They don't fall under the definition. Personal accountability, perseverance, and healthy living, which are the pillars of decent shape in the US, influence how Americans view the idea of functional health.
Why is health such a priority?A productive life is closely related to being in good health. The various organs of the body work together to function. For the organs to function at their best, their health is essential.. Offering decent health is significant since it refers to the condition of being in good social, mental, and physical health.
How does health affect our lives?A state of comprehensive physical, mental, and social well-being is referred to as health. A good nutrition and consistent exercise are essential for a happy life cycle. Also, one must survive.
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a nurse notes that the volume of the client's urinary elimination is less than 300 ml/day. which nursing intervention will be appropriate to use with this client?
The client's urine elimination is estimated to be less than 300 ml per day by a nurse. With this client, a nursing intervention for kidney dysfunction will be indicated.
What is a dysfunction, exactly?Any limitation, disruption, or weakness in behavior from the standpoint of an individual, between individuals in a relationship, even amongst family and friends is referred to as dysfunction. 1 Poor communication, recurrent conflict, physical or emotional abuse, and many other behaviors can all be signs of dysfunction.
What good does dysfunction serve?When something, like a marriage or someone's behavior, is described as dysfunctional, it means that it deviates from what is regarded as normal. It was pretty obvious that he suffered from significant emotional problems.
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a 21-year-old woman presents with double vision that occurs only when she looks to her right side. the double vision began when she woke up in the morning. she had an episode of left leg numbness while at summer camp 6 years ago, but it resolved over 3 days and she never told anyone. also, 3 years ago she saw her private physician after a 7-day episode of right eye pain and visual blurring. he attributed her symptoms to an ocular migraine. there is no history of head trauma. she hasn't had any infections, fevers, or immunizations recently. she is awake, alert, and in no acute distress. positive findings include mild pallor and atrophy of the right optic disc. bedside visual fields and acuity are normal. testing external ocular motion in both eyes together reveals that there is no left eye movement beyond midline when attempting to look to her right, accompanied by right eye lateral nystagmus. when the left eye is tested with the right eye closed, eye movements are full. no other motor signs are found. no skin, sensory, or hearing findings are found. a magnetic resonance imaging scan (mri) of the head with gadolinium enhancement reveals a 2 x 3 cm lucency in the region of the right parietal white matter without swelling or enhancement. multiple sclerosis (ms) is suspected. question: given this history, how would this patient's condition best be subtyped?
The patient is best subtyped as Relapsing Remitting MS.
What is Relapsing Remitting MS?
Relapsing-remitting MS is characterised by relapses of the disease and periods of stability in between relapses in its sufferers. Relapses are occurrences of new or worsened symptoms lasting longer than 48 hours that are not brought on by a fever or infection.
Relapsing Remitting MS (RRMS): The patient experienced three distinct clinical exacerbations (right parietal white matter/left leg numbness, right optic nerve/visual fuzziness, eye pain with residual disc pallor, and median longitudinal fasciculus/resolved diplopia), each of which was followed by full clinical recovery. Recall that this is a clinical descriptive and disability rating. As a result, the subtype is not defined by persistent anomalies on the exam or by supplementary lab tests.
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the nurse in the newborn nursery is determining admission vital signs for a newborn infant. the nurse documents that the vital signs are within normal range if which set of vital signs is noted on assessment?
Weight, circumference, head size, and vital signs are all parameters that should be part of a thorough newborn nursing examination.
How do you evaluate brand-new infants?One of the early assessments is the baby's Apgar score. At one to five minutes after birth, infants are checked for musculoskeletal quality, movements, pigmentation, and heart and breathing rates. This assists in identifying newborns who need further care due to respiratory difficulties or other complications.
How long does a newborn infant remain a newborn?A baby is considered to be a newborn if they are under two months old. Children are considered newborn babies when they are lesser after one day old. Any child, starting at birth, can be referred to as a baby.
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he wife of a military veteran with ptsd states that her husband developed type 2 diabetes 10 years after returning from combat. there is no history of this disease in either side of the family, and the patient is not overweight and does not have any other risk factors for the disease. consequently, the wife believes the diabetes results from her husband's experience in the military. how would you best respond to her assertion?
The best response to her assertion would be , It is not uncommon for combat veterans to unexplainably develop such conditions like this
What is type 2 diabetes?
Type 2 diabetes is an impairment in way the body regulates and uses sugar (glucose) as a fuel.
This long-term (chronic) condition results in too much sugar circulating in bloodstream. Eventually, high blood sugar levels can lead to disorders of circulatory, nervous and immune systems.The main difference between type 1 and type 2 diabetes is that type 1 diabetes is genetic condition that often shows up early in life, and type 2 is mainly lifestyle-related and develops over time
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a chronic degenerative disease of the brain indicated by hand tremors, rigidity, and shuffling gait is known as
a chronic degenerative disease of the brain indicated by hand tremors, rigidity, and shuffling gait is known as Parkinson's disease.
What is the other name for Parkinson's disease?
for a persistent brain condition characterized by rigidity, stumbling stride, and hand tremors is referred to as
Parkinson disease, also known as primary parkinsonism, paralysis agitans, or idiopathic parkinsonism, is a degenerative neurological condition that manifests as tremor, muscle rigidity, slowness of movement (bradykinesia), and postural instability.
Is Parkinson's disease Alzheimer's?Progressive brain illnesses like Parkinson's and Alzheimer's are brought on by slow cell death in the brain. There are distinct stages, symptoms, and therapies for each of these ailments. Alzheimer's illness is always accompanied by dementia. Dementia may develop as a result of Parkinson's disease, a movement illness.
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vancouver bio-tech company was hired by the us military to develop a cure for ebola. they successfully developed a vaccine to treat the symptoms of the virus and lowered the mortality rate for infected patients. discuss the implications of this on a global scale.
It is not a joint effort with the World Health Organization because the US funded the research, which creates issues with global funding, how to collaborate, and who gets credit when a biotech team from Canada but the US funded the research.
Who created the Ebola medication?The vaccine, which has been licensed to Merck, was created by specialists at the Public Health Agency of Canada. In Phase 1 clinical trials, rVSV-ZEBOV was assessed by NIAID and the Walter Reed Army Institute of Research (WRAIR). The results demonstrated that rVSV-ZEBOV is safe and capable of inducing a strong immune response in recipients.
A vaccine was quickly introduced to clinical trial in the field following the Ebola outbreak in West Africa in 2014–2015. But the creation of an Ebola vaccine required significant scientific work from Canada and international cooperation over the course of nearly two decades.
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a client’s blood work reveals a platelet level of 17,000/mm3. when inspecting the client’s integumentary system, what finding would be most consistent with this platelet level?
Petechiae would be most consistent with this platelet level.
Petechiae are small, spherical skin lesions that develop as a result of bleeding. The petechiae turn red, brown, or purple due to bleeding. Petechiae frequently occur in groups and can resemble a rash. Petechiae are typically flat to the touch and do not change color when pressed.
Petechiae can result from a variety of bacterial, viral, and fungal illnesses, including infection with the cytomegalovirus (CMV). Endocarditis. Meningococcemia.
People with ITP consequently experience decreased platelet counts. This may result in petechiae, which are little red or purple spots on the skin, as well as issues with internal bleeding, nosebleeds, blood blisters in the mouth, and easy bruising. Red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets are all formed in the bone marrow.
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after assessing a patient, a nurse develops a standard formal nursing diagnosis. what is the rationale for the nurse’s ac
To distinguish the nurse's role from the physician role.
What is Nursing diagnosis?Nursing diagnoses are part of the nursing process and include individual, family and community experiences / reactions to actual or potential health problems / life processes. It is a clinical judgment about nursing diagnoses that encourages independent practice by nurses compared to physician-directed dependent interventions. Nursing diagnoses are developed based on data obtained during nursing assessments. Problem-based nursing diagnoses represent responses to problems that exist at the time of assessment. Risk diagnostics present vulnerabilities to potential problems, while health promotion diagnostics identify areas that can be improved to improve health. While medical diagnoses identify disorders, nursing diagnoses identify how people respond to health and life processes and crises. The nursing diagnosis process is particularly unique, and nursing diagnosis integrates patient involvement throughout the process as much as possible.To distinguish the nurse's role from the physician role.
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the nurse applies a transdermal patch of fentanyl for a client with pain due to cancer of the pancreas. the client puts the call light on 1 hour later and tells the nurse that it has not helped. what is the best response by the nurse?
I'll give you something to relieve the discomfort now because it will take the meditation between twelve and 18 hours to start working.
What is referred to as medication?Medicines are substances or chemicals that treat, halt, or prevent illness, lessen symptoms, or aid inside the diagnosis of illness. Doctors can now save and treat numerous diseases thanks to modern medicine. Today, there are many places to get medications.
A full medication list is what?The listing should include the medication's name, dosage, and recommended number of daily doses. Include instructions on how to take this medication as a tablet, a shot, or with or without food. Include any allergies you may have.
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a patient with seasonal allergies has told the nurse that a colleague recommended pseudoephedrine hydrochloride (sudafed) as a means of controlling signs and symptoms. the nurse should be aware that this drug provides relief for many patients but adverse effects include a risk of:
The physician should be informed that although this medication offers many patients relief, it also carries the risk of anxiety as one of its side effects.
What is anxiety?Anxiety is when we are concerned, anxious, or afraid of something that will happen, or that we think might happen, in the future. When they feel a threat on their safety, humans inherently experience anxiety. It is something that we can sense, consider, and actually experience.
What is the main factor causing anxiety?The onset of anxiety disorders is typically triggered by traumatic beginning in childhood life, adolescence, or adulthood. Children under the age of eight are more vulnerable to the impacts from stress and trauma. One event that may trigger anxiety problems is abuse, either or emotionally.
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which is the most important action for the nurse to perform when assessing bowel sounds? (select all that apply.)
The most important action for the nurse to perform when assessing bowel sounds is listen for up to 5 minutes when auscultating for bowel sounds.
nurse must listen for up to 5 minutes before determining what type of bowel sounds are present
It should begin auscultation in the right lower quadrant-
nurse should auscultate in right lower quadrant, and then proceed to the other quadrantsWhat is auscultation?
It is listening to the sounds of the body during a physical examination.
Auscultation is a method used to listen to sounds of the body during a physical examination by using a stethoscope.
A patient's lungs, heart, and intestines are most common organs heard during auscultation.
Abdominal sound
A health care provider can check abdominal sounds by listening to the abdomen with stethoscope (auscultation).
Most bowel sounds are the harmless. However, there are some cases in which abnormal sounds can indicate problem.
Ileus is condition in which there is a lack of intestinal activity
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the nurse is monitoring a newborn born to a client who abuses alcohol. which finding should the nurse expect to note when assessing this newborn?
Fetal alcohol syndrome is characterised by craniofacial anomalies, intrauterine growth restriction, cardiac abnormalities, aberrant palmar creases, and respiratory difficulty in neonates.
What typical findings can be seen in a newborn assessment?Size, macrocephaly or microcephaly, changes in skin colour, deformities, indications of respiratory distress, degree of alertness, posture, tone, the existence of spontaneous movements, and symmetry of movements should all be checked during the normal newborn screening.
Due to the lack of a blood test or other medical test for FASD, diagnosis might be challenging. The doctor will diagnose the kid by examining their signs and symptoms and by finding out whether the mother consumed alcohol when she was pregnant. FASDs are chronic. FASDs cannot be cured, although therapies can be beneficial.
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an admitting nurse is assessing a client with copd. the nurse auscultates diminished breath sounds, which signify changes in the airway. these findings indicate to the nurse to monitor the client for what?
The nurse should monitor client with COPD for Dyspnea and hypoxemia
The nurse must keep an eye out for dyspnea and hypoxemia as a result of these alterations in the patient's airway. A musculoskeletal issue is kyphosis. Pneumothorax and sepsis are unusual consequences. Compared to bradypnea, tachypnea is far more likely. Dyspnea can be treated by pursed lip breathing.
The term "chronic obstructive pulmonary disease," or COPD, refers to a range of illnesses that impair breathing and impede airways. Emphysema and persistent bronchitis are among them. For the 16 million Americans with COPD, breathing becomes difficult.
In around 9 out of every 10 cases, smoking is regarded to be the primary cause of COPD. The lining of the lungs and airways can get damaged by the toxic compounds in smoke. Quitting smoking can help stop the deterioration of COPD.
COPD is a collection of lung conditions that impair breathing by obstructing airflow.
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an infant with the diagnosis of exstrophy of the bladder undergoes surgery to close the defect. what must the nurse include in the discharge teaching for the parents?
the nurse include in the discharge teaching for the parents is sponge baths are given to prevent infection from bathwater.
What is bladder exstrophy ?An accidental discovery of bladder exstrophy occurs during a regular prenatal scan. With ultrasound or MRI, it can be more accurately diagnosed before delivery. The following are symptoms of bladder exstrophy detected by imaging tests:
bladder that doesn't properly fill or empty,a low-lying umbilical cord on the abdomen, divided pubic bones, which are a portion of the hipbones and the pelvis, larger than average genitals.
How Exstrophy Bladder Repair is performed ?There are two main surgical techniques that the doctor can employ to treat bladder exstrophy. They consist of;Complete primary repair of bladder exstrophy (CPRE), Modern staged repair of bladder exstrophy (MSRE).
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the nurse is hired to work in a facility where the nurse assumes full responsibility for number of clients’ needs. which nursing care delivery system is the nurse working in? | quizlet
A nurse is hired to work in a facility where the nurse assumes responsibility for a number of clients' needs. This nursing care delivery system is called: Primary care nursing.
What do you mean by primary care nursing?
When a single nurse is designated as the patient's main point of contact and caretaker for a specific hospitalization or other episode of treatment, this is referred to as primary care nursing. The primary care nursing team is made up of the lead nurse, who directly supervises the involvement of a licensed practical nurse and/or nursing assistant in that patient's care, as was intended by staff nurses at the University of Minnesota in 1969. The primary care nurse also serves as a patient's communication link with their doctor and other members of the healthcare team.
Thus from above conclusion we can say that a nurse is hired to work in a facility where the nurse assumes responsibility for a number of clients' needs. This nursing care delivery system is called: Primary care nursing.
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a 64-year-old man presents to the clinic with generalized pain in his neck, shoulders, and hips. he states the pain is worse in the mornings and is sometimes associated with one-sided headaches. his erythrocyte sedimentation rate and c-reactive protein are both elevated. you diagnose him with polymyalgia rheumatica. what other condition would you suspect in this patient?
If you suspect that the patient had giant cell arteritis, you would diagnosis him with nerve pain histological.
What could be the cause of daily headaches?Semi chronic daily headaches can result from a number of conditions, including: strokes or other blood vessel issues, such as inflammation, that affect blood vessels inside and surrounding the brain. illnesses like meningitis. either an excessively high or an obscenely low intracranial pressure.
How long is too long for a headache?The typical duration of a migraine attack without adequate therapy is four to twenty-four hours. Just four hours is too long when you have a migraine, which is why it's crucial to start therapy as soon as possible.
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a client has been prescribed a decongestant. the nurse identifies that the client has a diagnosis of glaucoma. which nursing intervention would the nurse implement after identifying the client’s diagnosis of glaucoma?
The client's diagnostic of glaucoma, which is high eye pressure brought on by an accumulation of the aqueous fluid that permeates it inside your eye, should be communicated to your main healthcare physician.
Describe glaucoma.A collection of eye conditions known as glaucoma can result in loss of vision by harming the optic nerve, a nerve located at the back of the eye. You may not detect the symptoms at first because they can appear gradually.
What causes glaucoma primarily?Injury to the retina, which results in loss of visual field, is the cause of the chronic, progressive eye illness known as glaucoma. Eye pressure is among the key risk factors. Fluid can accumulate due to a problem with the drainage system in the eye.
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which snack food is best for the nurse to provide a client with myasthenia gravis who is at risk for altered nutritional status?
The greatest snack to give a client from myasthenia gravis who might have altered nutritional status is chocolate pudding.
What is the best nurse job?The top 4 nurse positions in terms of pay Registered nurse anesthetist with certification. Dean of nursing, average salary of $195,610 per year. Average salary for a general nurse practitioner is $188,778. Certified nurse midwives, family nurse practitioners, gerontological nurse practitioners, school nurses, and nurse educators make an average salary of $120,680 per year.
Can a nurse do surgery?They are still in charge of many aspects of preoperative planning, including postoperative care in surgery. Additionally, a lot of surgical nursing professionals decide to focus on a particular field, including obstetrics, pediatric surgery, and cardiac surgery.
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in the postoperative phase of abdominal surgery, the client reports severe abdominal pain. in the second postoperative day, the client's bowel sounds are absent. what does the nurse suspect?
The nurse suspect paralytic ileus.
What do you mean by paralytic ileus?A nonmechanical hypomotility that results in a functional blockage of the intestine is known as paralytic ileus (a dynamic ileus) (pseudo-obstruction). Toxemia, electrolyte imbalances (especially hypokalemia), paralysis of the bowel wall, peritonitis from any source, shock, severe pain, abnormal stimulation of the splanchnic nerves, vitamin B-complex deficiency, uremia, tetanus, diabetes mellitus, or heavy metal poisoning are some of the possible causes. Although the gut is not paralyzed, constant neural discharge causes it to become refractory, which prevents tonic stimulation of the bowel musculature. The only obvious abnormalities in the majority of paralytic ileus instances may be the intestine's atonic dilation. Almost all animal species experience it.
Thus from above conclusion we can say that the nurse suspect paralytic ileus.
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the nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with cancer about chemotherapy. the nurse tells the client he'll receive an antitumor antibiotic. the nurse knows that this type of medications is:
Cell-cycle nonspecific because hormonal agents and nitrosourea are examples of non-specific medications. Topoisomerase I inhibitors and antimetabolites are examples of medications that are cell-cycle-specific in the S phase.
What occurs throughout chemotherapy?Chemotherapy medications prevent cancer cells from proliferating and dividing normally. The actions of various drugs differ. At various stages of the cell cycle, several medications target cancer cells. Treatment can target all of the body's rapidly dividing cells or only a few particular chemicals or cancer cell components.
Which problem puts the cancer patient undergoing chemotherapy at risk?Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) and acute myelogenous leukemia are the tumors that are most frequently associated with chemotherapy (AML). Sometimes MDS first develops before developing into AML. Leukemia has been linked to chemotherapy more frequently than radiation therapy.
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a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (tpn). the nurse will assess for complications related to:
Total parenteral nourishment (TPN) is being given to a patient. The nurse will check for problems with fluid and electrolyte balance.
What is the most frequent TPN complication?More than 90% of individuals experience either liver impairment or glucose abnormalities hypoglycemia. Monitoring plasma glucose levels often, modifying the insulin dose in the TPN solution, and administering subcutaneous insulin as required can all help prevent hyperglycemia.
If the patient is on TPN, what should you keep an eye on?Regular weight, electrolyte, and blood urea nitrogen monitoring are advised (eg, daily for inpatients). Up until the patient's and the glucose levels are stable, plasma glucose should be checked every six hours. It is important to regularly check fluid intake and excretion. Blood tests might be performed less frequently as patients become stable.
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question 8 of 20 the nurse is creating a discharge teaching plan for a client with a latex allergy. which information should be included? select all that apply.
The information the nurse must include are : Avoidance of latex-based products, Administration of antihistamines and Administration of emergency epinephrine.
What is latex allergy ?Natural rubber latex, a substance derived from the rubber tree, can cause allergic reactions in people who are sensitive to particular proteins.
Natural rubber latex reactions might be of two primary categories: IgE (immunoglobulin E) mediated (classic immediate allergic reaction) Contact dermatitis (delayed allergic reaction).
Keep latex-containing goods out of your hands, mouth, and reach.
Avoid places where latex may be inhaled (for example, where powdered latex gloves are being used).
A typical immune response to latex is allergic contact dermatitis.
The most frequent immune system response to latex is allergic contact dermatitis.
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a client has just received stem cell transplantation as treatment for leukemia. what are the post procedural nursing interventions for clients receiving any form of stem cell transplantation?
Certain examinations are necessary prior to a stem cell transplant procedure. These consist of a bone marrow biopsy, a chest X-ray, a PET scan, cardio tests, and blood testing.
Which bone is extracted for the bone marrow?A pelvic bone is frequently utilized for a bone marrow biopsy, however another bone, such as the breastbone, may also be used. A child's leg bone or a vertebral bone in the spine may be used.
What kind of preparatory therapy is required before a bone marrow transplant?You will take chemotherapy (with or without radiation) to get your body ready to receive the cells on transplant day. This is referred to as the conditioning or preparative regimen. You will receive chemotherapy (chemo) through your central line as part of the preparative regimen.
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the following conditions either predispose to hyperbilirubinemia or reflect a condition that can cause hyperbilirubinemia. which do you identify in meghan's medical record? select all that apply.
Meghan is required to identify medical records such as ABO mismatch, breastfeeding, and Mediterranean ethnicity.
What is hyperbilirubinemia?
A disease called hyperbilirubinemia occurs when a baby's blood contains an excessive amount of bilirubin. Bilirubin is a byproduct of the decomposition of red blood cells.Because bilirubin is difficult for babies to get rid of, it can accumulate in the blood as well as other bodily tissues and fluids.
What are the terms needed to identify in a medical record?
Newborns who are breastfed are more likely to get jaundice than infants who are fed formula. Jaundice is more prevalent among children born to parents with Mediterranean heritage.When there is too much bilirubin in the baby's blood, hyperbilirubinemia occurs. Jaundice affects around 60% of neonates who are full-term and 80% of preterm infants. The most typical sign is the yellowing of the baby's skin and eye whites. When the child's biliary symptoms initially appear, this has an impact.
Hence, Meghan is required to identify medical records such as ABO mismatch, breastfeeding, and Mediterranean ethnicity.
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a nurse who is right-handed is inserting a woman's indwelling urinary catheter. the nurse will use cotton balls and antiseptic solution to cleanse the woman's meatus and perineum. which of the nurse's actions is most appropriate?
The best course of action for a right-handed nurse installing a woman's indwelling urinary catheter is to widen the woman's labia with her left hand and maintain that position until the catheter is implanted.
A urinary catheter is a little, flexible tube that is used to drain urine by being placed via the urethra and into the bladder. The tube that takes urine from the bladder outside of the body is called the urethra. A Foley catheter is continually inserted and left in place.
Similar to an intermittent catheter, an indwelling urinary catheter is implanted, but it is left in place. A water-filled balloon keeps the catheter in the bladder and prevents it from escaping. These catheters are frequently referred to as Foley catheters.
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a 32-year-old woman complains of a band-like pressure around her forehead that radiates down to the back of her neck. these headaches occur twice a week on average and last for approximately 1 hour in duration. her neurological exam is within normal limits and she has no other associated symptoms. what is the best initial abortive treatment?
The discomfort radiates "cape-like" along the lateral and medial trapezius muscles, which encompass the shoulders, in its most severe form.
The trapezius muscles are what?The trapezius muscle is thick and shallow in the back and resembles a trapezoid. It extends laterally to the backbone of the scapula and downward from the external tubercle of the crown area towards the lower thoracic vertebrae. Top, middle, and lower groupings of fibers make form the trapezius.
How can a stiff trapezius muscle be loosened?Keep your hands close to the back of your body and raise your clenched fists as high as possible while bending your elbows. Hold for two counts. While keeping your fists clinched, raise your arms out into a comfortable position.
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a nurse working in a health clinic assesses sleep patterns during each health assessment. based upon the nurse's knowledge regarding sleep needs, the nurse recognizes which age group as generally needing the least amount of sleep?
The nurse is aware that older folks typically require less sleep. Adults actually need approximately the same amount of sleep, but their changing bodies, can be challenging to obtain the rest they require.
What are the three effects of sleep deprivation?Numerous negative health impacts, such as an elevated risk of hypertension, diabetes, obesity, depression, heart attack, and stroke, have been linked to the cumulative effects of sleep deprivation and sleep disorders.
What effects does depression have on a person?Depression can cause people to withdraw and lose interest in activities that usually make them happy. They could isolate themselves from friends and family due to intense despair, guilt, or hopelessness as well as persistent weariness.
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quizle twhen billing for a clia-waived test in a physician’s office for a medicare beneficiary, what must be done to bill that lab test appropriately? a. there are no special billing requirements for clia waived tests. b. modifier ga should be appended to cpt code® for the lab test. c. modifier qw should be appended to the cpt® code for the lab test. d. an abn must be signed every time.
Check the modifier To the CPT® code for the lab test, QW should be included.
When should you use the qualifier QW?Modifier When a diagnostic lab service is designated with the letter QW, it means that the test has been exempted from the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment (CLIA) and that the provider is in possession of at least a Certificate of Waiver. To do clinical laboratory tests legally, the practitioner must obtain a certificate.
What does a CLIA waiver for a test mean exactly?testing exemption. CLIA defines waived tests as straightforward examinations with little chance of producing a false positive. They comprise: A few of the tests stated in the CLIA rules. FDA-approved tests for use at home.
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the 96-year-old patient is receiving digoxin and furosemide. in the morning, the patient complains of a headache and nausea. what will the nurse do first?
The nurse will check laboratory values and vital signs for patients who are receiving digoxin and furosemide.
What is furosemide?
A loop diuretic drug called furosemide is used to treat fluid retention brought on by kidney illness, liver damage, or heart failure. Additionally, it can be used to lower blood pressure.
What does a nurse perform?
The patient's electrolytes and digoxin levels will be checked by the nurse. Examining vital signs is crucial because the patient may be receiving furosemide, a diuretic that causes potassium loss, which increases the risk of cardiac arrhythmias. The adverse effects of cardiac glycosides that are most commonly reported include headache, weakness, sleepiness, and changes in eyesight (a yellow halo around objects is often reported). Anorexia and gastrointestinal (GI) discomfort are other frequent occurrences. Maalox and acetaminophen would not be recommended. Although they shouldn't be the initial steps, making her lie down and limiting her intake to clear liquids would be reasonable.
Hence, the nurse will check laboratory results and vital signs
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you’re a new resident (house officer). at 2:00 am, you receive a phone call about a patient you are covering who has diabetes. the patient has an elevated blood sugar of 375. you order 12 units of novolog (rapid-acting) insulin and ask the nurse to check the sugar again in one hour and call you back. one hour later, the sugar is 280, so you order another 10 units. by 4:00 am, the patient’s sugar is dangerously low at 45. you realize that novolog insulin takes two to three hours to reach peak effect. by rechecking the patient’s glucose after only one hour and giving more insulin so quickly, you set the patient up for an episode of hypoglycemia. why is it important to communicate with the patient about this event?
Open sharing of this type of information is necessary if patients are to trust their caregivers and Open communication is essential according to numerous professional codes of conduct.
When blood sugar levels are low, the "fight-or-flight" hormone epinephrine (adrenaline) is produced. Epinephrine can cause the hypoglycemia symptoms, such as sweating, tingling, disorientation, anxiety, tremors, and diaphoresis.
The following are the hypoglycemia levels:
When blood sugar levels are 54 mg/dL or above but less than 70 mg/dL, hypoglycemia at level 1 (mild) is present.When blood sugar levels fall below 54 mg/dL, hypoglycemia of level 2 (moderate) is present.Level 3 (severe) hypoglycemia causes mental or physical changes that make it impossible for a person to function.To learn more about hypoglycemia click here,
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