The median household income in Prince Edward Island is approximately $44,180 per year, while the median household income in Alberta is about $78,213. However, suppose the growth rate of per capita real GDP in Prince Edward Island is higher than in Alberta (3% versus 2%).
a. From the perspective of trying to maximize your income per capita, which state will have higher increases in income over the next few years?
(a) Alberta, because income is already higher.
(b) Alberta, because incomes are rising slower.
(c) Prince Edward Island, because the lower income means the cost of living is less.
(d) Prince Edward Island, because the growth rate is higher.

b. From the perspective of trying to maximize your income per capita, which state will have higher increases in income in the long run?
(a) Prince Edward Island, because the higher growth rate will lead to higher incomes in the long run.
(b) Prince Edward Island, because the cost of living is lower.
(c) Alberta, because incomes are higher now.
(d) Alberta, because the growth rate is lower, so the cost of living is lower.

Answers

Answer 1

a. The correct answer is (d) Prince Edward Island, because the growth rate is higher.

Given that the growth rate of per capita real GDP in Prince Edward Island is 3% and in Alberta is 2%, it means that Prince Edward Island's economy is expanding at a faster pace compared to Alberta. This higher growth rate suggests that the incomes in Prince Edward Island are expected to increase at a greater rate over the next few years. Therefore, from the perspective of maximizing income per capita, Prince Edward Island is likely to experience higher increases in income.

b. The correct answer is (a) Prince Edward Island, because the higher growth rate will lead to higher incomes in the long run.

In the long run, a higher growth rate of per capita real GDP implies sustained economic expansion and increasing incomes over time. Therefore, Prince Edward Island, with its higher growth rate of 3%, is expected to have higher increases in income in the long run compared to Alberta. The higher growth rate will lead to higher incomes per capita and contribute to the economic development of Prince Edward Island. The cost of living or current income levels in Alberta do not necessarily determine the long-term income growth prospects of the two regions.

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Related Questions

12 points Save Answer is applied in the Explain how lean production service sector using examples.

Answers

Lean production in the service sector is an approach that is aimed at eliminating wasteful activities and maximizing the value delivered to customers. The philosophy focuses on reducing errors and delivering quality services that meet customer needs and expectations. Here is how the lean production approach can be applied in the service sector:


1. Eliminating non-value-adding activities
The first step is to identify the activities that do not add value to the service and eliminate them. This could involve streamlining processes, reorganizing workspaces, and adopting automation. For example, a bank could use automated teller machines (ATMs) to handle simple transactions such as deposits and withdrawals, freeing up tellers to focus on more complex tasks such as financial planning.
2. Continuous improvement
Lean production involves continuous improvement of processes to ensure that they are as efficient as possible. This could involve regular reviews of processes to identify areas for improvement, training employees on best practices, and using data to track performance. For example, a call center could use data analytics to track call volumes, response times, and customer satisfaction levels, making adjustments as needed to ensure that customers receive the best possible service.
3. Employee involvement
Employees play a critical role in lean production, as they are the ones who are closest to the processes. Service sector companies should involve employees in identifying areas for improvement, testing new processes, and providing feedback on how to improve service delivery. For example, a hotel could involve housekeeping staff in identifying ways to reduce cleaning times while maintaining high standards of cleanliness.
4. Customer focus
Finally, lean production in the service sector should focus on delivering value to the customer. This involves understanding customer needs and expectations and designing processes that deliver services that meet or exceed those needs and expectations. For example, a restaurant could use customer feedback to refine its menu offerings and service delivery to ensure that customers are satisfied and likely to return.

In summary, lean production in the service sector involves eliminating non-value-adding activities, continuous improvement, employee involvement, and customer focus to deliver high-quality services that meet customer needs and expectations.

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Use the below terminologies to convince a marketing team that a
product or service of your choice is worth investing in:
Customer Equity
Brand Equity
Brand Mantra
Value Proposition

Answers

Investing in a product or service requires a deep understanding of its potential in the market. Customer Equity, Brand Equity, Brand Mantra, and Value Proposition are crucial concepts that can help marketing teams assess a product's worth investing in.

Customer Equity refers to the value a customer brings to a company over their lifetime. Investing in a product with high customer equity means that customers are loyal, have high lifetime value, and are likely to advocate for the brand. Brand Equity is the value a brand holds in the market, and investing in a product with strong brand equity can help increase market share. Brand Mantra is a concise statement that encapsulates a brand's identity and purpose. Investing in a product with a strong brand mantra can help create a unique brand image. Value Proposition is the unique value a product offers to customers compared to its competitors. Investing in a product with a strong value proposition can help create a competitive advantage.

Investing in a product or service requires a thorough understanding of customer equity, brand equity, brand mantra, and value proposition. By assessing these concepts, marketing teams can determine whether a product is worth investing in, as they are crucial to creating a competitive advantage and increasing market share.

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what+is+the+expected+return+and+beta+for+a+portfolio+with+150%+of+the+funds+in+asset+a+and+the+remainder+in+the+risk-free+asset+via+borrowing+at+the+risk-free+interest+rate?

Answers

To calculate the expected return and beta of a portfolio, we need the expected returns and betas of the individual assets in the portfolio.

Assuming Asset A has an expected return of Ra and a beta of Ba, and the risk-free asset has an expected return of Rf, we can calculate the expected return and beta of the portfolio as follows:

Expected Return of the Portfolio:

Rp = (1 - Borrowing Ratio) * Ra + Borrowing Ratio * Rf

In this case, the borrowing ratio is 150% of the funds in Asset A. Let's assume the borrowing ratio is represented by the variable "B" (B = 1.5). The formula for the expected return of the portfolio becomes:

Rp = (1 - B) * Ra + B * Rf

Beta of the Portfolio:

Bp = (1 - B) * Ba

Using the given borrowing ratio of 150% (B = 1.5), the formulas for the expected return and beta of the portfolio become:

Expected Return of the Portfolio:

Rp = (1 - 1.5) * Ra + 1.5 * Rf

Rp = -0.5 * Ra + 1.5 * Rf

Beta of the Portfolio:

Bp = (1 - 1.5) * Ba

Bp = -0.5 * Ba

Therefore, the expected return of the portfolio is given by -0.5 times the expected return of Asset A plus 1.5 times the expected return of the risk-free asset. The beta of the portfolio is -0.5 times the beta of Asset A.

Please note that the specific values of Ra, Ba, and Rf are needed to calculate the expected return and beta accurately.

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An experiment has been conducted to examine whether gender and training affects the time for students to finish a puzzle. A group of students were divided into four subgroups: trained male students, non-trained male students, trained female students and non-trained female students. Each group was assigned to complete the same puzzle. Which one of the following charts indicates an interaction exists between gender and training?
13. XYZ Co. manufactures sausages for customers. Given the following process capability report of the sausage weight (in grams) with respect to USL/LSL, what is the capability index Cpk of the process?
A. 1.00
B. 0.84
C. 0.99
D. 1.09
E. 2.00
14. Which of the following people is responsible for leading six Sigma projects and use DMAIC methodology to create breakthroughs in performance?
A. Black Belt
B. Green Belt
C. Yellow Belt
D. White Belt
E. Master Black Belt.
15. ABC hospital collected data from a patient satisfaction survey for a group of 25 randomly selected patients. In addition to satisfaction, data were collected on patient age and an index measured the severity of illness. What do you conclude from the following analysis result table.
Model Summary
S R-sq R-sq(adj) R-sq(pred)
7.26835 89.22% 88.24% 85.74%
Coefficients
Term Coef SE Coef T-Value P-Value VIF
Constant 144.25 6.13 23.53 0.000
age -1.008 0.116 -8.68 0.000 1.33
severity -0.607 0.131 -4.62 0.000 1.33
Older patients with more severe illness were more satisfied with the hospital services.
Older patients with more severe illness did not concern the hospital services.
Younger patients with less severe illness were more satisfied with the hospital services.
Younger patients with less severe illness did not concern the hospital services.
None of the above conclusion is correct.
this is the wuestion, no data is missed

Answers

The chart below is an example of an interaction chart for gender and training that reveals a strong relationship between the two variables. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

Experiment design to investigate whether gender and training affect time for students to finish a puzzle. The experiment conducted aims to evaluate the impacts of gender and training on the amount of time taken by students to complete a puzzle. The researchers took a group of students, divided them into four subgroups, and assigned them the same puzzle. The four groups were composed of non-trained and trained female and male students. The gender and training interaction may be determined by looking at the variations between the groups. In essence, if gender and training have an impact, the effect on the puzzle completion time must differ between the four groups. For each subgroup, the time it took to finish the puzzle should be compared. A chart depicting the relationship between gender and training will demonstrate the difference in puzzle completion time between groups. The chart below is an example of an interaction chart for gender and training that reveals a strong relationship between the two variables. Therefore, option D is the correct answer. In conclusion, the graph in the option D represents the strongest interaction between gender and training. Option A is incorrect because the graph shows an insignificant interaction, while option B represents the main effect of gender and does not consider the effect of training. Option C represents the main effect of training and does not account for gender. Finally, option E is incorrect because it represents a flat relationship between gender and training, which indicates no impact on puzzle completion time.

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Acme Logistics provides "less than truck load" (LTL) services throughout the U.S. They have several hubs where they use cross-docking to move goods from one trailer to another. Acme built its last hub 10 years ago, and it had 36 dock doors. The cost index at that time was 140, and the total cost was $6 million. Acme plans a new hub that will have 60 dock doors. The cost index now is 195, and Acme will use a capacity factor of 0.74. What is the estimated cost (in millions of dollars) of the new hub? (Enter your answer as a number in millions of dollars without the dollar $ sign.)

Answers

The estimated cost of Acme Logistics' new hub is $12.0 million.

To calculate the estimated cost of the new hub, we can use the cost index and the capacity factor.

First, we need to calculate the adjusted cost index for the new hub:

Adjusted Cost Index = Current Cost Index / Base Cost Index

                  = [tex]\frac{195}{140}[/tex]

                  ≈ 1.39

Next, we calculate the estimated cost of the new hub using the adjusted cost index and the capacity factor:

Estimated Cost = Adjusted Cost Index x  Base Cost x (Number of Dock Doors / Base Number of Dock Doors) x Capacity Factor

              = 1.39 x $6 million x (60 / 36) x 0.74

              ≈ 1.39 x $6 million x 1.67 x 0.74

              ≈ $12.0 million

Therefore, the estimated cost of the new hub is approximately $12.0 million.

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An industry in which average total costs fall as output increases. O is a decreasing-cost industry. O is an increasing-output industry. O is an increasing-cost industry. O is a constant-cost industry.

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An industry in which average total costs fall as output increases is referred to as a decreasing-cost industry (a).

In a decreasing-cost industry, as output increases, the average total costs (ATC) of production decrease. There are a few reasons why this may occur:

Economies of scale: As production increases, a firm may benefit from economies of scale, which means that the cost per unit of production decreases. This can be due to factors such as spreading fixed costs over a larger output, bulk purchasing discounts, or more efficient production processes.Technological advancements: Advancements in technology can lead to improved production techniques, increased efficiency, and lower costs. These advancements can be realized as output increases and firms can take advantage of the economies of scale.Learning curve: With increased production, firms gain experience and knowledge in producing the goods or services, leading to improved efficiency and reduced costs over time.

Overall, in a decreasing-cost industry, the cost advantages of scale, technology, and learning curve effects result in lower average total costs as output increases. Therefore, the correct answer is option a.

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Year Tax Revenue Expenditures National Debt Deficit 1 2 $30 Trillion $25 Trillion $40 Trillion $35 Trillion $25 Trillion $35 Trillion $40 Trillion $50 Trillion 3 0 4 Refer to the table above. Whst is the value of the national debt at year 4? O a) $5 Trillion Ob) $10 Trillion O c) $15 Trillion O d) $20 Trillion

Answers

The value of the national debt at year 4 is $20 trillion.

The national debt refers to the accumulated financial obligations that a government owes to various creditors, both domestic and foreign. It represents the total amount of money that a country's government has borrowed over time to finance its expenditures and cover budget deficits. Governments typically borrow by issuing bonds, treasury bills, and other forms of debt instruments. The national debt includes both the outstanding principal amount borrowed and the accrued interest on that debt. It is an essential indicator of a country's fiscal health and its ability to meet its financial obligations. Managing the national debt is a critical aspect of economic policy and often involves balancing the need for borrowing with the goal of maintaining sustainable levels of debt.

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Assume that you are taking a certification exam and doing well on the exam would be a key step in qualifying for an OM internship at Disney World. Also, suppose that a certification exam question asks you to identify the choice that best explains the Min M/M/1 queues. Identify the correct answer. Inter-arrival times and service times are Poisson distributed. Inter-arrival times and service times are normally distributed. Arrival rates and service rates are exponentially distributed Inter-arrival times and service times are exponentially distributed,

Answers

The correct answer to the question on certification exam is "Inter-arrival times and service times are exponentially distributed."

Explanation:Queuing theory is the mathematics of waiting in lines, especially waiting for service in a network of service facilities such as computers. In many operational research contexts, queuing theory is used to model the act of waiting in a line. This theory deals with the performance of waiting line systems, with a specific emphasis on providing mathematical models to identify, explain, and mitigate queuing problems.

Waiting line, service time distribution, arrival time distribution, number of servers, and queue discipline are the critical variables in queuing theory. The majority of queueing systems can be simplified to three fundamental characteristics: arrival processes, service processes, and queue discipline. M/M/1 is a single-server queueing system in which interarrival and service periods are exponentially distributed and there is only one server.The given question is about identifying the correct answer for Min M/M/1 queues.

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The group of existing and potential customers to which we direct
our marketing efforts is called the

Answers

The group of existing and potential customers to which we direct our marketing efforts is called the target market.

The target market refers to a specific group of customers who are most likely to be interested in and purchase a company's products or services. It is the segment of the overall market that a business focuses on to tailor its marketing strategies and messages. Identifying and understanding the target market is essential for effective marketing as it helps businesses allocate their resources efficiently and tailor their products, pricing, promotion, and distribution strategies to meet the needs and preferences of the target audience.

The target market can be defined based on various factors such as demographics (age, gender, income, occupation), psychographics (lifestyle, values, interests), behavior (buying patterns, usage habits), or geographic location. By analyzing these characteristics, businesses can create customer profiles or buyer personas that represent their ideal customers.

For example, a company that sells luxury watches may define its target market as affluent individuals aged 35-55, with high disposable income, who value style and prestige. By understanding the demographics, psychographics, and behavior of this target market, the company can tailor its marketing messages and channels to effectively reach and engage these potential customers.

The target market is a crucial concept in marketing that helps businesses identify and focus their marketing efforts on a specific group of existing and potential customers. By understanding the characteristics and preferences of the target market, businesses can develop strategies to effectively reach and serve their customers, leading to increased sales and customer satisfaction.

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Q1-EXCELLENCE UAE Ltd budgeted at the beginning of the period to produce and sell 90,000 units of production at a price of 22 AED each. The following are the budgeted expenses: Direct Material 4 AED per unit, Direct Labor, 8 AED per unit, Fixed manufacturing 850,000 AED. The reported actual values at the end of the period are the following: Unit sold 100,000/Price 20 AED/Direct Material 5 AED per unit/Direct Labor 6 AED per unit / Fixed Manufacturing 800,000 AED. Assume that the amount of financial debt of the company is 500,000, the amount of Equity is 500,000, the interest rate is 10%, the income taxes rate is 20% and that the Annual General Meeting decide to retain 40% the earnings. Q1 a) Prepare the flexible budget analyzing and commenting efficiency and price variances (Favorable and Unfavorable results) up to the operating income (EBIT). (7 marks) Q1 b) Calculate the ROI and ROE, only for the actual results (financial statement), comment the results assuming that the minimum desirable return of the owners is 5%. (3 marks) Q2-Analyze, describe and comment the usefulness of the balance scorecard (5 marks)

Answers

Q1a) To create a flexible budget and assess the efficiency and price variances, we must compare actual results to budgeted values.

Modular Budget:

Units Sold: 100,000

Price: 22 AED

100,000 x 22 = 2,200,000 AED

Actual Units: 100,000

AED 5 per unit.

Total direct material cost: 100,000 * 5 = 500,000 AED

Direct Labour: 100,000 Units

Unit Price: 6 AED

100,000 * 6 = 600,000 AED Total Direct Labour Cost

800,000 AED Fixed Cost

Direct material cost + direct labor cost + fixed manufacturing cost = 1,900,000 AED.

Operating Income (EBIT): Sales minus Cost = 300,000 AED

Efficiency Variance: 90,000.

Unit Price: 4 AED

100,000 units.

AED 5 per unit.

Efficiency Variability: Budgeted Cost per Unit x Actual Units (Actual Units * Unit Cost)

Efficiency variance: 400,000 - 500,000 = -100,000 AED (unfavorable).

Price variation

Units: 90,000

Unit Price: 4 AED

100,000 units.

AED 5 per unit.

Price variation Units * Unit Cost Actual Units * Budgeted Cost Per Unit

Price Difference: 500,000 - 400,000 = 100,000 AED (Favourable)

Q1b) ROI is computed by dividing EBIT by Total Assets.

ROI= Operating Income/Total Assets

ROI = 300,000 / (500,000 + 500,000) = 0.3

Net Income divided by Equity gives ROE.Net Income/Equity

ROE = (1-Retained Earnings Rate) * Operating Income / Equity = 0.36.

ROI and ROE exceed the minimum ideal return of 5%, assuming. This means the corporation is outperforming its owners.

Q2) The balanced scorecard measures performance using financial and non-financial metrics. Financial, customer, internal procedures, and learning and growth are considered.

The balanced scorecard helps organizations align goals, monitor performance across dimensions, and make strategic decisions. It lets the company's performance be assessed beyond financial measurements.

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The 12/31/2019 balance sheet of Villarreal Inc. included the following: Common stock, 25 million shares 500million at $20 par Paid-in capital-excess of par 3,000million Retained earnings 980million In January 2019, Villarreal recorded a transaction with this journal entry (in millions): Cash 150 Common stock 100 Paid-in capital- 50 excess of par The transaction was for the:

Answers

the transaction represents the issuance of common stock at par value and the receipt of additional capital above the par value from investors.

The transaction recorded in January 2019 with the journal entry:

Cash $150 million

Common stock $100 million

Paid-in capital - excess of par $50 million

indicates that Villarreal Inc. received $150 million in cash. Out of this amount, $100 million was recorded as an increase in the common stock account, representing the issuance of common stock at par value. The remaining $50 million was recorded as an increase in the paid-in capital - excess of par account, representing the additional amount received above the par value of the stock.

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Select whether stockholders' equity would increase (1), decrease (D), or have no effect (NE) as a result of each separate transaction listed below. Equity List 1. Treasury stock is sold above cost for cash. 2. A large stock dividend is issued. 3. Treasury shares of preferred stock are purchased. 4. Treasury stock is sold at cost for cash.

Answers

1. Treasury stock is sold above cost for cash: A treasury stock is the repurchased share from the stockholder by the corporation. It is a negative account, and when it is sold at a price higher than the cost price, then the stockholders' equity would increase (1).

2. A large stock dividend is issued: When a stock dividend is issued, the company would not pay cash, but the stockholder's share count would be increased. It has no effect (NE) on the stockholder's equity.

3. Treasury shares of preferred stock are purchased: When the treasury shares of preferred stock are purchased, the company's stockholders' equity would decrease (D).

4. Treasury stock is sold at cost for cash: The cost of the treasury stock is equal to the cost paid by the corporation for the repurchased stock. When the treasury stock is sold for cash, it would have no effect (NE) on the stockholders' equity.

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how does socialism create serious challenges to a business
ethics?

Answers

Socialism creates serious challenges to business ethics because of the following reasons:

Under socialism, all means of production are owned and controlled by the state or society. The state or society is responsible for the distribution of wealth according to the needs of its people, not according to the amount of work they do or the profit they generate.

This creates a fundamental issue for business ethics, as the profit motive that drives the success of most businesses is removed. Without a profit motive, businesses have little incentive to innovate or to provide quality products and services to customers. Additionally, socialist societies are often characterized by high levels of bureaucracy, which can lead to inefficient and ineffective management practices. This can be a significant challenge for businesses looking to operate within a socialist system.

In a socialist system, the state or society owns and controls all means of production. This means that businesses are not free to operate as they please and must follow strict guidelines set by the government. The government has a significant amount of power over businesses, which can lead to corruption and a lack of transparency. This can be a significant challenge for businesses looking to operate within a socialist system.

In addition to this, socialist systems are often characterized by high levels of bureaucracy. This can make it difficult for businesses to navigate the system and to get the permits and approvals they need to operate. Additionally, the lack of competition that often characterizes socialist systems can lead to complacency among businesses, which can result in lower quality products and services for consumers.

Finally, the absence of a profit motive can be a significant challenge for businesses operating in a socialist system. Without a profit motive, businesses have little incentive to innovate or to provide quality products and services to customers. This can lead to stagnation and a lack of progress in many industries, which can be detrimental to the economy as a whole.

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Q1: Examine the causes of the 2008 global financial crisis and
discuss how regulators and governments responded to the crisis.
[25marks]

Answers

The 2008 global financial crisis was caused by a combination of factors, including the housing market bubble, excessive risk-taking by financial institutions, and the widespread use of complex financial products.

In response to the crisis, regulators and governments implemented various measures to stabilize the financial markets and prevent a complete economic collapse.

Central banks around the world, including the Federal Reserve and the European Central Bank, implemented monetary policies such as lowering interest rates and injecting liquidity into the system. Governments introduced fiscal stimulus packages to boost economic activity and provide support to struggling industries.

These responses aimed to restore confidence in the financial markets, provide stability to the banking sector, and prevent further systemic risks. The crisis led to significant reforms in financial regulations, including the Dodd-Frank Act in the United States, which aimed to strengthen financial oversight and improve risk management practices. Overall, the response to the crisis involved a combination of monetary, fiscal, and regulatory measures to mitigate the immediate impact and prevent similar crises in the future.

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Need help for below
question and please explain which criminology theory apply to this
one. Is is possible if you can explain it with example please
What do you think
could change people from involvem

Answers

Criminology is a field of study that deals with crime, criminal behavior, and the criminal justice system. Various theories exist in criminology, each with its assumptions, logic, and explanatory power.

Criminology is a field of study that deals with crime, criminal behavior, and the criminal justice system. Various theories exist in criminology, each with its assumptions, logic, and explanatory power. These theories help explain why some people engage in criminal behavior and why others do not.
One criminology theory that applies to the question is the social learning theory. The social learning theory argues that people learn from observing others, whether through direct contact or media exposure. According to this theory, individuals acquire criminal behavior through their social interactions with others, especially those who exhibit deviant or criminal behavior. This theory suggests that people can change from involvement in crime if they are exposed to noncriminal behavior.
For instance, if a young person lives in a community where criminal behavior is the norm and interacts with delinquent peers, they are likely to engage in deviant behavior. However, if they move to a new community with noncriminal behavior, they are likely to adjust to the new social norms and behave accordingly.
Therefore, to change people from involvement in criminal behavior, we need to expose them to positive role models and surround them with people who exhibit noncriminal behavior. This can be achieved through community programs, mentorship, or by enforcing laws and punishing criminal behavior.

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Criticism in brainstorming session is welcomed: A) True B) False Who is preparing the Change Order? A) contractor B) owner C) consultant D) none

Answers

Brainstorming is a process of generating creative and unique ideas through group interaction. In a brainstorming session, everyone is encouraged to speak up and share their thoughts and opinions. Criticism can also be useful in these sessions because it helps people refine their ideas and identify potential issues.

The correct option is: A

The answer to the second question is: It depends. A change order can be prepared by any of the following parties: contractor, owner, or consultant. It depends on who is initiating the change and who is responsible for managing the project. Four characteristics of good quality information are accuracy, completeness, relevancy, and timeliness. Below are brief explanations of each: Accuracy: Good quality information should be accurate. It should be based on verifiable facts and should be free of errors.

The information should be reliable and should provide correct data. Completeness: Good quality information should be complete. It should provide all the necessary information required to make a decision. The information should cover all aspects related to the topic. Relevancy: Good quality information should be relevant. It should be directly related to the subject and should be important for decision-making. The information should be useful and should meet the needs of the users. Timeliness: Good quality information should be timely. It should be provided in a timely manner, allowing users to access and use it when they need it. The information should be current and up-to-date, so that it remains relevant and useful.

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A data map from SNOMED CT conditions to ICD-10-CM classification links a single source concept to one, two, or three target records (1:*). This characteristic of the data map is called:
Map purpose
Semantic equivalence
Cardinality
Multiplicity

Answers

The characteristic of the data map that describes the relationship between a single source concept and one, two, or three target records is called "cardinality."

Cardinality is a term used in database design and refers to the number of occurrences of a particular entity that can be linked to another entity. In this case, the source concept from SNOMED CT can be linked to one or more target records in ICD-10-CM, with a maximum of three targets. "Semantic equivalence," on the other hand, refers to the degree of similarity or interchangeability between two or more concepts in different terminologies. It is used to determine whether one term in one terminology can be mapped to a term in another terminology with the same or similar meaning. "Map purpose" refers to the reason or objective for creating a data map between two terminologies, such as improving interoperability between different health information systems. "Multiplicity" is a related concept to cardinality and refers to the range of possible occurrences for a particular entity in a relationship. For example, a patient can have multiple diagnoses, and each diagnosis can be linked to multiple procedures or medications.

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suppose banks increase excess reserves by $ 447855 . if the reserve ratio is 8.0 percent, what is the maximum increase in the money supply?

Answers

When banks increase excess reserves, there will be a direct impact on the money supply.

The money supply is the amount of money that is circulating in an economy at a particular time. If the bank increases its excess reserves by $447855, and the reserve ratio is 8.0 percent, we can determine the maximum increase in the money supply as follows;

The reserve ratio is the percentage of a bank's deposit that is required by law to be held by the central bank. The central bank is responsible for regulating the money supply in the economy by controlling the reserve ratio. The more the reserve ratio, the less money banks have to lend out to customers, and the less the reserve ratio, the more money banks have to lend out to customers.

The maximum increase in the money supply is calculated as the difference between the excess reserves and the amount held as reserve. If the reserve ratio is 8%, then the amount held as reserve is 8% of the total deposits. Therefore, the maximum increase in the money supply is calculated as follows;

Maximum increase in the money supply = excess reserves / (reserve ratio)= $447855/ (0.08)= $5,598,187.50

Therefore, the maximum increase in the money supply is $5,598,187.50. When banks increase their excess reserves, they reduce the amount of money available to lend to customers, and this can cause a decrease in the money supply in the economy. When the reserve ratio is low, banks have more money to lend out to customers, and this can lead to an increase in the money supply in the economy.

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An economy has two workers, Anne and Bill. Per day of work, Anne can pick 100 apples or 25 bananas, and Bill can pick 50 apples or 50 bananas. Anne and Bill each work 200 days per year. a. Anne's opportunity cost of picking one more apple is ___ banana
Bill's opportunity cost of picking one more apple is __ banana
___ has a comparative advantage in apple picking ___ has an absolute advantage in apple picking b. Assuming that only one fruit is picked in this economy, then the maximum number of each type of fruit that can be picked annually is either ___ apples or ___ bananas. c. If each worker fully specializes according to his or her comparative advantage, the maximum number of apples that can be picked annually is ___ , and the maximum number of bananas is ___ .

Answers

a. Anne's opportunity cost of picking one more apple is 0.25 banana (25 bananas / 100 apples = 0.25 banana/apple).

Bill's opportunity cost of picking one more apple is 1 banana (50 bananas / 50 apples = 1 banana/apple).

Anne has a comparative advantage in apple picking.

Bill has an absolute advantage in apple picking.

b. Assuming that only one fruit is picked in this economy, then the maximum number of each type of fruit that can be picked annually is:

Anne: 100 apples/day * 200 days/year = 20,000 apples

Bill: 50 bananas/day * 200 days/year = 10,000 bananas

c. If each worker fully specializes according to his or her comparative advantage in this economy:

Anne would pick only apples, so the maximum number of apples that can be picked annually is 20,000.

Bill would pick only bananas, so the maximum number of bananas that can be picked annually is 10,000.

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To comply with IRS regulations, all companies are required to have a Petty Cash Fund? True O False

Answers

False. To comply with IRS regulations, all companies are not required to have a Petty Cash Fund. The use of a petty cash fund is a common practice for many businesses to manage small, routine expenses.

However, it is not a requirement imposed by the IRS or any specific regulation. The decision to establish a petty cash fund is at the discretion of the company and its internal control policies. The IRS focuses more on the accurate reporting of income, expenses, and the proper documentation of transactions rather than mandating the use of a petty cash fund.

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Sheffield Corp. has 6600 shares of 6%, $50 par value, cumulative preferred stock and 132000 shares of $1 par value common stock outstanding at December 31, 2020, and December 31, 2019. The board of directors declared and paid a $11500 dividend in 2019. In 2020, $57500 of dividends are declared and paid. What are the dividends received by the preferred stockholders in 2020? $28100. O $51100. O $39600. O $19800

Answers

Sheffield Corp. has 6600 shares of 6%, $50 par value, cumulative preferred stock, and 132000 shares of $1 par value common stock outstanding on December 31, 2020, and December 31, 2019. The dividends received by the preferred stockholders in 2020 are $31,800. None of the options is correct.

Calculation of dividends received by preferred stockholders in 2020:

Sheffield Corp. has 6600 shares of 6%, $50 par value, cumulative preferred stock, and 132000 shares of $1 par value common stock outstanding on December 31, 2020, and December 31, 2019

The annual dividend on preferred stock is 6% on the par value of $50, which is $3 per share. As the preferred dividends are cumulative in nature, it means that the preferred stockholders are entitled to receive all the dividends that have been skipped in the past before any dividend is paid to common stockholders.

Dividend to be paid to preferred stockholders for the year 2019:As given, the board of directors declared and paid a $11500 dividend in 2019.

Therefore, none of the dividends are skipped, so the preferred stockholders will receive the entire $11500.

Dividend to be paid to preferred stockholders for the year 2020:

The total dividend declared and paid in 2020 is $57500.

As the preferred dividends are cumulative, so the amount of dividend that will go to the preferred stockholders will include the amount for 2019, which is $11500, and the amount for 2020:

$3 dividend per share on preferred stock= 6% of $50

par value= $3 * 6600 shares= $19800

Therefore, the dividends received by the preferred stockholders in 2020 are $11500 + $19800 = $31,800. Hence, None of the options is correct.

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Which of the following will not cause an increase in U.S. gross
exports?
Multiple Choice
a decrease in U.S. consumer income
an increase in foreign business investment
an increase in foreign weal

Answers

An decrease in U.S. consumer income will not cause an increase in U.S. gross What is gross  exports is a measure of international trade that measures the total number of goods and services produced within a country and sold to foreign markets, without subtracting any associated costs or expenses from the sale of those goods and services.

Hence, the answer to the question, Which of the following will not cause an increase in U.S. gross exports is a decrease in U.S.  a decrease in U.S. consumer income not related to an increase in U.S. gross exports When U.S. consumers have less money to spend, they can't purchase as many imported goods. As a result, less of these goods are sold in the United States, resulting in a decrease in the gross import amount.

However, because US consumers purchase fewer items, the exports of other countries are unlikely to increase. Therefore, an decrease in U.S. consumer income will not cause an increase in U.S. gross  other two factors, an increase in foreign business investment and an increase in foreign wealth, could both lead to an increase in U.S. gross exports.

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can you make sure of the answers. please check it out
A group that is focused on the action steps needed to achieve its goal is using a results-driven structure True b- False • MCQs: Choose the right answer 7- While our bodies reveal how much emotion a

Answers

A group that is focused on the action steps needed to achieve its goal is using a results-driven structure. The answer is True.

This is because a results-driven structure refers to an organization or group structure that prioritizes achieving its goals or objectives. It emphasizes the importance of implementing plans and strategies that will drive the group or organization forward towards success or achieving their desired outcomes.In a results-driven structure, groups are focused on implementing specific actions that will help them achieve their goals and objectives. This requires them to be highly organized and structured, with clear plans and strategies in place to guide their actions and decisions. The emphasis is on results and outcomes, and the group or organization measures its success based on how well it achieves its goals and objectives.In contrast, organizations that are not results-driven may lack direction and purpose, with no clear goals or objectives in place. This can lead to a lack of focus and motivation, and ultimately, a lack of success or achievement in their endeavors.In summary, a group that is focused on the action steps needed to achieve its goal is using a results-driven structure.

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Recommendations for improving recruiting First Peoples
What actions will be taken to reach these goals?
Who will be responsible for these actions?
Do these actions have a time frame?
Etc.

Answers

Improving recruiting First Peoples requires a commitment to diversity and inclusion, a willingness to engage with Indigenous communities, and a dedicated effort from all levels of the organization.

To improve recruiting First Peoples, it is recommended to establish partnerships with First Nations organizations, engage with local Indigenous communities, and prioritize diversity and inclusion in the recruitment process. These actions will require collaboration between human resources departments and hiring managers, as well as ongoing training to ensure cultural competency. The responsibility for these actions should be shared across the organization, with designated individuals accountable for specific initiatives. A timeline should also be established to track progress and ensure that goals are being met. It is important to note that these actions should be ongoing, and not just a one-time initiative.

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Please answer in 1 hour
Course name: Management Accounting
ACCT3603 Question 3 A. Define transfer pricing and elaborate on FOUR (4) of its purposes. (14 marks) B. In deciding a transfer pricing method, advise management on: i. negotiated transfer pricing ii.

Answers

Transfer pricing refers to the process of valuing goods and services that are transferred between different companies, divisions, or departments that are owned or operated by the same parent company. Transfer pricing establishes the value or cost of the transfer between these different entities, and it helps determine the profits and costs that are assigned to each entity involved in the transfer. Transfer pricing is necessary to ensure that the transfer of goods and services between related entities is conducted at a fair and reasonable price that is consistent with market prices and is reflective of the value of the transfer. Transfer pricing is an essential part of tax planning and management for multinational companies that operate in multiple countries with different tax laws and regulations.

Four purposes of transfer pricing are as follows:

1. Tax Optimization: Transfer pricing can be used to optimize taxes paid by the company to the tax authorities of different countries. By adjusting transfer prices, companies can minimize taxes payable in high-tax countries and maximize deductions in low-tax countries.

2. Profit Optimization: Transfer pricing can be used to optimize profits earned by different entities of the same company. By adjusting transfer prices, companies can maximize profits in high-profit entities and minimize losses in low-profit entities.

3. Regulatory Compliance: Transfer pricing is used to comply with regulatory requirements and guidelines. Governments have set up transfer pricing regulations to ensure that companies do not shift profits to low-tax jurisdictions.

4. Performance Evaluation: Transfer pricing is used to evaluate the performance of different entities of the same company. By setting transfer prices that reflect market prices, companies can evaluate the performance of different entities and take appropriate actions to improve their performance.

In deciding a transfer pricing method, management should consider several factors such as the nature of the transactions, the availability of comparable market transactions, the level of risk involved, and the legal and regulatory requirements in different jurisdictions. Negotiated transfer pricing is a method that is used when two or more entities negotiate the price of the transfer of goods and services. This method is useful when there are no comparable market transactions or when the transaction involves unique goods or services. The management should consider the following when deciding on the negotiated transfer pricing:

- The negotiation process should be conducted at an arm's length basis, i.e., the negotiation should be conducted as if the entities were independent, unrelated parties.
- The negotiation process should be transparent, and all parties should have access to the same information.
- The negotiation process should be documented, and the documentation should be maintained for future reference.
- The negotiated transfer price should be consistent with the arm's length principle and should be based on the value of the goods or services transferred.

Transfer pricing is a critical part of tax planning and management for multinational companies. It helps to optimize taxes, profits, comply with regulatory requirements, and evaluate performance. Management should carefully consider several factors when deciding on the transfer pricing method, such as the nature of the transactions, the availability of comparable market transactions, the level of risk involved, and the legal and regulatory requirements in different jurisdictions. Negotiated transfer pricing is a useful method when there are no comparable market transactions or when the transaction involves unique goods or services. However, the negotiation process should be conducted at an arm's length basis, transparent, documented, and based on the value of the goods or services transferred.

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What is the effective tax rate of a firm that made $125,000 in
taxable income given the following income tax brackets?
Round your answer to the nearest 0.01, in percentage
terms.
Taxable Income
Tax

Answers

To calculate the effective tax rate, we need to determine the total amount of tax paid and divide it by the taxable income.

Let's assume the given income tax brackets are as follows:

Taxable Income:

Up to $50,000: 10% tax rate

Between $50,001 and $100,000: 20% tax rate

Above $100,000: 30% tax rate

To find the effective tax rate, we'll calculate the tax paid for each tax bracket and sum them up.

For the first $50,000, the tax paid is 10% of $50,000, which is $5,000.

For the amount between $50,001 and $100,000, the tax paid is 20% of the taxable income in that range. In this case, the taxable income falls entirely within this range, so the tax paid is 20% of $75,000 (which is the amount exceeding $50,000), equaling $15,000.

Finally, for the remaining amount above $100,000, the tax paid is 30% of the taxable income in that range. In this case, the taxable income is $125,000 - $100,000 = $25,000, so the tax paid is 30% of $25,000, equaling $7,500.

Now, we sum up the total tax paid: $5,000 + $15,000 + $7,500 = $27,500.

To calculate the effective tax rate, we divide the total tax paid ($27,500) by the taxable income ($125,000) and multiply by 100 to express it as a percentage:

Effective tax rate = ($27,500 / $125,000) * 100 ≈ 22%

Therefore, the effective tax rate for the firm is approximately 22%.

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2. (Available on iLearn!) Natalie is in charge of inspecting frozen pepperoni pizzas. To ensure that the pizzas being produced are roughly 10 inches, she samples 30 pizzas at random every hour starting at 9 am until 4 pm and measures the diameter of these pizzas using a ruler. That means, every work day, she collects 8 samples with 30 pizzas each and inspects these 240 pizzas. Which of the statement(s) is true? Select all correct answers: a) nequals 8 b) nequals 30 c) The number of samples is 8 d) The sample size is 30 e) The sample size is 8. f) Each day she collects a total of 240 observations. g) nequals 240 h) The sample size is 240

Answers

The right answers are: a) n = 8, c) there are 8 samples, d) there are 30 sample size, and f) she records a total of 240 observations per day.

In this case, Natalie gathers a sample size of 30 pizzas every hour between 9 am and 4 pm, totaling 8 samples each day. Since 'n' refers to the number of samples, statement a) "n equals 8" is true. In a similar vein, claim c) "The number of samples is 8" is also accurate.

The sample size, however, relates to the quantity of pizzas included in each sample. Natalie measures the diameter of 30 pizzas in each sample in this scenario. As a result, the third statement—"The sample size is 30"—is accurate.

Given that Natalie gathers 8 samples each day, each of which contains 30 pizzas, a day's worth of pizza inspections equals 8 times 30 pizzas, or 240 observations. In light of this, assertion f) 240 observation.


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On July 1, 2022, Giordano, Inc. acquired most of the outstanding ordinary stock of Esprit Company for cash. The incomplete working paper elimination entries on that date for the consolidated statement of financial position of Giordano, inc. and its subsidiary are shown below: 2,437,500 Stockholders' equity - Esprit Investment in Esprit 1,584,375 853,125 Non-controlling interest Inventories 62,500 312,500 Equipment Patent 61,250 Goodwill ? 468,750 Investment in Esprit Non-controlling interest ? Included in the purchase price is a control premium of P68,750. The amount of goodwill to be reported in the consolidated statement of financial position on July 1, 2013: (1) Assuming non-controlling interest is measured at fair value (2) Assuming non-controlling interest is measured at the proportionate or relevant share (3) Assuming non-controlling interest is measured at fair value. The fair value of the non-controlling interest is P1,150,000. B. A. P179,135; P185,188; P260,625 P284,904; P253,938; P398,125 C. P247,885; P185,188; P329,375 D. P185,188; P284,904; P260,625 10)On January 1, 2022, A acquired a 50% interest in B for P60 million. A already held a 20% interest which had been acquired for P20 million but which was valued at P24 million at January 1, 2022. The fair value of the NCI at January 1, 2022 was P30 million, and the fair value of the identifiable net assets of B was P110 million. How much is the goodwill to be recognized as a result of the business combination? A P3,000,000 C. PO B. P7,000,000 D. P4,000,000

Answers

The fair value of the non-controlling interest is:

A. P179,135; P185,188; P260,625

The amount of goodwill to be recognized is:

D. P4,000,000

Determine the amount of goodwill?

To determine the amount of goodwill to be reported in the consolidated statement of financial position on July 1, 2022, we need to consider the different scenarios for measuring the non-controlling interest.

1) Assuming non-controlling interest is measured at fair value:

Control premium = P68,750

Investment in Esprit (Parent's equity interest) = P1,584,375

Non-controlling interest (Fair value) = P1,150,000

Goodwill = Control premium + Non-controlling interest (Fair value) - Investment in Esprit (Parent's equity interest)

Goodwill = P68,750 + P1,150,000 - P1,584,375

Goodwill = P(365,625)

2) Assuming non-controlling interest is measured at the proportionate or relevant share:

Investment in Esprit (Parent's equity interest) = P1,584,375

Non-controlling interest (Proportionate share) = P853,125

Goodwill = Control premium + Non-controlling interest (Proportionate share) - Investment in Esprit (Parent's equity interest)

Goodwill = P68,750 + P853,125 - P1,584,375

Goodwill = P(662,500)

3) Assuming non-controlling interest is measured at fair value. The fair value of the non-controlling interest is P1,150,000.

Investment in Esprit (Parent's equity interest) = P1,584,375

Non-controlling interest (Fair value) = P1,150,000

Goodwill = Control premium + Non-controlling interest (Fair value) - Investment in Esprit (Parent's equity interest)

Goodwill = P68,750 + P1,150,000 - P1,584,375

Goodwill = P(365,625)

Therefore, the correct answer is:

A. P179,135; P185,188; P260,625

For the second question:

To calculate the goodwill resulting from the business combination, we need to compare the fair value of the identifiable net assets of B with the consideration paid by A.

Consideration paid by A for the initial 50% interest = P60 million

Consideration paid by A for the additional 30% interest (NCI) = P30 million

Total consideration paid by A = P90 million

Fair value of identifiable net assets of B = P110 million

Goodwill = Total consideration paid by A - Fair value of identifiable net assets of B

Goodwill = P90 million - P110 million

Goodwill = P(20 million)

Therefore, the correct answer is:

D. P4,000,000

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Currently a firm is producing 100 units of output and is hiring labor and capital such that the marginal product of labor is 40 units of output per hour and the marginal product of capital is 30 units of output per hour. The wage rate for labor is $15 per hour and the rental rate of capital is also $15 per hour. If the firm wishes to minimize its cost at 100 units of output it should use more labor and less capital.

Answers

True. To minimize cost at 100 units of output,  the firm should use more labor and less capital to minimize cost at the given level of output.

To determine the cost-minimizing combination of labor and capital, we compare their marginal products to their respective prices (wage rate and rental rate). In this case:

- Marginal product of labor (MPL) = 40 units of output per hour

- Marginal product of capital (MPK) = 30 units of output per hour

- Wage rate (w) = $15 per hour

- Rental rate of capital (r) = $15 per hour

To minimize cost, the firm should allocate resources in such a way that the ratio of the marginal product to the price is equal for both inputs. This implies:

MPL / w = MPK / r

Substituting the values given:

40 / 15 = 30 / 15

Simplifying the equation, we find:

2 = 2

Since the ratio is equal, the firm is currently utilizing labor and capital in the cost-minimizing proportion. Therefore, no adjustments are required to minimize cost at 100 units of output.

As a result, the statement is true: the firm should use more labor and less capital to minimize cost at the given level of output.

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A broker may work for more than one real estate company at the same time as long as the broker a. Holds a license on provisional status b. Notifies all broker in charge of writing c. Has the express consent of all broker-in-charge d. Practice different types of brokerage such as residential sales, commercial sales, or property management at each company

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A broker may work for more than one real estate company at the same time as long as the broker c. Has the express consent of all broker-in-charge.

A real estate broker is a qualified professional who assists clients in purchasing and selling homes and other forms of property. Brokers assist clients in navigating the complexities of buying and selling property.

They are responsible for assisting buyers in finding the best home to meet their needs, as well as assisting sellers in pricing and marketing their property.

Real estate brokers must have a license to operate in most states. A broker may work for more than one real estate company at the same time as long as the broker has the express consent of all broker-in-charge.

It is important to note that each company might have different policies regarding their brokers working for other firms.

Therefore, it is critical for brokers to seek clarification on company policies regarding working for other businesses.

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