intentionally not treated. It could be said that in this instance, a patient was intentionally allowed to die by not receiving artificial life support, such as a ventilator or feeding tube.
Why might passive euthanasia be preferable?The key distinction between passive and active euthanasia is that the doctor does nothing to hasten the patient's demise in the latter. The patient dies from whatever illnesses he already has because the doctor does nothing.
Why does passive euthanasia unjustified?The so-called practice of passive euthanasia is omitted. Therefore, passive euthanasia cannot actually be euthanasia because it cannot result in death. A fundamental weakness exists in the causation argument as well. The broad assertion at the center of the argument—that omissions cannot be causes—appears to be false, which is most essential.
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the nurse is completing a sleep history on a client who reports sleeping problems. which of the client's regular behaviors will cause the client to have difficulty with sleep?
Everyday use of a diuretic between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. A client who reports having trouble sleeping is having the nurse fill up a sleep history for them.
What prevents people from sleeping?
Numerous factors can contribute to chronic insomnia, including: Stress. It may be challenging to fall asleep at night because of worry about your family, job, health, income, or other issues. Traumatic or stressful life situations like divorce, losing your job, losing a loved one to illness or death can also cause insomnia.
Can sleep deprivation be treated?
It's crucial to have a strategy for catching up on lost sleep, whether it's because of a hard job schedule or a late night with family or friends. Fortunately, people can overcome addiction with a little perseverance and consistency.
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which treatment could relieve the symptoms of an individual who has been bitten by a poisonous snake that has a fast-acting toxin?
Treatment with antivenom could relieve the symptoms of an individual who has been bitten by a poisonous snake that has a fast-acting toxin.
What type of antibodies do antivenom have ?Whole IgG or IgG fragments can be found in antivenom compositions. Immunoglobulin G (IgG) is a common example of a complete antibody product. In contrast, antibody fragments are produced by breaking down whole IgG into Fab (monomeric binding) or F(ab')2 (dimeric binding).
Purified antibodies against venoms or venom components are known as antivenoms. Animals' antibodies against injected venoms are used to make antivenoms. Thus, the only effective remedy for bites from dangerous Australian snakes is antivenom.
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a client with addison's disease is scheduled for discharge after being hospitalized for an adrenal crisis. which statements by the client indicate that client teaching has been effective? select all that apply.
A client with addison's disease is scheduled for discharge after being hospitalized for an adrenal crisis. The client’s statements are-
"I need to call my doctor to discuss my steroid needs before I have dental work."
"I will call the doctor if I suddenly feel profoundly weak or dizzy."
"I need to obtain and wear a Medic Alert bracelet."
What is addison’s disease?
When your body doesn't create enough of one or more hormones, it can develop an uncommon disorder called adrenal insufficiency, often known as Addison's disease. Your adrenal glands, which are right above your kidneys, often produce too little aldosterone and too little cortisol when you have Addison's disease.
The potentially fatal Addison's disease can affect persons of any sex and of any age. Taking hormones to make up for those that are absent is one element of the treatment.
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the nurse is caring for a client whose mobility is restricted to a wheelchair after a motor vehicle accident. the client has been prescribed physiotherapy as a part of rehabilitation | care. which interventions would the nurse consider when the client is discharged from the health care facility? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Aid the family locate available community resources. 2. Motivate the primary care physician to schedule regular respite time. 3. Take into account the experience of the primary caregiver in the discharge process.
How come it's named "nurse"?
The Latin phrase nutire, meaning means to breastfeed, is where the word nurse first appeared. This is due to the fact that in its early usage, it mostly referred to a wet-nurse.
What ten roles do nurses play?
duties in nursing
logging and keeping track of a child's vital signs. promoting health by teaching patients how to take care of themselves. Getting advice from medical professionals to choose the best course of action. administering non-intravenous and over-the-counter medicines.
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the nurse is planning care for a child with hemolytic-uremic syndrome who has been anuric and will be receiving peritoneal dialysis treatment. the nurse should plan to implement which measure?
The measure that the nurse should plan to implement for a patient with hemolytic-uremic syndrome who has been anuric and will be receiving peritoneal dialysis treatment is restricting fluids as prescribed.
What is peritoneal dialysis?Peritoneal dialysis can be defined as the method of removing waste materials from human blood when the kidneys are no longer capable of doing so. This method filters the blood differently from the more commonly used blood-filtering procedure known as hemodialysis.
A cleansing fluid goes through a tube (catheter) into a portion of the abdomen undergoing peritoneal dialysis. The peritoneum (the lining of the abdomen) functions as a filter, removing waste from the blood. After a certain amount of time, the fluid containing the filtered waste materials flows from the abdomen and is therefore eliminated.
For dialysis patients, restricting fluids is always prescribed.
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an acsm-ep sacrificing his personal training time in order to train a client who needed to reschedule is an example of:
It is an example of servant leadership when an acsm-ep forgoes his personal training time to instruct a client who needed to reschedule.
What is an ACSM-EP what are his role?The abbreviation for ACSM is American College for Sports Medicine. ACSM-certified exercise physiologists promote training by conducting and interpreting physical fitness evaluations and creating exercise prescriptions for people who are healthy or have conditions that are under medical management, ACSM-certified exercise physiologists promote training.
To build effective and safe exercise and healthy lifestyle practices to improve health and quality of life, an ACSM-EP works with clients who appear to be in good health as well as those who have medically controlled conditions.
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the world health organization monitors outbreaks of disease all over the world. they study the progression of the outbreak and provide instructions and warnings to help manage and contain them. as an analyst at the who, scarlett collects numbers of avian flu infections in humans. in looking over her spreadsheet, where would scarlett most likely find the highest number of avian flu infections?
As an analyst at the world health organization, she will find the highest number of avian flu infections in Egypt.
Avian flu infection is the strains of the contagion virus that primarily infect birds, however can even infect humans. It can even be passed from person to person.Symptoms begin among 2 to eight days and may appear to be the common grippe. Cough, fever, raw throat, muscle aches, headache and shortness of breath could occur.
The illness will carry a high mortality in humans. Some antiviral medication, if taken among 2 days of symptoms, may help. Egypt has been the foremost affected country within the EMR wherever the illness has remained endemic, with frequent epidemic and 167 human cases that embrace sixty deaths.
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when taking a health history of a 5-year-old boy who recently was found to have type 1 diabetes, the nurse would anticipate which reaction from the child?
When caring for a child with type 1 diabetes, the nurse should be aware that because the patient is still a child and unable to care for himself, it is best to help the child administer the medication. Children are sensitive in situations involving medical treatment, so it is best to control the child and make sure to be gentle when administering treatment.
How does type 1 diabetes affect the body's response?When a person has type 1 diabetes, the pancreas, a small gland located behind the stomach, gradually stops producing any insulin at all. Insulin is the hormone that controls blood glucose levels. When blood glucose levels are too high, the body's organs may suffer serious long-term damage.
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the nurse is discussing life management with the client with rheumatoid arthritis in a health clinic. what assessment finding indicates the client is having difficulty implementing self-care?
In a clinic, the nurse is talking to a patient who has rheumatoid arthritis about life management. "It will improve and deteriorate once more."
Which client has the highest risk of developing SLE?All ages, including children, can be impacted by SLE. However, the risk of getting SLE is highest among women between the ages of 15 and 44 who are capable of having children. Women of all ages are far more affected than men (estimates range from 4 to 12 women for every 1 man).
When instructing a client with arthritis, which symptom would the nurse mention?In more than one joint, there is discomfort, edema, stiffness, and tenderness. stiffness, particularly in the morning or after prolonged hours of sitting. both sides of the same joints experience discomfort and stiffness of body.
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a client who is in the second trimester of pregnancy tells the nurse that she wants to use herbal therapy. which response is best for the nurse to provide?
The best response for nurse is Option C : Clients must be considered as a whole, the client is empowered as a vital member of the medical team by acknowledging the importance they placed on complementary and alternative therapies, such as herbal therapy.
What are the uses of herbal therapy ?Among other ailments, herbal medicine is used to treat allergies, asthma, eczema, premenstrual syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, fibromyalgia, migraine, menopausal symptoms, chronic fatigue, and cancer.
Ginger (Zingiber officinale), garlic (Allium sativum), green tea (Camellia sinensis), peppermint (Mentha piperita), and fenugreek (Trigonella foenum graecum) are the herbal treatments that pregnant women around the world use the most frequently.
As in ;pregnancy there are chances of complications intake of herbal things are going to prevent the above things.
The use of herbal medicine dates back to early civilizations. It entails the use of plants as medicines to cure illness and improve people's overall health and wellness.
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a nurse is reviewing the dietary history of a client who has experienced anaphylaxis. what would the nurse identify as a common cause of anaphylaxis? select all that apply.
A nurse is looking over a client's dietary history who has had anaphylaxis and is reviewing milk, eggs, and shrimp.
What happens during anaphylaxis?Anaphylaxis, commonly referred to as anaphylactic or anaphylactic shock, is a quick, severe, and occasionally fatal allergic reaction it affects the whole body. The reaction narrows the airways, making it difficult to breathe. The airway may become blocked by severe neck edema.
Which symptoms manifest in anaphylactic shock first?The early warning signs of an anaphylactic reaction may include runny nose , skin rashes, which seem to be frequent allergy symptoms. However, within 30 minutes, additional concerning symptoms start to emerge. These include wheezing, chest discomfort, itching, severe pain, as well as coughing, and there are frequently multiples of each.
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m.k. has a colonoscopy, which is normal, with no signs of disease or inflammation. he continues to have frequent abdominal pain and diarrhea and a 5-lb weight loss over the next 2 weeks. the health care provider then orders a capsule endoscopy. what is the rationale behind ordering a capsule endoscopy?
Because ulcerative colitis usually starts in the rectum and spreads in a continuous pattern up the colon, and the colonoscopy showed no signs of inflammation in the rectum and colon, the healthcare provider suspects M.K. has Crohn’s disease.
Although Crohn’s disease can occur anywhere in the GI tract, the most frequent site is the terminal ileum, and the only diagnostic exam available to view the inner mucosa of the terminal ileum is a capsule endoscopy.
What is Crohn's disease?
A chronic inflammatory bowel disease that affects the lining of the digestive tract. There is still no recognized cause for Crohn's disease. Diet and stress were once thought to be contributing factors to Crohn's disease, but today's medical community is aware that these factors only serve to exacerbate the condition. A persistent condition called Crohn's disease results in inflammation of the digestive system. Any portion of your digestive system, which extends from your mouth to your anus, may be impacted. However, your small intestine and the start of your large intestine are typically impacted. An inflammatory bowel condition is called Crohn's disease (IBD).
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The beck depression inventory is to ________ as the thematic apperception test is to ________.
The beck depression inventory is to self report measure as thematic apperception test is to projective test.
What do you mean by Beck Depression Inventory?The Beck Depression Inventory (BDI) is a 21-item self-report scale that assesses key symptoms of mood, pessimism, failure, self-dissatisfaction, self-blame and crying, irritability, social withdrawal, indecision, body image changes, insomnia, fatigue, weight loss, body obsession.
BDI is widely used to screen for depression and also measure behavioral symptoms and depression severity.
Thematic Perception Test helps in revealing patient's dominant motivations, emotions and core personality conflicts. It has a series of 20 cards depicting people with different interpersonal relationships and that are intentionally designed to be ambiguous.
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for continuity of care, ambulatory care providers are more likely than providers of acute care services to rely on the documentation found in the
The documents included in the problem list will be used by those who provide acute care services.
Does being ambulatory imply being able to walk?A patient enters the operating room and leaves after an ambulatory operation. Ambulatory denotes the ability to walk or something associated with it. Ambulance, which is really a mobile hospital, comes to mind when you hear the word "ambulatory."
What separates ambulatory people from those who are not?The self-reported capacity to walk 150 feet, one block, and one flight of stairs was used to determine whether a patient was considered ambulatory or non-ambulatory. Patients were divided into two categories: ambulatory (those who could execute all the activities) and non-ambulatory (those who could perform none of the activities).
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8. the nurse obtains the following information about a patient before administration of metformin (glucophage). which finding indicates a need to contact the health care provider before giving the metformin?
Before administering metformin to the patient, whose blood glucose level is 166 mg/dL, a physician must be contacted.
What do they mean when they say they themselves?The English word "patient" is derived from the Latin verb "patiens," which meant to bear with or endure. This phrase is used to describe a patient who is incredibly compliant, who endures the necessary discomfort, and who puts up with the interventions of the outside expert.
What is a patient person?We have a chance to develop patience because it entails learning to wait patiently in the face of discomfort or difficulty, which is present almost everywhere. However, patience may be the key to a happy existence.
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the nurse is caring for a newborn whose mother was prescribed an opioid analgesic throughout pregnancy. which action would the nurse include in the plan of care?
Preterm, stillbirth, maternal deaths, or neonatal abstinence syndrome have all been related to opioid use disorder in pregnancy as major health effects for expectant mothers and developing newborns.
What negative effects does the newborn experience from the mother's narcotic analgesia?They might make you feel queasy, sick, or sleepy.These medications may impair the newborn's respiration and make them sleepy, which may make it difficult for them to successfully nurse for the first time.
What typical side effects of opiate agonist are there?Sedation, dizziness, vomiting, vomiting, diarrhea, dependence, tolerance, and respiratory failure are common side effects of opioid treatment.Constipation is the most prevalent negative impact of opiate usage.
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when assessing a patient diagnosed with a mood disorder, which abnormal diagnostic tests would be considered a possible factor in the manifestation of the disorder? select all that apply
RBC (red blood cell), TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone), Blood glucose tests would be considered.
What is a mood disorder?
Mood disorders are psychological disorders that are characterized by elevation or lowering of an individual’s mood. For example bipolar disorder, depression, etc.
When a person has a mood disorder, their general emotional state/ mood is usually distorted, or inconsistent with their circumstances and often interferes with their ability to function.
The 5 major mood disorders are as follows:
Major depressionBipolar disorderDysthymia (dysthymic disorder)Mood disorders due to medical conditionsSubstance-induced mood disorderThe most common mood disorder is depression. In depression, a person is often sad all the time, they lose interest in important parts of their life, their mood fluctuates between extreme sadness and extreme happiness.
So, RBC (red blood cell), TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone), Blood glucose tests would be considered when assessing a patient diagnosed with a mood disorder.
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after a theoretical session about edrophonium (tensilon) testing, the nurse educator asks a staff nurse to select a client from a group with different neurological disorders on which to perform the test. which client is the nurse expected to select?
A client with myasthenia gravis is the client the nurse should select.
Myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune, neuromuscular condition that becomes worse after periods of effort and gets better after periods of rest, is characterized by skeletal muscle weakening. These muscles control breathing as well as the movement of many bodily parts, such as the arms and legs.
With the aid of medication, the majority of myasthenia gravis patients can lead reasonably normal lives. The goal of MG treatments is to decrease symptoms.
For more than half of patients, eye issues are among the first symptoms and signs of myasthenia gravis, including: drooping of one or both eyelids. When one eye is closed, diplopia, which can be horizontal or vertical, gets better or goes away.
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TRUE/FALSE. a rapid growth coupled with intake of dietary iron places toddlers, especially 9-18 months at the highest risk for iron deficiency
TRUE. Toddlers, particularly those aged 9 to 18 months, are most at risk for iron insufficiency due to fast development and dietary iron consumption.
Iron deficiency: how dangerous is it?Iron-deficiency anemia that goes undiagnosed or untreated can have major side effects like exhaustion, headaches, restless legs syndrome, heart issues, pregnancy troubles, and child developmental delays. Additionally, iron deficiency anemia can exacerbate other chronic illnesses or impair the effectiveness of their therapies.
How can my iron levels be swiftly increased?increasing the consumption of foods high in iron, such as lean meats, nuts, beans, lentils, dark green vegetables, and morning cereals with added iron. ingesting various heme and non-heme iron sources eating more vitamin C-rich foods like citrus fruits, peppers, tomatoes, and broccoli at meals
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when teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of raynaud disease, which information will the nurse include? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
I really shouldn't smoke. When exposed to cold temperatures or under stress, the distal extremities might become numb and cool due to a malfunction of the blood arteries that give blood to the skin.
What causes Raynaud's illness primarily?
The common causes of Raynaud's are chilly weather, stress, and worry. Your blood vessels experience a brief spasm that prevents blood flow, which causes the disease. As the bloodflow resumes, the afflicted area transforms from white to blue to crimson as a result.
What symptoms are present in Raynaud's disease?
The issue of Raynaud's phenomenon results in less blood flowing to the fingers. In some instances, it also results in decreased blood supply to the nipples, toes, and ears.
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you have just delivered a premature baby. your assessment reveals that he is breathing adequately; however, his heart rate is 90 beats/min. you should
When a premature baby that has just been delivered is breathing adequately with 90 beats/min heart rate, you must keep the baby warm and provide them with ventilatory assistance.
Premature baby is a baby that is born through premature birth (less than 37 weeks). Health problems are a relatively high risk for premature babies, so it is very important to monitor them until they are strong enough.
In the question above, a premature baby only has 90 beats/min heart rate. Normally, the resting heart rate for newborn infants is around 130 to 150 beats/min. That means that the baby in question has a slow heart rate.
To increase the heart rate, keep the baby warm and ventilate them using a Bag Valve Mask or BMV as ventilatory assistance. An increase in internal temperature and ventilation will help increasing the heart rate,
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the nurse is caring for a client receiving octreotide for the treatment of acromegaly. the nurse should emphasize the need for what form of baseline and periodic testing?
The client being cared for by the nurse is being treated for acromegaly with octreotide. The nurse should be clear about the type of baseline that is required.
Which one would be applied to determine adrenal function?Test to Stimulate the ACTH The most accurate test for identifying adrenal insufficiency is this one. Before and after an injection of synthetic adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH), a hormone released from the anterior pituitary, blood cortisol levels are assessed.
What factors are taken into account when diagnosing primary adrenal insufficiency?To establish a primary diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency, patients should have a blood test to evaluate their levels of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), the hormone that instructs the adrenal glands to make cortisol.
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a 22-year-old client is hard to awake after taking diazepam by mouth. it is suspected she overdosed on the medication. what are two (2) measure the nurse anticipates will take place to address the acute toxicity with diazepam.
After taking oral diazepam, a 22-year-old client is hard to wake. The nurse should anticipate these 2 measures to address diazepam acute toxicity:
IV antidote, by administering Flumazenil to counteract the effect.Oral action, by administering activated charcoal or saline cathartics.What are the signs of diazepam acute toxicity?When someone experiences acute diazepam toxicity, they will be more likely to fall into a deep sleep (that looks like a coma) while still breathing properly. The proper treatment for this situation, besides the two measures stated above, are:
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while caring for a client admitted with a clostridium difficile infection, the nurse notes that the client has had three loose bowel movements in 3 hours. what would be the most appropriate nursing diagnosis to address this health problem?
while caring for a client admitted with a clostridium difficile infection After using the restroom, ask the patient to wash their hands.Make sure everyone involved in patient care washes their hands both before and after each interaction.
Clean the space and the tools with a disinfectant.Only administer antibiotics to patients if necessary.Contact Precautions entail: o Patients with clostridium. diff should, whenever feasible, have a separate room or only share a room with another C. diff patient. o When caring for patients with C, healthcare professionals will don gloves and a gown over their attire. Due to Clostridium difficile's high transmissibility and broad environmental contamination, it's possible that spores could spread through the air. The following are the most typical symptoms and indicators of a mild to moderate C. difficile infection: three or more times per day for more than one day with watery diarrhea. mild abdominal discomfort and cramping until at least 48 hours after your diarrhea stops, remain in your home.
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the nurse is counseling a client who wants to become pregnant. the client tells the nurse that she has a 36-day menstrual cycle and the first day of her last menstrual period was january 8. which date accurately reflects the calculation of the client's next fertile period?
The date that accurately reflects the calculation of the client's next fertile period is January 29 to 30.
What is a menstrual cycle?The menstrual cycle is a series of natural changes in hormone production and the structures of the female reproductive system's uterus and ovaries that allow for pregnancy. The ovarian cycle is in charge of egg production and release, as well as the cyclic release of estrogen and progesterone.
This client's next period will begin 36 days after the first day of her last menstrual period. Her next period starts on February 12. Ovulation happens 14 days before the first day of menstruation. The client can anticipate ovulation between January 29 and 30.
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the nurse is preparing a client with a term pregnancy who is in active labor for an amniotomy. what equipment should the nurse have available at the client's bedside? (select all that apply.)
The equipment that the nurse should have available at the client's bedside include the following: a sterile glove, An amniotic hook and A Doppler. That is option C, D and F respectively.
What is amniotomy?Amniotomy is defined as the procedure which is carried out by the nurse midwife or a gynaecologist that involves the intentional rupture of the amniotic sac.
The importance of amniotomy include the following:
to speed up your labor and to encourage dilation of the cervix.The equipments that should be kept available at the patient's bedside include the following:
A sterile glove: This is used by the nurse midwife to protect herself from the amniotic fluid or blood from the mother and to maintain an aseptic technique during the child delivery process.An amniotic hook: This is an equipment that looks like a crotchet pin which is used by the nurse to break the amniotic membrane.A Doppler: This is used to check the sound waves of the child's heart beat after the rupture of the membrane.Learn more about pregnancy here:
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Complete question:
The nurse is preparing a client with a term pregnancy who is in active labor for an amniotomy. What equipment should the nurse have available at the client's bedside? (Select all that apply.)
A. Litmus paper.
B. Fetal scalp electrode.
C. A sterile glove.
D. An amniotic hook.
E. Sterile vaginal speculum.
F. A Doppler.
a public health nurse is participating in a health promotion workshop and is teaching a group of high school students how to respond if a person suffers an apparent spinal cord injury. the nurse should instruct participants to:
The nurse should instruct participants to: Keep the victim's head in a neutral position at all times.
A public health nurse is taking part in a health promotion workshop and teaching a group of high school students how to respond if someone suffers an obvious spinal cord injury. The nurse should tell participants to always keep the victim's head in a neutral position.
What is the nursing management of spinal cord injury?
Spinal cord injury (SCI) in children is an uncommon accident that can cause irreversible loss of motor and sensory function, as well as bowel and bladder abnormalities. Impaired performance of these skills has serious social and psychological effects for the kid and their family. SCI is frequently linked to a traumatic brain injury. SCI is most usually caused in children and teenagers by car accidents, falls, or diving into water.
Children with SCI face a variety of health-care issues, including autonomic instability, immobility concerns, and bowel or bladder dysfunction. In the acute phase, management focuses on preventing further spinal cord damage, maintaining physiological stability, and starting routine skin care and establishing adequate urine and stool care.
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your doctor/prescriber has entered your negative pregnancy test result and your two methods of birth control into the ipledge program system and gives you a prescription. before you can obtain isotretinoin at a pharmacy you must:
The IUD isotretinoin and implant are the most convenient and reliable forms of birth control, as well as the most effective in preventing pregnancy. The pill, ring, patch, and injection are other excellent birth control options for avoiding pregnancy.
two main contraceptives and one additional, supplementary contraceptive. Common isotretinoin primary birth control methods for transmasculine and non-binary people on testosterone isotretinoin can include an IUD, Depo-Provera injections, or Nexplanon implants. By reducing the size of the birth control sebaceous glands in the skin, works. It is the sebaceous glands' job to produce sebum.
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an older adult client has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes and has been prescribed dapagliflozin. which teaching by the nurse is appropriate based on the administration of dapagliflozin?
Dapagliflozin is used to decrease blood sugar levels in persons with type 2 diabetes together with diet, exercise, and perhaps additional drugs (condition in which blood sugar is too high because the body does not produce or use insulin normally).
How should this medicine be used?
Adults with type 2 diabetes, heart disease, blood vessel disease, or several risk factors for developing heart and blood vessel disease are also treated with it to lower their likelihood of having to be hospitalized for heart failure.
Dapagliflozin is available as an oral tablet. It is typically taken once day, with or without food. Take dapagliflozin every day at about the same time. Ask your doctor or pharmacist to explain any instructions on your prescription label that you are unsure about following. Take dapagliflozin as prescribed by your doctor. Never take it in larger or less amounts or more frequently than directed by your doctor.
If necessary, your doctor may start you on a low dose of dapagliflozin and then increase it.
Although it does not treat your illness, dapagliflozin aids in controlling it. Dapagliflozin should be taken even if you feel fine. Don't stop taking dapagliflozin without consulting a doctor first.
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which provision of the patient protection and affordable care act allows a 30-year-old law student with type i diabetes to get affordable health insurance?
Provision of the patient protection and affordable care act that allows a 30-year-old law student with type 1 diabetes to get affordable health insurance : Insurance companies are required to cover preexisting conditions.
What is Protection and Affordable Care Act?The law provides number of rights and protections that makes health coverage fair and easy to understand, along with subsidies to make it more affordable. The law also includes the Medicaid program to cover more people with low incomes.
The patient protection and affordable care act was an act proposed by the Obama administration to expand healthcare coverage and access to all American while improving quality and reducing costs.
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