking in children with AT" .
What is ataxia-telangiectasia ?
The area of the brain that regulates speech and motor movements degenerates in children with the neurological condition known as ataxia-telangiectasia. Slurred speech and shaky gait are the disease's initial symptoms, which typically appear in children under the age of five.
Ataxia-telangiectasia is caused by a hereditary mutation. Ataxia-telangiectasia can be inherited by anyone if both of their parents have the ATM gene mutation and pass it on to their offspring (autosomal recessive).
Symptoms
Ataxia, or a lack of coordination, can cause ataxic gait (cerebellar ataxia), and unsteadiness in late childhood.
After the ages of 10 to 12, mental development slows or stops.
sluggish walking
skin discoloration in sun-exposed areas.
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the nurse has been caring for a child who has been receiving growth hormone therapy for several years. when the child returns for evaluation following a sudden growth spurt, what nursing diagnosis should the nurse most likely add to the plan of care?
Answer:
C
Explanation:
the nurse is administering phenytoin to a client who is also receiving a continuous nasogastric enteral feeding and is aware of what possible effect?
The nurse is aware that it will decrease the absorption of the AED
What is AED ?
When a person is having a sudden cardiac arrest, an AED, or automated external defibrillator, is used to assist them.
The heart rhythm of individuals who are experiencing cardiac arrest is automatically analyzed by an AED, a sort of computerized defibrillator. When necessary, it shocks the heart with electricity to get it back into rhythm.
This shock totally stops the heart, depolarizing the cardiac muscle and eradicating the deadly arrhythmia.
The heart has the astonishing capacity to restart its internal pacemaker after stopping, allowing it to resume beating regularly.
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a client is prescribed montelukast as part of a treatment plan for an allergic disorder. the nurse understands that this drug belongs to which class?
Montelukast is the drug which belongs to the class of leukotriene receptor antagonist that is prescribed to the patient for an allergic disorder.
What is Montelukast?Anaphylaxis is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction which can develop rapidly in an individual. It is also called as anaphylactic shock. Common signs of anaphylaxis include itchy skin or a red skin rash.
Montelukast is a leukotriene-receptor antagonist class drug. It is generally prescribed when the asthma is mild and can prevent this condition from getting worse. Montelukast can also help people with asthma who are facing breathing difficulties when they perform any physical activity and anaphylaxis, seasonal allergies, such as sneezing, itchiness and a blocked or runny nose.
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a patient has a high level of mast cell activity, dilation of blood vessels, and acute drop in blood pressure. which condition is most consistent with these symptoms?
Anaphylaxis's pathogenesis The acute and widespread release of mediators from tissue mast cells activity is what causes the majority of anaphylactic reactions.
Which of these cells is a part of the auxiliary immune response?During the initial immune response, B and T cells reproduce to create effector cells and durable memory cells. Memory B and T cells are antigen-specific and can develop a secondary immune response—a quicker and more potent immune response—when they come into contact with the antigen again.
What traits define a secondary immune response?Compared to a main immune response, a secondary immunological response is slower. Compared to a primary immune response, a secondary immunological response is more persistent.
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a nurse administering a client's medication tells the client that a proton pump inhibitor has been added. when the client asks the purpose of the medication, the nurse responds that it is to prevent:
when the client asks the purpose of the medication, the nurse responds that it is to prevent: Stress ulcer, Proton pump inhibitors are the first line of medications used in the prevention of stress ulcers.
Proton pump inhibitors are used to: Reduce the symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and acid reflux (GERD). This is a disorder when food or liquid travels up into the esophagus from the stomach (the tube from the mouth to the stomach). Treat a stomach or duodenal (gastric) ulcer. Human Study: Gastric Acid Secretory Capacity Controls Proton Pump Activation in Stimulated Parietal Cells - PMC If the causes of an ulcers are removed, it will be able to heal. In order to reduce stomach acid, coat and protect the ulcers during healing, and eradicate any potential bacterial infection, healthcare professionals treat uncomplicated ulcers with a combination of medications. Antibiotics are a possible medication.
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. a pregnant woman has come to the emergency department with complaints of nasal congestion and epistaxis. what action by the nurse is best?
Teach that the increased blood supply to the mucous membranes and can result in congestion and nosebleeds,The upper respiratory tract was impacted by the edema and hyperemia that follow capillary engorgement, which are symptoms that are frequently observed during pregnancy.A referral is not required.The patient does not require lab work or to be connected to a heart monitor.The patient needs to be made aware that estrogen, not progesterone, is what causes these alterations.
Why folate during and before pregnancy?Before becoming pregnant and up until you are 12 weeks along, it is crucial to take a 400 microgram folic acid tablet every day.Spina bifida and other neural tube problems, such as birth defects, can be prevented with folic acid.
What fruit is beneficial during pregnancy?This includes berries like raspberries, strawberries, blueberries, and just about any other berry you can think of! Berries are a great source of antioxidants, which can protect both mother and fetus from dangerous ailments.
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a client has just been given a diagnosis of cirrhosis of the liver. which statements by the nurse should be avoided because they could impede communication? select all that apply.
Because the nurse could obstruct communication, they should be avoided. There won't be any problems. Be positive. A new day will come tomorrow. The expert is your physician. Be at ease. In a few more days, everything will be fine.
Which character trait aids a nurse in effectively meeting a client's requirements while staying compassionately detached?Intuitive awareness of the client's experiences is referred to as empathy. It enables the nurse to carry out her duties while maintaining emotional neutrality.
What does the nurse want to achieve when working with a patient?The therapeutic nurse-client relationship safeguards the patient's autonomy, privacy, and dignity while allowing for the growth of trust and respect, regardless of the length or nature of the interaction.
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