The Stark law, also known as the Physician Self-Referral Law, prohibits doctors from referring patients to get "specified health services" provided by Medicare or Medicaid.
What exactly does a physician do?
A doctor of medical known as a physician typically focuses on non-surgical treatment of patients' illnesses. That's not to argue that becoming a doctor isn't useful; most specialties have a distinctive variety of procedures related to them.
Why is a doctor called a physician?
Because the term "physic" traditionally covered both the practice of medicine and natural science, medical professionals are referred to as physicians. Physics as it related to healing was phased out in favor of medicine as scientific sciences advanced.
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lakita doesn't have any close relationships and is feeling increasingly isolated and lonely. lakita wishes she could find a few people with whom she could spend time and share like friends do, but she feels that she can't reach out and meet people. she is afraid that if she says something silly or acts in an inappropriate way, she will be criticized and shamed by the individuals with whom she wants to be friends, and they will not want to be her friend. the thoughts of humiliation and rejection are too much for lakita. she has always struggled with this problem and has thus lived a relatively isolated life for quite a few years. lakita might be diagnosed as having personality disorder. dependent antisocial schizoid avoidant
A personality disorder is a type of mental illness where you have an unnaturally rigid way of thinking, acting, and behaving. People and situations are difficult for someone with a personality disorder to perceive and relate to.
What is schizoid personality disorder ?People with schizoid personality disorder, a rare illness, avoid social situations and continuously avoid interacting with others. Additionally, their capacity for expressing emotion is constrained.
Your distinct personality is a culmination of your thoughts, feelings, and actions. It involves how you see yourself, how you perceive, comprehend, and relate to the outside environment. During childhood, personality develops as a result of the interaction between inherited traits and environmental circumstances.
Children gradually develop the ability to recognize and appropriately respond to social cues as part of normal development. Schizoid personality disorder has no known etiology, but it may be influenced by a number of genetic and environmental factors, particularly those present during early life.
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a nurse is instructing a client with bipolar disorder on proper use of lithium carbonate, the drug's adverse effects, and symptoms of lithium toxicity. which client statement indicates that additional teaching is required?
This client's admission that she would up her lithium dosage when her moods changed is evidence of the need for additional nursing education.
What are the symptoms of lithium toxicity?The result of having too many lithium is lithium toxicity, commonly referred to as lithium overdose. Tremors, heightened reflexes, difficulty walking, kidney issues, and altered levels of consciousness are just a few symptoms that could be present. After levels stabilize, certain symptoms may persist for a year. Symptoms of minor lithium poisoning includes weakness, worsening tremor, mild ataxia, impaired focus, and diarrhea. Vomiting, a severe tremor, slurred speech, confusion, and drowsiness appear as the toxicity increases (Bauer and Gitlin 2016).
How do you manage lithium toxicity and how quickly does lithium toxicity happen?The mainstay of treating lithium toxicity is supportive care. Due to aspiration danger and emesis, airway protection is essential. Propofol, phenobarbital, and benzodiazepines can all be used to treat seizures.
A patient who regularly takes lithium should have their serum levels checked 6 to 12 hours after their previous dose in order to rule out toxicity. Other substances or hormones, such as blood urea nitrogen and creatinine, that have a link to lithium toxicity may also be checked in the patient's blood by the physician.
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a client at 32-weeks gestation comes to the prenatal clinic with complaints of pedal edema, dyspnea, fatigue, and a moist cough. which question is most important for the nurse to ask this client?
The question is most important for the nurse to ask this client do you have rheumatic fever a history?
Why does the temperature rise during ovulation?The body's core temperature is what it is when it is at rest. The body's hormone levels are one of many variables that affect basal body temperature. The hormone progesterone is produced in greater quantities during ovulation, which raises body temperature as a result.
Over the course of the remaining menstrual cycle, it stays higher. Progesterone then decreases right before the start of your period. If you're pregnant, however, your temperatures will stay higher because progesterone will remain high, which means that your basal body temperature will also decrease.
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when administering intravenous magnesium sulfate, the nurse will monitor for what signs and symptoms of hypermagnesemia?
While administering intravenous magnesium sulfate, the nurse will monitor for signs and symptoms of hypermagnesemia is depressed deep tendon reflexes.
What is hypermagnesemia ?In the absence of the magnesium an uncommon problem arises which is known as hypermagnesemia.
Symptoms:fatigueNauseavomitingMuscle weakness.Cardiac arrest.Tendon reflexes:By percussion of tendon of a muscle monosynaptic stretch reflexes are formed. These monosynaptic stretch reflexes are termed as Tendon reflexes. Rapid deep stimulation of dynamic stretch receptors are caused by this tendon reflex.
5 Major types of tendon reflexes are:BicepsBrachioradialisTricepsPatellarAnkleHence, While administering intravenous magnesium sulfate, the nurse will monitor for signs and symptoms of hypermagnesemia is depressed deep tendon reflexes.
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when caring for the client with laennec cirrhosis, the nurse recognizes which pathophysiologic finding to be an expected etiology of jaundice?
Jaundice is typically caused by impaired bilirubin uptake, which is a pathophysiologic condition. if a client with laennec cirrhosis is being cared for.
What exactly does pathophysiologic mean?The study of the disrupted physiological processes that produce, result from, or are somehow connected with a disease or damage is known as pathophysiology (sometimes known as physiopathology), which is a fusion of pathology and physiology.
What exactly is a diagnosis' pathophysiology?Pathophysiology: Disease-related abnormal function in a person or an organ. As opposed to a structural flaw, a pathophysiologic modification, for instance, is a change in function.
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a nurse is teaching a prenatal class. the nurse teaches that during weeks 25 to 28, which fetal development occurs?
The eyes reopen during this period, and the foetus grows plumper with nicer skin.
The baby is particularly active between the 25th to 28th week of pregnancy, moving around erratically and responding to sounds and touch. The mother should be able to feel the baby kick when there are loud noises. The infant's eyelids will also open during this time, and he or she will begin to blink.
After 18 weeks, and typically by 20 weeks in a primigravida, foetal movement can be noticed. Before 18 weeks of gestation, when the uterus has risen into the abdomen, foetal movement is typically not detected. Although it often occurs four to six weeks before this point, foetal movement should still be noticed at 24 weeks of gestation.
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the nurse is identifying outcomes for a teenager diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. which outcome has the greatest impact on long-term prognosis?
Adolescents with anorexia nervosa refuse to keep their weight at or above the minimally healthy weight for their height and age.
What is the most likely reason for an adolescent's anorexia nervosa diagnosis?Anorexia nervosa can develop and persist due to a variety of variables, including family effects, genetics, neurochemicals, and developmental factors.
Is anorexia nervosa a mental illness?In order to control their food intake in relation to their energy needs, people with anorexia nervosa may reduce their food intake, increase their physical activity, or purge their meals through laxatives and vomiting.
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the nurse instructs the client taking clonidine hydrochloride. it is most important for the nurse to include which statement in the teaching ?
Vancomycin clonidine hydrochloride capsules containing 500 mg are filled from the client's prescription by the pharmacist. The client should be given capsule instructions by the nurse.
What is the purpose of clonidine hydrochloride?Clonidine is used to treat high blood pressure either alone or in combination with other medications (hypertension). The workload on the heart and arteries is increased by high blood pressure. The heart and arteries may not work correctly if it persists for a long time.
Is clonidine a sleep aid?The main purpose of clonidine is to manage excessive blood pressure (hypertension). It is additionally employed in the treatment of ADHD. But the FDA has not approved it for insomnia. Sedation or sleepiness is nevertheless one of clonidine's side effects.
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the nurse is teaching a first-time parent about the newborn's sleep needs. the nurse would inform the parent that newborns sleep approximately how many hours in a 24 hour period?
Newborns typically sleep for 8 to 9 hours during the day and for 8 hours at night. Most infants do not start sleeping through the night (for six to eight hours) without waking up until they are at least three months old.
What kind of tasks should nurses carry out?Registered nurses (RNs) supervise and carry out medical treatments in addition to offering patients' relatives emotional support and educating the general public about various health concerns. The majority of registered nurses work in tandem with physicians and other medical specialists in a range of contexts.
Would a nurse be capable of filling the position?Numerous post-operative surgical therapeutic responsibilities are under their purview. Many surgical nursing professionals choose to concentrate their work on cardiac, pediatric, or obstetric surgery.
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forty-year old kent has a family history of alzheimer's disease. what recommendations do you have for kent to reduce his risk for alzheimer's disease?
Quitting smoking minimizing the use of alcohol. eating a diet that is healthy and well-balanced and that contains at least 5 portions of fruit and vegetables each day. Do as much as you can to exercise every week for at least 150 minutes at a moderate intensity (like fast cycling or walking).
How can the risk of Alzheimer's in families be diminished?Exercise and eating habits
The risk of Alzheimer's and vascular dementia may be reduced by engaging in regular physical activity. By boosting blood and oxygen flow in the brain, exercise may directly benefit brain cells.
Alzheimer's disease can strike anyone, regardless of family history. However, studies have found that people with first-degree relatives who already have the disease—such as a parent or sibling—are more likely to get it themselves.
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pharmacologic treatment for peptic ulcers has changed over the past several decades. the nurse knows that the goal for pharmacologic treatment is focused on:
Pharmacologic therapy aims to eliminate H. pylori, cure ulcer symptoms, and repair the ulcer crater.
How can H. pylori lead to stomach ulcers?The stomach and small intestine's barrier lining can be harmed by H. pylori. Because of this, stomach acid may cause an open wound (ulcer). A stomach ulcer will appear in about 10% of H. pylori carriers.
What defence does the body have against peptic ulcers inherently?The study team has demonstrated the significance of a protein called MUC1 located in the stomach lining for the body's defence against the bacterium. MUC1 appears to be a tree emerging from low bushes on the stomach's surface when viewed under a powerful microscope.
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a client is receiving baclofen for muscle spasms because of a spinal cord injury. which side/adverse effect related to this medication would the nurse monitor the client for?
According to the theory, baclofen lessens the release of excitatory neurotransmitters in pre-synaptic neurons and increases the activity of inhibitory neuronal signals in post-synaptic neurons, hence reducing spasticity.
Which conditions that cause spasticity are baclofen-treatable?When multiple sclerosis, spinal cord injuries, or other spinal cord illnesses are present, baclofen is used to treat pain and specific types of spasticity (muscle stiffness and tightness).
The effects of baclofen on muscles?You can use baclofen to relax some of your body's muscles. It eases the spasms, cramping, and rigidity of muscles brought on by ailments including multiple sclerosis or specific spinal injuries.
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while responding to a fire in a health care facility, which intervention made by the facility personnel would the nurse feel is inappropriate
Excessive work hours have a negative influence on nurses' health care facility, which can then have a negative impact on patient care.
Which prehospital action has the highest priority for a client who has been bitten by a snake?Scene safety is given top consideration in prehospital care. Preventing the creation of new victims is crucial. The snake doesn't require capture or transportation to the hospital. Because bite reflexes can last for hours, even freshly killed snakes can envenom.
Based on their state and stability, which patient would the nurse treat first?Clients with red tags should receive priority care since prompt medical attention may save their lives. A customer with a yellow badge needs to be treated second.
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a nurse is caring for a client who has suffered a severe stroke. during routine assessment, the nurse notices cheyne-stokes respirations. cheyne-stokes respirations are
The nurse discovers cheyne-stokes respirations during normal assessment. Progressively deeper breaths are followed by weaker breaths during cheyne-stokes respirations, which also include apneic intervals.
How does Cheyne-Stokes breathing tell us something?Cheyne-Stokes respiration is thought to be a symptom of heart failure, as opposed to obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), that can induce heart failure. Additionally, Cheyne-Stokes respiration in people with heart failure raises the risk of abrupt cardiac death and predicts worse outcomes.
Why does Cheyne-Stokes occur?Heart failure and stroke are the most common causes underlying Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Cheyne-Stokes breathing is seen in 25% to 50% of patients with heart failure, although being unusual.
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which statements by the nursing student indicate the need for further teaching about managing a pandemic disaster? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
An internal catastrophe that could endanger both the patients and the personnel is a fire in a hospital. A person who is enrolled in a professional nursing or vocational nursing education program is referred to as a nursing student.
The process of nursing care can be evaluated using job satisfaction. Pressure ulcers and client falls are indicators of care outcomes.
When malignant hyperthermia is present, the patient should be evacuated with 100% oxygen at the greatest flow rate.
An endotracheal tube should be placed in the patient right away. It is important to discontinue using any inhalation anesthetics right away because the patient's health can deteriorate.
In disaster management, nurses collaborate with other healthcare professionals to identify and plan for hazards, take part in preparedness education and training, respond quickly and effectively, and engage with other disaster management teams to complete the recovery process.
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at 14-weeks gestation, a client arrives at the emergency center complaining of a dull pain in the right lower quadrant of her abdomen. the nurse obtains a blood sample and initiates an iv. thirty minutes after admission, the client reports feeling a sharp abdominal pain and a shoulder pain. assessment findings include diaphoresis, a heart rate of 120 beats/minute, and a blood pressure of 86/48. which action should the nurse implement next?
At 14-weeks gestation, client reports of sharp abdominal and shoulder pain. Assessment findings is diaphoresis, a heart rate of 120 beats/minute and blood pressure of 86/48, then : increase the rate of IV fluids.
What is diaphoresis during pregnancy?During pregnancy, hormone levels and blood flow increases, causing rise in body temperature. Some women also experience sweating after pregnancy as the body releases excess fluid and due to rebalance of hormone levels.
People with hyperthyroidism, diabetes mellitus, endocrine tumors, and also those who are going through menopause can experience diaphoresis due to hormones change. Diaphoresis is a medical term used for heavy perspiration or sweating.
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which statement by the nursing student in regard to the pharmacokinetic parameters of calcium carbonate requires further intervention?
Butter. Raw milk, kale, sardines, yogurt/kefir, broccoli, watercress, cheese, bok choy, okra, and almonds are the top 10 calcium-rich foods.
Which of the following assertions about calcium absorption are true?Which of the following claims about calcium absorption are true? The intestinal absorption of calcium is reduced by calcitonin. Calcium and phosphorus absorption from the digestive tract is regulated by vitamin D. Dietary calcium absorption is influenced by the food's structure and hormonal regulation.
Which medical ailments could oral esomeprazole be used to treat, according to a nurse?Esomeprazole is used to treat the symptoms of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome and other illnesses involving excessive stomach acid such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Esomeprazole is also used to encourage erosive esophagitis healing (damage to your esophagus caused by stomach acid).
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during transport of a patient with a chest tube management system in place the suction on the device is set to -20 cmh2o. the medical crew member notes an elevation of water in the graduated water seal chamber. the patient is receiving how much total suction pressure?
The patient is receiving a total suction pressure of -20 cmH2O.
What is a chest tube management system?
A chest tube management system is a medical device used for draining air, blood, and other fluids from the chest cavity after a surgery or other medical procedure. The system typically consists of a drainage tube, which is inserted into the chest cavity and connected to a collection bag. The bag is then connected to a pump, which is used to assist in draining the fluid from the chest cavity. The system also includes a monitoring device that allows medical personnel to track the amount of fluid drained, as well as any changes in the patient's condition. The chest tube management system helps reduce the risk of infection and other complications associated with chest surgery.
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What is responsible for correcting the polarity of the neuron so that another action
potential can take place?
1) Depolarization
2) Repolarization
3) Sodium/Potassium pump
Explain why.
(help needed asap. I really appreciate it.)
Answer:
depolarization
Explanation:
The responsible for correcting the polarity of the neuron so that another action potential can take place is depolarization. The correct option is 1.
What is Depolarization?The gated sodium ion channels on the neuron's membrane quickly open during the depolarization phase, allowing sodium ions (Na+) present outside the membrane to flood into the cell.
When voltage-gated sodium channels open, positively charged sodium ions rush into a neuron, causing depolarization.
The membrane becomes less negative, allowing positive ions to enter the cell and causing depolarization. A depolarized is a substance that is added to the electrolyte of an electric cell or battery in order to remove the gas that has accumulated on the electrodes. It is an optical device that scrambles light polarization.
Therefore, the correct option is 1) Depolarization.
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the nurse has just received a client from the special procedures lab for a liver biopsy. what is the position of choice for this client post procedure?
If a patient visits the facility again following a liver biopsy. If nursing interventions 1, 2, and 4 are appropriate, the nurse should use them.
Correct answers are 1, 2, and 4:
The client is positioned on their right side with a pillow put beneath the costal margin. The additional pressure from the pillow on the rib cage will help to exert pressure on the liver capsule. The liver capsule at the biopsy site is pushed against the chest wall by placing the client on their right side. There is a chance that blood or bile will seep from the puncture site if it is not squeezed. For the first hour, the vital signs are checked at intervals of 10 to 15 minutes. Vital sign variations can be a symptom of complications such bleeding, severe haemorrhage, or bile leakage.
3. False: It is incorrect to perform range-of-motion exercises passively. The shoulder is not in a posture before, during, or after the biopsy that would call for passive shoulder workouts.
5. Wrong: The client needs to be told to refrain from intense exercise for one week, not one month. To reduce the risk of liver haemorrhage, intense activity is limited to one week.
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a primigravida client who is 5 cm dilated, 90% effaced, and at 0 station is requesting an epidural for pain relief. which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
The most important thing for nurse to report is Option D. A platelet count of 67,000/mm3.
What is Thrombocytopenia ?An immune system issue or a bone marrow illness like leukemia can both lead to thrombocytopenia. Alternatively, it can be a negative drug interaction. Both children and adults are impacted by it.
Low platelet counts, or thrombocytopenia, should be disclosed to the medical professional since they put the patient at risk for bleeding during the administration of an epidural. (A, B, and C) are acceptable conditions for a client in active labor and are not dangerous for the insertion of an epidural.
What three factors can induce thrombocytopenia?
Your immune system may unintentionally target and destroy your platelets as a result of autoimmune illnesses such immune thrombocytopenia (ITP), lupus, and rheumatoid arthritis.
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the nurse identifies crepitus when examining the chest of a newborn who was delivered vaginally. which further assessment should the nurse perform?
The nurse should perform further assessment which include observation for an asymmetrical Moro (startle) reflex. Thus, the correct option is B.
What is Crepitus?
Crepitus is a common sign of bone fracture which can be heard when the fractured surfaces of two or more broken bones rub together. It can also be observed when there is a severe jaw fracture in the client, a person might also experience very limited ability to move the jaw or will be unable to move it at all.
Crepitus is a curable condition. The first line of treatment includes rest, ice, compression, and elevation. Anti-inflammatory medication and physical exercises that can also relieve it. Splinting, surgery, or both may be necessary if none of these works.
Therefore, the correct option is B.
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The nurse identifies crepitus when examining the chest of a newborn who was delivered vaginally. Which further assessment should the nurse perform?
A. Elicit a positive scarf sign on the affected side.
B. Observe for an asymmetrical Moro (startle) reflex.
C. Watch for swelling of fingers on the affected side.
D. Note paralysis of affected extremity and muscles
the nurse has reviewed the previous physical assessment notes on a client and sees the following documentation: perrla, l 6-4, r 6-4. what is the nurse's best action for follow-up care on this client?
the nurse has reviewed the previous physical assessment notes on a client and sees the following documentation: perrla, l 6-4, r 6-4. Re-assess as needed is the nurse's best action for follow-up care on this client
The highest-paid nursing profession is typically a Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist. That's because Registered Nurse with advanced training in anesthesia collaborate closely with other healthcare professionals during anesthesia-related medical procedures. Many students and medical professionals use the acronym PERRLA, which stands for Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light, and Accommodation, to record the results of a pupillary examination. A standard pupillary response test is described by the abbreviation PERRLA. Your pupils' look and functionality will be evaluated during this test.
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a nurse is attempting to gain insight into a client's cultural beliefs and attitudes. which methods would the nurse likely use? select all that apply.
A culture assessment instrument or questionnaire can be used by a nurse to acquire cultural information from patients.
What is the most effective method for determining a patient's cultural preferences?You should inquire about ethnic origin, religious preference, family patterns, dietary preferences, eating patterns, and health behaviours in a quick cultural evaluation. Before the evaluation, be aware of the main subjects to cover and how to do so without offending the patient or family.
Cultural preservation and upkeep Negation and accommodation of cultural care Repatterning and restructuring of cultural care.
Develop cultural competency through learning about other patient groups, being exposed to new cultures and experiences, and cultivating interactions with people from various backgrounds. Nurses who are eager to learn can help bridge gaps and customise treatment.
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the nurse is providing education to a client who has been instructed to increase the amount of protein in her diet. which foods should the nurse recommend?
Milk and eggs are the foods that should be provided
What is a protein diet?
When following a high protein diet, your primary goal should be to consume plenty of protein—probably more than you are accustomed to. Eggs, meat, shellfish, beans, and dairy products are examples of foods high in protein. These foods are rich in nutrients overall as well as protein. Therefore, a diet strong in protein also contains a lot of nutrients.
Because protein can help control your appetite, eating more of it can be very beneficial for weight loss. Additionally, it provides an abundance of the raw materials required to keep your muscles and metabolism functioning properly, which together help to ensure that you are burning calories at a healthy rate.
Hence, milk and egg are the foods that should be provided
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a patient with osteoarthritis is taking up to 4 grams of acetaminophen daily. the nurse knows to obtain periodic:
The nurse is aware of the need for routine liver enzyme tests.
How do patients describe themselves?The Latin term "patiens," which means to endure or suffer, is translated to "patient" in English. This phrase portrays the patient as being incredibly passive, bearing the required discomfort, and accepting the interventions of the outside expert.
Patient can be a verb or a noun.We have the opportunity to develop patience since it calls for learning to wait patiently in the face of annoyance or discomfort, which is almost always present. But the secret to a happy life may lie in having patience.
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which is the best title for your blog post? reasons you should buy bikes cycling did you know cycling has many health benefits? read this to learn more! 10 ways cycling improves your health
The blog post's title should succinctly and compellingly summarize the central topic. Use promises or inquiries in blog article titles to draw readers in.
What actually are blog posts?
A blog post is any article, bit of news, or how-to that is released in a website's blog section. A blog post addresses a specific topic or question and is often between 600 and 2,000 words long, instructional in nature, and composed of other media types such pictures, videos, infographics, and interactive charts.
What purposes can blogging serve?
A blog, also referred to as a weblog, is a constantly updated online page used for comments from individuals or companies. Every blog post features areas where readers can connect because blogging is typically participatory.
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the nurse is performing a history and physical on a client with diabetic nephropathy. findings include bp 124/80; smokes two packs of cigarettes/day; diet high in saturated fats and sodium. which intervention can help prevent the progression of the diabetic nephropathy?
A smoking cessation program can help prevent the progression of diabetic nephropathy.
What is diabetic nephropathy?
Diabetic nephropathy is a common type 1 and type 2 diabetic complication. The blood vessel clusters in your kidneys that filter waste from your blood can become damaged over time if diabetes is not properly managed. Both renal damage and high blood pressure may result from this. It is thought that the diabetes complication of hypertension, or high blood pressure, causes diabetic nephropathy most directly. Both a cause of diabetic nephropathy and a consequence of the harm the condition causes are thought to be hypertension. The progression of diabetic nephropathy can be slowed or stopped with medications, but there is no known cure for it.
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a nurse is caring for a pregnant client taking an iron supplement. which instruction(s) should the nurse include when teaching the client about ferrous sulfate tablets? select all that apply.
The supplement should not be taken with milk.
Do not use antacids together with the supplement.
The drug's extended-release version should not be chewed.
What do I need to tell my doctor BEFORE I take Ferrous Sulfate Capsules and Tablets?If any component of this medication, including ferrous sulphate, causes you to become allergic (ferrous sulphate capsules and tablets).If you have an allergy to ferrous sulphate capsules or tablets, any component of the capsules or tablets, or any other medications, foods, or substances. Inform your doctor about your allergies and any symptoms you had.If you experience any of these medical conditions: Anemia caused by a factor other than a lack of iron in your body is also possible.To learn more about ferrous sulfate tablets visit;
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the nurse is teaching a client with a diagnosis of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and aortic valve stenosis. which statement by the client shows that the client understands this condition?
The clients’ statement ‘I report episodes of dizziness or fainting’ shows that the client understands their condition.
What is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a condition wherein the muscles of the heart become abnormally thick (hypertrophied). This condition makes it difficult for the heart to pump blood. Most often, it goes undiagnosed. The reason for this is that many people with the condition often have few, if any at all, symptoms.
In a few people with HCM, however, the thickened heart muscles can cause shortness of breath, chest pain/ changes in the heart's electrical system that may result in irregular life-threatening heart rhythms (arrhythmias) or even sudden death.
Symptoms of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy may include one/more of :
Chest pain (during exercise especially)Fainting (during or after exertion/ exercise, especially) Heart murmurPalpitations of the heartShortness of breath (during exercise, especially)HCM is often cause by changes in genes (gene mutations) that can thicken the heart muscles. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy usualy affects the muscular wall (septum) between the two bottom chambers of the heart, i.e., ventricles. The thick walls may block flow of blood out of the heart. This is known as obstructive hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
People with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy can also have a rearrangement of heart muscle cells, i.e., myofiber disarray. In some people, this can trigger arrhythmias.
So, the clients’ statement ‘I should report episodes of dizziness or fainting’ shows that the client understands their condition.
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