the healthcare provider prescribes terbutaline (brethine) for a client in preterm labor. before initiating this prescription, it is most important for the nurse to assess the client for which condition?

Answers

Answer 1

It is most important for the nurse to assess the client for : Gestational diabetes.

What is gestational diabetes ?

The primary cause of pregnancy-related diabetes or gestation diabetes is Your body produces more hormones during pregnancy, along with other changes like weight growth.

Insulin resistance is a condition where your body's cells use insulin less efficiently as a result of these changes. Your body requires more insulin if you have insulin resistance.

Newborns may have very low blood glucose levels at birth as a result of the extra insulin the baby's pancreas produces, and they are also more likely to experience breathing issues.

Children and adults who are born with an excess of insulin are at risk for obesity and type 2 diabetes, respectively.

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the parents and their toddler present to the clinic for a well-child check-up. which differences would the nurse incorporate into the assessment since the client is a child? select all that apply.

Answers

A. Allow the toddler to make choices.

C. Administer needed immunizations last.

How assessment of child should take place?

Children and young people are assessed to determine what they know, comprehend, and are capable of doing.

Assessment is crucial for monitoring progress, determining future steps, reporting, and integrating parents, kids, and teenagers in the learning process.

Analysis includes:

The methods teachers use to encourage, evaluate, track, and plan for their students' next steps in learning.Providing written and spoken updates to parents and caregivers to help them understand their child's progress and what they can do to support their learning.formal acknowledgment of a child's or teenager's accomplishments through profiles and credentials.recognizing our kids' accomplishments through a variety of new senior school credentials that build on what they have done thus far in school.

The following ways that Curriculum for Excellence has enhanced assessment:

a more seamless evaluation system that connects early learning, primary, secondary, and college education.More methods of progress evaluation to aid in learning, as well as more adaptability to accommodate different learning styles.by offering detailed profiles of each child's P7 and S3 accomplishments. These provide a crystal-clear acknowledgement of the accomplishments they have made and the abilities they have acquired during these critical phases of their lives.

Hence, the answer is

A. Allow the toddler to make choices.

C. Administer needed immunizations last.

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the nurse is working with victims who were exposed to mustard gas. which action by the nurse requires correction?

Answers

If you or a coworker has been in contact with liquid from the munition, immediately seek medical attention, wash your skin and hair with soap and water while being careful not to scratch or break the skin, and thoroughly rinse your eyes for at least 20 minutes.

Following subsequent infections and necrotic bronchopneumonia, prolonged recovery after 1 to 2 months is possible (22). Shortness of breath, cough and sputum production, as well as intermittent and ongoing dysphonia, are significant symptoms of the late discovery of upper respiratory tract in sulphur mustard poisoning.

How does mustard gas damage the body's organs?

When exposed to mustard, the skin, eyes, and lungs are the first organs to be impacted. Additionally, it has been claimed that sulphur mustard is a strong carcinogen.

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the long-term care nurse is performing assessments on several of the residents. which are normal age-related physiological changes the nurse should expect to note? select all that apply.

Answers

Exam Questions for Geriatric Nursing Rationale: Anatomical alterations to the eye impair a person's ability to see, which could cause issues with daily tasks.

What is a physiological example?

Processes that take place inside the body, usually outside the range of conscious awareness, are referred to as physiological factors. For instance, physiological causes could include stimulation brought on by caffeine, hemorrhages, or even just stubbing one's toe.

What does the term physiology in humans mean?

The science of physiology examines how the human body functions. From how molecules react in cells to how systems of organs cooperate, it addresses the chemistry and physics underlying fundamental bodily activities.

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a client is admitted to the hospital for cranial surgery. which action would the nurse include in the preoperative plan of care?

Answers

getting the client's permission before shaving their head.

Anatomical procedures: What are they?

To expose the brain, a craniotomy involves surgically removing a portion of the skull's bone.The portion of bone known as the bone flap is removed using specialized equipment.

How lengthy is a cranial procedure?

If you need a standard craniotomy, it can take three to five hours.The operation can take 5-7 hours if you do have an awake craniotomy.Pre-, peri-, and postoperative periods are included in this.Neurologic function is the most important post-op worry for people having brain surgery.

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the nurse administers warfarin to a client. the nurse informs the client it will be necessary to monitor which laboratory test regularly?

Answers

The client is informed by the nurse that monitoring the international normalized ratio will be required when administering warfarin.

Exactly why is warfarin prescribed?IS WARFARIN A NEED?

For those who have a higher risk of getting dangerous blood clots, warfarin is given.Those at risk for blood clots include those who have mechanical heart valves, atrial fibrillation, specific clotting diseases, or who underwent hip or knee surgery within the last two years.

Prior to giving a warfarin dose, what should you check?

You can determine your International Normalized Ratio (INR) with a blood test called prothrombin time (PT or protime) (INR).Your INR enables your doctor to assess the effectiveness of warfarin in preventing blood clots and to decide whether to change the dose.

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which activity would the nurse manager complete during an emergency event when acting as the triage officer according to the hospital incident command system (hics)? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.

Answers

Rapidly evaluating each person who comes to the hospital.

What is the purpose of Hospital Incident Command System?

HICS is an incident management system built on the Incident Command System (ICS) concepts that aids hospitals and healthcare organizations in enhancing their emergency planning, response, and recovery capabilities for both planned and unforeseen incidents. HICS adheres to the principles of both ICS and the National Incident Management System (NIMS).

Hospital doctors, nurses, and administrators, as well as anyone with a reaction role during a crisis, will continue to be the main beneficiaries of HICS. The information on this website will be helpful for understanding healthcare response issues as well as incident command practices and tools used during various events with health impacts. Community partners with whom hospitals work in partnership (such as public safety, local health departments, emergency management, etc.) as well as emergency management students will find the information on this website useful.

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an oncology clinic nurse is reinforcing prevention measures for oropharyngeal infections to a client receiving chemotherapy. which statement by the client indicates that teaching was successful?

Answers

The client must say a statement like : "I clean my teeth gently several times per day." to reassure that teachings of oropharyngeal infections was successful.

What is oropharyngeal infection ?

Inflammation of the oropharynx is a symptom of an illness. Additionally, internal factors such as infections and antigens found in the oral mucosa and gingiva may stimulate inflammation.

the area of the throat that is located behind the oral cavity at the back of the mouth. It consists of the tonsils, soft palate, side and back walls of the throat, and the back third of the tongue.

Chemotherapy may be suggested as the sole course of treatment for your oropharyngeal cancer, in conjunction with radiation therapy, either prior to surgery to reduce a tumor or following surgery to eradicate any cancer cells still present in the body.

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a client is admitted to the hospital with acute hemorrhage from esophageal varices. what medication should the nurse anticipate administering that will reduce pressure in the portal venous system and control esophageal bleeding?

Answers

Beta blockers and endoscopic band ligation are the recommended treatments to help prevent re-bleeding.

What are esophageal varices?

Varices are bulging or swollen veins. The esophageal tube links the neck to the stomach. Esophageal varices are enlarged veins that appear on the lining of the esophagus.

Who is at risk for esophageal varices that break open and bleed?

Not every person who develops esophageal varices will experience bleeding. The following factors increase the risk of bleeding:

High portal blood pressure: The risk of bleeding increases as portal pressure rises.

Large varices: The risk of bleeding increases as varices grow in size.

Severe liver disease: The risk is increased if you have advanced cirrhosis or liver failure.

Ongoing alcohol consumption: In patients with varices due to alcohol, continuing to drink increases the risk of bleeding.

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the nurse is assessing a client with a history of marijuana use. which long-term effects are associated with marijuana? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.

Answers

Marijuana use over the long term has been linked to lung cancer.

What kind of job are nurses expected to do?

Registered nurses (RNs) supervise and carry out medical treatments in addition to giving patients' relatives emotional support and educating the general public about various health concerns. In a variety of contexts, the majority of registered nurses work in conjunction with doctors and other medical professionals.

Would a nurse be capable of filling the position?

They are in charge of several post-operative surgical therapeutic duties. Numerous surgical nursing professionals choose to specialize in cardiac, pediatric, or obstetric surgery.

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a hospital client with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes has been administered a scheduled dose of regular insulin. which effect will result from the action of insulin?

Answers

The action of insulin results in: It promotes uptake of glucose by target cells and provides for storage of glucose as glycogen; it prevents breakdown of fat and glycogen; and it inhibits gluconeogenesis and increases synthesis of protein. Glycogenolysis is promoted by glucagon, not insulin.

What is insulin?

Insulin is a peptide hormone. It is produced by beta cells of pancreatic islets that are encoded in humans by a gene called INS gene. It is said to be the body’s main anabolic hormone.

The main purpose of insulin is to regulate the blood sugar levels.

Carbohydrates are broken down into glucose, which is a sugar that is the body's main source of energy. Then glucose enters the bloodstream. The pancreas then produces insulin, which promotes glucose to enter the body's cells, thereby providing energy.

Insulin is an essential hormone as it is required to create energy.

The action of insulin therefore results in: It promotes uptake of glucose by target cells and provides for storage of glucose as glycogen; it prevents breakdown of fat and glycogen; and it inhibits gluconeogenesis and increases synthesis of protein. Glycogenolysis is promoted by glucagon, not insulin.

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the nurse is caring for a client who reports insomnia. the client has recently moved from an area near a fire station in the inner city to the country. which recommendation will the nurse make to facilitate sleep?

Answers

The recommendation that the nurse should make is to find a phone app that plays sounds of the city.

What is insomnia?

Insomnia is defined as the sleep disorder that occurs when an individual finds it difficult to fall asleep and to remain asleep for at least eight hours or more.

The clinical manifestations found in individuals with insomnia include the following:

Difficulty falling asleep at nightWaking up during the nightWaking up too earlyNot feeling well-rested after a night's sleepDaytime tiredness or sleepinessIrritability, depression or anxietyDifficulty paying attention, focusing on tasks or rememberingIncreased errors or accidentsOngoing worries about sleep.

The main causes of insomnia include the following:

Excessive stress,Inadequate work or travel schedule,poor sleep habits andmental disorders.

The nurse intervention for patients with insomnia should include relaxing activities such as warm bath, calm music, reading a book, and relaxation exercises before bedtime.

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a client with low back pain is being seen in the clinic. in planning care, which teaching point should the nurse include?

Answers

Answer:

Use the large muscles of the leg when lifting items.

Explanation:

the nurse is providing teaching for a patient who will begin using tobramycin ointment (nebcin) 0.5 inches 3 times daily. the patient currently uses pilocarpine hcl (isopto carpine) drops to treat glaucoma. which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

Answers

The statement by the patient that indicates a need for further teaching is "I should put the ointment on first and then instill the eyedrops."

What is glaucoma?

Glaucoma is a common eye condition caused by damage to the optic nerve, which connects the eye to the brain. It is usually caused by fluid accumulation in the front of the eye, which raises intraocular pressure. Glaucoma can cause vision loss if it is not detected and treated early.

Glaucoma is a chronic, progressive eye disease caused by optic nerve damage, which results in visual field loss. Eye pressure is one of the major risk factors. An abnormality in the eye's drainage system can cause fluid to accumulate, resulting in excessive pressure and optic nerve damage.

Glaucoma is a serious, lifelong eye disease that, if not treated, can result in vision loss.

There is no cure for glaucoma (yet), but if detected early, you can keep your vision and avoid vision loss. It is critical to take action to protect your vision health.

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What are the advantages of using genetic testing to aid in drug selection for patients? Select all correct answers from the list below.
patients likely to experience adverse reactions to a drug can be identified
when several drugs are available for the same condition, the drug most likely to be effective can be selected
the response to drug treatment can be monitored
the patient's prognosis can be predicted

Answers

The advantage of using genetic testing to help select drugs for patients is that the response to drug therapy can be monitored.

What is medicine?

Drugs are substances or a combination of materials, including biological products, which are used to affect or investigate physiological systems or pathological conditions in the context of establishing a diagnosis, prevention, cure, recovery, or health promotion.

The need for drug selection according to the benefits and safety of the drug has proven safety, the smallest and most balanced treatment risk with the same benefits and safety, affordable to the patient, and the suitability of the drug to the patient's needs.

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the finding of a 2 reagent strip reaction for blood in the urine of a patient with severe lower back pain can aid in confirming a diagnosis of:

Answers

A patient with severe lower back pain who tests positive for blood in their urine may help to confirm the diagnosis of hypochlorite.

What chemical is responsible for the positive blood reagent strip reaction?

When oxidizing pollutants, such as hypochlorite (bleach), remain in collecting bottles after cleaning, a false positive result for blood on the reagent strip may ensue. A false positive result may occur if the urine is contaminated with provodine-iodine, a potent oxidizing chemical used in surgical procedures.

What causes false positive results when hematuria and hemoglobinuria are detected using the reagent strip method?

If the collection container or reagent strip is contaminated with oxidizing chemicals like hypochlorite (bleach), or if the urine sample is not properly collected, a false-positive result for blood on the urine reagent strip may ensue.

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which position would the nurse place a client in during the immediate period after injury to the frontal lobe of the brain?

Answers

The position of head in which a nurse would place a patient immediately after injury to the frontal lobe of the brain is 30° to 60°.

After suffering a frontal lobe injury, which position will a client maintain?

The frontal lobe is the region of the brain which is closest to the front. It spreads to the central gyrus from beneath the forehead. All things considered, the frontal lobe is in charge of higher order cognitive processes like memory, emotion, impulse control, problem-solving, social interaction, and motor abilities. One's body or one's face may be weaker on one side.

Any head postures greater than 30 degrees ought to be avoided. When a safe CPP of at least 70 mmHg or 80 mmHg is maintained, elevating the head and body to 30 degrees usually reduces intracranial hypertension in patients.

Thus, the patient is positioned with the head raised at a 30° to 60° angle. Recent studies have linked this method to episodes of hypotension and severe neurological dysfunction as a result, including brainstem infarction brought on by cerebral hypoperfusion and vision loss.

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the nurse prepares to administer large-volume cleansing enemas to a client scheduled for bowel surgery. for which client should the nurse stop administration of the enemas and notify the primary care provider?

Answers

The nurse prepares to administer large-volume cleansing enemas to a client scheduled for bowel surgery. For which client should the nurse stop administration of the enemas and notify the primary care provider- breathe out in short, panting breaths.

What is enema?

Fluid is injected into the lower bowel during an enema, also known as a clyster, through the rectum. The term "enema" can refer to both the injection method and the substance that is being injected.

The most common uses of enemas are to treat constipation and to clean the bowels prior to medical examinations or procedures. They are also used as a system stimulant, as a local application, as a lower gastrointestinal series, to treat traveler's diarrhea, as a way to deliver food, water, or medications, to lower body temperature, to treat encopresis, and as a form of rehydration therapy in patients with severe dehydration.

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The fda has approved a new gene therapy drug described as the most expensive ever. How much per treatment?.

Answers

Manufacturer CSL Behring set the price at $3.5 million per treatment, making it the most expensive drug in the world.

the nurse is asking a client with arthritis questions to collect information. which questions asked by the nurse are closed-ended questions? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.

Answers

The nurse can ask close-ended-questions like :

"Are you having pain?"

"Do you think the medication is helping you get pain relief?"

How do these questions help the nurse to create a proper diagnosis?

Answers to closed-ended questions are limited to one or two words. These questions elicit further inquiries and assist in identifying certain issue areas. The patient has the option of saying yes or no in response to the nurse's question, "Are you in pain?" The client can respond either yes or no when the nurse asks, "Do you think the medication is helping you achieve pain relief?" These two inquiries have a set of predetermined answers. Open-ended queries are client-focused and demand a thorough justification.

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a client has an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. the physician orders dantrolene (dantrium), 25 mg p.o. daily. which assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?

Answers

Prior to applying the restraints in sclerosis, if a drug is prescribed as needed. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) oral dosage is 2 mg twice daily and 25 mg three times.

Sclerosis: What precisely is it?

Pathological tissue stiffening, particularly as a result of excessive fibrous tissue growth or an increase in interstitial tissue.

Sclerosis: how serious is it?

With a wide range of potential symptoms, including issues with vision, arm or leg mobility, sensation, or balance, multiple sclerosis (MS) is an illness that can affect the brain and spinal cord. It is a chronic disorder that can occasionally lead to severe disability, however it can also occasionally be moderate. Multiple Sclerosis has no known cure. Typically, MS treatment aims to reduce symptom severity, slow the disease's progression, and hasten recovery from attacks.

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antibody testing has confirmed that a client is positive for hepatitis a virus (hav). which statement does the nurse apply as evidence that the client understands the new diagnosis?

Answers

Anti-HAV (IgG or IgM) antibodies are markers of previous or current hepatitis A virus (HAV) infection or HAV immunization in human serum or plasma.

What should you do if you have hepatitis A?

Perhaps you should:

Rest. Many hepatitis A patients experience fatigue, illness, and decreased vitality.

Be sure to eat and drink plenty. Eat a nutritious, balanced diet.

Avoid alcohol, and take medication carefully. Alcohol and prescription drugs may be tough for your liver to metabolize.

Meaning of hepatitis A immunity found ?

Once your body has come into touch with the hepatitis A virus (via infection or vaccination), you create the IgG class of antibodies, which give you lifelong immunity.

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a client being treated for rheumatoid arthritis has been prescribed a glucocorticosteroid. how should the nurse best ensure this client's safety during treatment?

Answers

For chronic conditions including polymyalgia and rheumatoid arthritis, long-term oral corticosteroid therapy may be required.

What element lessens the spread of pain?

The opioid family of medications, which includes morphine, and heroin are the most effective ones for providing brief analgesia and pain relief in clinical settings.

What is the purpose of glucocorticoids?

The steroid hormones known as "glucocorticoids," which are created from cholesterol, are produced and secreted by the adrenal gland. They reduce inflammation in all tissues and regulate the metabolism of the liver, muscle, fat, and bones. Additionally influencing vascular tone, mood, behavior, and sleep–wakefulness cycles are glucocorticoids' effects on the brain.

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According to the textbook, a 2005 law concerning methamphetamine further restricted.

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According to the textbook, a 2005 law concerning methamphetamine further restricted the sale of pseudoephedrine

It is possible for pseudoephedrine to be used improperly to make methamphetamines. In 2005, the FDA passed the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act, which made it illegal to sell cold remedies containing pseudoephedrine over the counter and required that they only be sold in pharmacies.

The sale of pseudoephedrine in pharmacies is prohibited by national legislation. Pseudoephedrine-containing products must all be kept in a secure location and sold from behind a sales counter. There are daily buying caps of 3.6 grams (about a 15-day supply) and 30 grams.

This cap does not apply if the product is distributed in accordance with a valid prescription.

No person shall purchase at retail more than 9 grams of products containing pseudoephedrine in any 30-day period.

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a client is at high risk for the development of rheumatic heart disease. the most important information for the nurse to provide would be:

Answers

Streptococcal infections should be diagnosed and treated quickly.

Why does the heart become rheumatic?

One or more episodes of rheumatic fever, an autoimmune inflammatory response to group A streptococcal throat infection, damage the heart valves and lead to the disease (streptococcal pharyngitis or strep throat).It usually happens in children and might result in death or permanent disability.

What symptoms indicate rheumatic heart disease?

Especially the knees and ankles, joints become swollen, sensitive, red, and exceedingly painful.Nodules (lumps under the skin) (lumps under the skin)Usually appears across the chest, back, and abdomen, this red, elevated, lattice-like rash.chest pain and breathing difficulties.

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which physical findings would the nurse observe in a newborn that would indicate that the newborn is full-term? select all that apply.

Answers

Option(a), (b), and (e)i.e., the physical findings that a nurse will detect in a newborn would suggest that the newborn is a full-term. There are fingernails, and they reach the tips of the fingers.

How many years is the nursing program?

The length of time it takes to become a registered nurse might range from 16 months to four years, depending on the nursing program you choose to enroll in. ChiChi Akanegbu, a member of the Class of 2020 who graduated from Regis College with a Bachelor of Science in Nursing, says, "I chose to earn my BSN, which takes four years.

What is a nurse's job description?

Nurses treat patients' wounds, give medications, perform regular physicals, keep meticulous records of their medical histories, and keep an eye on their heart rates.

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at the beginning of the shift, the nurse assesses a client who is admitted from the post-anesthesia care unit (pacu). when should the nurse document the client's findings?

Answers

Evaluations should be documented as soon as possible following the assessments, so assessments should be placed into the client's medical file when they are admitted from the post-anesthesia care unit (pacu).

What are the three assessments should the PACU nurse prioritize?

The PACU nurse first assesses the patient's airway, respiratory and circulatory conditions before concentrating on a more thorough evaluation.

How frequently is BP measured in PACU?

The majority of national anesthesiology societies have advise sedated patients undergoing surgical operations to have their blood pressure checked at least once in every five minutes. Oscillometric cuffs are typically used to non-invasively monitor blood pressure.

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a patient is on highly active antiretroviral therapy (haart) for the treatment of hiv. what does the nurse know would be an adequate cd4 count to determine the effectiveness of treatment for a patient per year?

Answers

The adequate count of CD4 is : 50 [tex]mm^3[/tex] to 150 [tex]mm^3[/tex]

What is CD4 ?

White blood cells called CD4 cells, sometimes referred to as CD4+ T cells, work to combat infection. One of the main factors determining the requirement for opportunistic infection (OI) prophylaxis is the CD4 cell count, which serves as a gauge of immunological function in HIV-positive patients.

An immunological cell that promotes the production of immune responses from killer T cells, macrophages, and B cells.

White blood cells and lymphocytes both fall under the category of CD4-positive T lymphocytes. known as a helper T cell.

Our body is vulnerable to opportunistic infections if your CD4 count is under 200. These infections are ones that the immune system can typically fight off on its own, but in cases where the CD4 count is low, the immune system is unable to do so.

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which of the following statements is true regarding physical fitness? group of answer choices the implementation of healthy behaviors alone is not sufficient to attain your highest potential for well-being. physical fitness in itself is sufficient to reduce the risk for chronic diseases and ensure better health. physical fitness in itself does not always lower the risk for chronic diseases and ensure better health. a high level of physical fitness in itself always lowers the risk for chronic diseases and ensures better health.

Answers

Physical fitness in itself does not always lower the risk for chronic diseases and ensure better health.

What is physical fitness?

Physical fitness refers to a condition of health and well-being and, more particularly, the capacity to engage in certain activities related to sports, jobs, and daily living. Physical fitness is often attained with healthy eating, moderate to strenuous activity, enough rest, and a system recovery plan. Fitness was once understood to be the ability to complete the day's tasks without becoming overly exhausted or lethargic. The ability of the body to function efficiently and effectively in work and leisure activities, to be healthy, to resist hypokinetic diseases, to improve the immune system, and to respond to emergency situations is now considered to be measured by physical fitness due to automation and changes in lifestyle.

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the nurse notes a positve babinski reflex during the newborn neurolgical exam. what is the appropriate nursing action?

Answers

All patients should have it assessed initially. Level of alertness, focused cortical functioning, cognition, mood and emotion, and thought content are the five components of a mental status examination.

What results of the infant's neurological evaluation?

A basic battery of tests called a neurological exam provide your child's doctor the chance to see and evaluate your child's neural system while she is performing the following: condition of mind (level of awareness and interaction with the environment) sensory and motor skills. coordination and stability

Why is it necessary for a newborn to consult a neurologist?

Our group assesses and manages a range of neurological issues and illnesses, such as: When a baby is born without receiving adequate oxygen, they are said to have had birth asphyxia. Neonatal epilepsies are those that happen within the first month of life. blood loss inside the skull

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a nurse is talking with a co-worker who is moving to a new state and needs to find new employment there. what advice by the nurse is best

Answers

Answer:

Find a hospital that is accredited by The Joint Commission.

Explanation:

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if a manufacturer of fast-moving consumer goods (fmcg) is interested in measuring consumers movement through the adoption hierarchy, which ad effectiveness measure should it employ comprehensive general liability (cgl) policies are the business equivalent of a homeowner's policy that protects the organization against personal injury claims and loss. A. True B. False if a household appliance is operating on 110 volts and electricity is flowing with a current of 0.2 amperes in this appliance, how many watts are consumed? 1. What is a naming model used for?2. List the four major activities associated with software configuration management.3. What are check-in and check-out?4. List three concerns you may need to look into before choosing a configuration management tool.5. What are the build steps of a single program?6. What is linking and what are we linking in a build process?7. 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Read the excerpt from dispatches. because, really, what a choice there was; what a prodigy of things to be afraid of! the moment that you understood this, really understood it, you lost your anxiety instantly. anxiety was a luxury, a joke you had no room for once you knew the variety of deaths and mutilations the war offered. the purpose of the paradox in the excerpt is to illustrate:____.a. the narrators desire to relieve his uneasiness. b. reinforce the physical and emotional challenges of war. c. show that indulgences are stolen during war, not provided. d. highlight the idea that fear can be viewed in different ways. gemma has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and only shows negative symptoms. what would she most likely exhibit? Solve the system of equation.4x-3y=-9 3x+2y=-11 Which statements are true regarding postsynaptic potentials? Select all that apply.-They depend on the myelination of nerve axons-They include EPSPs and IPSPsThey are changes in the membrane potential of the postsynaptic terminal of a chemical synapse-They are caused by neurotransmitters How did the business leaders use the Sherman antitrust act? antioxidants are natural and synthetic molecules that inhibit the reactions of reactive oxygen species (ros). which vitamins/minerals are examples of nonenzymatic antioxidants? select all that apply. Which Statements below are true?One of the primary advantages of simulation models is that they enable managers to answer what-if questions about changes in systems without actually changing the physical systems themselves.When we solve a nonlinear programming problem (NLP), it is very possible that Solver will obtain a suboptimal solution.A correlation matrix must always have 1s along its diagonal (because a variable is always perfectly correlated with itself) and the correlations between variables elsewhere.The built-in functions in Excel, along with the RAND function, can be used to generate random numbers from many different types of probability distributions.A common distribution for modeling product lifetimes is the binomial distribution.The random nature of games of chance make them poor candidates for simulation. assume that in a cell the ratio(s) listed is/are high. which ratio(s) would lead to a decrease in the rate of entrance of acetyl coa into the citric acid cycle? Length (cm): Length (m) 100: 1250: 2.578.2: .782123.9: 1.239y: ? I need to know what goes next to the y Write an equation for the proportional relationship. Let x represent a length measured in meters and y represent the same length measured in centimeters. I don't know what would be the equation. upon arrival at the home of a woman in labor, a midwife on scene tells you the patient is 7 cm dilated and is complaining of painful contractions. which stage of labor should the emt identify? f $500,000 par value bonds with a carrying value of $499,000 are redeemed at 103, the company will record a$13,970 gain.$1,497 gain.$16,000 loss.$14,970 loss. Where loads are likely to be on continuously, the calculated load for branch circuits and feeders must be figured at (100%) (125%) (150%) of the continuous load, (plus) (minus) the non-continuous load. This requirement generally (does) (does not) apply to residential wiring. explain the reason a man with rh-positive blood might be the father of a rh-negative blood child? g