The Ash and Moisture Free analysis of coal used as fuel in a power plant are as follows: Sulfur = 2.05% Hydrogen = 5.14% Oxygen = 4.17%
Carbon = 86.01% Nitrogen = 2.63%
Calculate the Height of the Chimney in meters considering a theoretical draft of 2.83 cm WG, the Rwg = 0.2776 kJ/kg-K, the ambient pressure is 98 kPa, the ambient temperature is 31 0C and the temperature of the Wet Gas is 314 0C.
Note: Use four (4) decimal places in your solution and answer.

Answers

Answer 1

The height of the chimney is approximately -0.0015557 meters.

Let's perform the calculations step by step:

Step 1: Calculate the total pressure inside the chimney (Pt)

Pa = 98 kPa

Draft pressure = 0.277573 kPa

Pt = Pa + draft pressure = 98 kPa + 0.277573 kPa = 98.277573 kPa

Step 2: Calculate the molecular weight of the dry gas (M)

M_C = 12.01 g/mol

M_S = 32.07 g/mol

M_H = 1.008 g/mol

M_O = 16.00 g/mol

M_N = 14.01 g/mol

M = (86.01 * 12.01 + 2.05 * 32.07 + 5.14 * 1.008 + 4.17 * 16.00 + 2.63 * 14.01) / 100

= 12.01086 g/mol

Step 3: Calculate the molecular weight of water vapor (Mw)

Mw_H2O = 2 * M_H + M_O = 2 * 1.008 + 16.00

= 18.016 g/mol

Step 4: Convert temperatures to Kelvin

T = 314 + 273.15

= 587.15 K

Step 5: Perform the calculation for the height of the chimney (h)

Rwg = 0.2776 kJ/kg-K

g = 9.81 m/s^2

h = (Rwg * T * ln(Pa / Pt)) / (g * (M + Mw))

= (0.2776 * 587.15 * log(98 / 98.277573)) / (9.81 * (12.01086 + 18.016))

= (0.2776 * 587.15 * -0.00283693) / (9.81 * 30.02686)

= -0.4578 / 294.45552

= -0.0015557

Therefore, the height of the chimney is approximately -0.0015557 meters.

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Related Questions

(3) Discuss the following. (a) Entropy b. System-afic Code Linear block code C- d. Hamming bluck code cyclic codes. e.

Answers

Entropy Entropy is a measure of the disorder or uncertainty in a system. It is a measure of the number of possible states that a system can have, given a certain amount of energy and resources.

Entropy is often associated with the Second Law of Thermodynamics, which states that the total entropy of a closed system cannot decrease over time. The concept of entropy is used in various fields, including physics, chemistry, and information theory.

Systematic Code Linear Block Code: A linear block code is an error-correcting code in which each code word is a linear combination of a set of basis vectors. These basis vectors are chosen so that any linear combination of them produces a valid code word.

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Q2) A switch has dv/dt maximum rating of 10 V/μs. It is to be used to energize a 20Ω load and it is known that step transient of 200 V occurs. The switch has di/dt maximum rating of 10 A/μs. The recharge resistor of the snubber is 400Ω. Design snubber elements to protect the device.

Answers

Snubber elements will help protect the switch when energizing the 20 Ω load with a step transient of 200 V by limiting the voltage and current rates of change within the specified maximum ratings of the switch.

Given data:

Maximum dv/dt rating of the switch: 10 V/μs

Step transient voltage (Vstep): 200 V

Maximum di/dt rating of the switch: 10 A/μs

Recharge resistor of the snubber: 400 Ω

Step 1: Calculate the snubber capacitor (Cs):

Cs = (Vstep - Vf) / (dv/dt)

Assuming Vf (forward voltage drop) is negligible, Cs = Vstep / dv/dt

Substituting the values: Cs = 200 V / 10 V/μs = 20 μF

Step 2: Calculate the snubber resistor (Rs):

Rs = (Vstep - Vf) / (di/dt)

Assuming Vf is negligible, Rs = Vstep / di/dt

Substituting the values: Rs = 200 V / 10 A/μs = 20 Ω

Step 3: Consider the existing recharge resistor:

Given recharge resistor = 400 Ω

So, the final snubber design elements are:

Snubber capacitor (Cs): 20 μF

Snubber resistor (Rs): 20 Ω

Recharge resistor: 400 Ω

These snubber elements will help protect the switch when energizing the 20 Ω load with a step transient of 200 V by limiting the voltage and current rates of change within the specified maximum ratings of the switch.

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An ideal gas undergoes an isenthalpic process between state points 1 and 2. Sketch such a process on a T-s diagram and give an example of an isenthalpic process.
A perfect gas has a molecular weight of 44 and specific heat ratio y = 1.3. Calculate the specific heat capacities at constant volume (cy) and constant pressure (cp).

Answers

The specific heat capacities at constant volume and constant pressure are approximately 20.785 J/(mol·K) and 26.921 J/(mol·K), respectively.

An isenthalpic process on a T-s (temperature-entropy) diagram is represented by a vertical line. This is because during an isenthalpic process, the enthalpy of the gas remains constant. The temperature changes while the entropy remains constant. An example of an isenthalpic process is the expansion or compression of a gas through a properly designed nozzle, where there is no heat transfer and the gas experiences a change in velocity and temperature.

The specific heat capacities at constant volume (cy) and constant pressure (cp) for a perfect gas can be calculated using the specific heat ratio (y) and the gas constant (R).

cy = R / (y - 1)

cp = y * cy

Given the specific heat ratio y = 1.3 and the gas constant R = 8.314 J/(mol·K), we can calculate the specific heat capacities:

cy = 8.314 J/(mol·K) / (1.3 - 1) ≈ 20.785 J/(mol·K)

cp = 1.3 * 20.785 J/(mol·K) ≈ 26.921 J/(mol·K)

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Fluid enters a tube with a flow rate of 0.20 kg/s and an inlet temperature of 20'C. The tube, which has a length of 8 m and diameter of 20 mm, has a surface temperature of 30°C. Determine the heat transfer rate to the fluid if it is water.=855X10Ns/m, k=0.613W/mK, Cp=4.179kJ/kgK, Pr-5.83

Answers

The heat transfer rate to the fluid is:

Q = 144.8 W

Now, For the heat transfer rate to the fluid, we can use the heat transfer equation:

Q = m_dot Cp (T_out - T_in)

where Q is the heat transfer rate, m_dot is the mass flow rate, Cp is the specific heat at constant pressure, T_out is the outlet temperature, and T_in is the inlet temperature.

From the problem statement, we know that the mass flow rate is 0.20 kg/s, the inlet temperature is 20°C, and the outlet temperature is unknown.

We can assume that the fluid is water, so we can use the specific heat of water at constant pressure, which is 4.179 kJ/kgK.

To find the outlet temperature, we need to determine the heat transfer coefficient and the overall heat transfer coefficient for the tube.

We can use the Nusselt number correlation for turbulent flow in a circular tube:

[tex]Nu = 0.023 Re^{0.8} Pr^{0.4}[/tex]

where Re is the Reynolds number and Pr is the Prandtl number. The Reynolds number can be calculated as:

Re = (m_dot D) / (A mu)

where D is the diameter of the tube, A is the cross-sectional area of the tube, and mu is the dynamic viscosity of the fluid.

We can assume that the fluid is flowing through the tube at a constant velocity, so the Reynolds number is also constant.

The dynamic viscosity of water at 20°C is 0.000855 Ns/m², so we can calculate the Reynolds number as:

Re = (0.20 kg/s 0.02 m) / (π (0.01 m)² / 4 × 0.000855 Ns/m²)

Re = 7692

Using the Prandtl number given in the problem statement, we can calculate the Nusselt number as:

[tex]Nu = 0.023 * 7692^{0.8} * 5.83^{0.4}[/tex] = 268.1

The convective heat transfer coefficient can be calculated as:

h = (k × Nu) / D

where k is the thermal conductivity of the fluid.

For water at 20°C, the thermal conductivity is 0.613 W/mK.

Therefore,

h = (0.613 W/mK × 268.1) / 0.02 m

h = 8260 W/m²K

The overall heat transfer coefficient can be calculated as:

U = 1 / (1 / h + t_wall / k_wall + t_insul / k_insul)

where t_wall is the thickness of the tube wall, k_wall is the thermal conductivity of the tube wall material, t_insul is the thickness of any insulation around the tube, and k_insul is the thermal conductivity of the insulation material. From the problem statement, we know that the surface temperature is 30°C, which means that the wall temperature is also 30°C.

We can assume that the tube wall is made of copper, which has a thermal conductivity of 401 W/mK.

We can also assume that there is no insulation around the tube, so t_insul = 0 and k_insul = 0.

Therefore,

U = 1 / (1 / 8260 W/m²K + 0.008 m / 401 W/mK)

U = 794.7 W/m²K

Now we can solve for the outlet temperature:

Q = m_dot Cp (T_out - T_in)

Q = U A (T_wall - T_in)

where A is the cross-sectional area of the tube, which is,

= π × (0.01 m)² / 4

= 7.85e-5 m²

Solving for T_out, we get:

T_out = T_in + Q / (m_dot × Cp)

T_out = T_in + U A (T_wall - T_in) / (m_dot × Cp)

T_out = 30°C + 794.7 W/m²K 7.85e-5 m² (30°C - 20°C) / (0.20 kg/s × 4.179 kJ/kgK)

T_out = 38.7°C

Therefore, the heat transfer rate to the fluid is:

Q = m_dot Cp (T_out - T_in)

Q = 0.20 kg/s 4.179 kJ/kgK (38.7°C - 20°C)

Q = 144.8 W

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Apply the principles of mine management to given mine related
situations and issues.

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the principles of mine management to various mine-related situations and issues involves considering the key aspects of mine operations, including safety, productivity, environmental impact, and stakeholder management.

Safety Enhancement:

Implementing a comprehensive safety program that includes regular training, hazard identification, and risk assessment to minimize accidents and injuries. This involves promoting a safety culture, providing personal protective equipment (PPE), conducting safety audits, and enforcing safety protocols.

Operational Efficiency:

Improving operational efficiency by implementing lean management principles, optimizing workflows, and utilizing advanced technologies. This includes adopting automation and digitalization solutions to streamline processes, monitor equipment performance, and reduce downtime.

Environmental Sustainability:

Implementing sustainable mining practices by minimizing environmental impact and promoting responsible resource management. This involves adopting best practices for waste management, implementing reclamation plans, reducing water and energy consumption, and promoting biodiversity conservation.

Stakeholder Engagement:

Engaging with local communities, government agencies, and other stakeholders to build positive relationships and ensure social license to operate. This includes regular communication, addressing community concerns, supporting local development initiatives, and promoting transparency in reporting.

Risk Management:

Developing a robust risk management system to identify, assess, and mitigate potential risks in mining operations. This involves conducting risk assessments, implementing control measures, establishing emergency response plans, and ensuring compliance with health, safety, and environmental regulations.

Workforce Development:

Investing in employee training and development programs to enhance skills and knowledge. This includes providing opportunities for career advancement, promoting diversity and inclusion, ensuring fair compensation, and fostering a safe and supportive work environment.

Cost Optimization:

Implementing cost-saving measures and operational efficiencies to maximize profitability. This involves analyzing and optimizing operational costs, exploring opportunities for outsourcing or partnerships, and continuously monitoring and improving processes to reduce waste and increase productivity.

Compliance with Regulations:

Ensuring compliance with all relevant mining regulations and legal requirements. This includes maintaining accurate records, conducting regular audits, monitoring environmental impacts, and engaging with regulatory authorities to stay updated on changing requirements.

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STEEL DESIGN
Using Fy=50 ksi (345 MPa) and Fu = 65 ksi (448 MPa), unless otherwise noted.
Select the lightest S section that will safely support the service tensile loads D = 92 kips and L = 56 kips. The member is to be 20 ft long and is assumed to have one line of holes for ¾-in diameter bolts in each flange. Assume that there are at least three holes in each line 4 inches on center. Use A36 steel.
Use LRFD and ASD design expressions and show your complete solution. Select an alternative section if none of the specified section is adequate.

Answers

Main answer:The given problem requires the lightest S section that can support the tensile loads with safety. Therefore, for this problem, we need to use the LRFD (Load and Resistance Factor Design) and ASD (Allowable Strength Design) design expressions.As given in the problem, Fy = 50 ksi (345 MPa) and Fu = 65 ksi (448 MPa). The member is 20 ft long and has one line of holes in each flange. Also, it is assumed that there are at least three holes in each line 4 inches on center. The steel to be used is A36 steel.Let's first calculate the service load stress due to the given tensile loads. The member is subjected to a service load stress in the longitudinal direction due to the tensile loads D and L. Therefore, the service load stress on the section is given by;fs = D/A + L/AWhere,fs = service load stress on the sectionD = 92 kipsL = 56 kipsA = cross-sectional area of the sectionWe need to select the lightest S section that can safely support the given tensile loads. Therefore, we must compare the required area of the section with the actual area of different sections of S shape. We will consider different sections with varying dimensions and thicknesses and then calculate the required section properties to determine which section satisfies the required conditions with minimum weight. LRFD Design Method:Using LRFD design expressions, the required area of the section is given by;Ar = φ.(D + L)/FyWhere,φ = Load factorD = 92 kipsL = 56 kipsFy = 50 ksiAr = φ.(D + L)/FyAr = (1.2*92+1.6*56)/(50) = 3.28 sq. in.ASD Design Method:Using ASD design expressions, the required area of the section is given by;Ar = (D + L)/0.6FyWhere,D = 92 kipsL = 56 kipsFy = 50 ksiAr = (92+56)/(0.6*50) = 3.47 sq. in.The lightest S section that can safely support the given tensile loads is the one that has the minimum weight and has an area of at least 3.28 sq. in. The standard S section 3" × 5.7# has an area of 3.36 sq. in., which is more than the required area. Therefore, this section will safely support the given tensile loads.Conclusion:Using the LRFD and ASD design expressions, the required area of the section is calculated. It is then compared to the actual area of different S sections to determine the lightest section that satisfies the required conditions with minimum weight. The standard S section 3" × 5.7# with an area of 3.36 sq. in. satisfies the required conditions and can safely support the given tensile loads.

A homogenous axial rod has a uniform Young's modulus (E) and density (p). The length and cross-sectional area of the bar are A and 1. Determine the natural frequencies and mode functions for the bar for two different end conditions namely, (a) Free-free (i.e. both ends free)

Answers

The natural frequencies and mode functions for the bar for two different end conditions are given below:

The wave equation and boundary conditions can be used to determine the natural frequencies and mode functions for a homogenous axial rod with free-free end conditions.

The wave equation for vibrations in a rod is given by:

d²u/dt² = (E/pA) * d²u/dx²

where u is the displacement of the rod in the axial direction, t is time, x is the position along the rod, E is the Young's modulus, p is the density, and A is the cross-sectional area of the rod.

For the free-free end conditions, we have the following boundary conditions:

u(0, t) = 0 (displacement is zero at the left end)

u(L, t) = 0 (displacement is zero at the right end)

To find the natural frequencies and mode functions, we assume a solution of the form:

u(x, t) = X(x) * T(t)

Substituting this into the wave equation, we get:

(X''/X) = (1/c²) * (T''/T)

where c = √(E/pA) is the wave speed in the rod.

Since the left and right ends are free, the displacement and its derivative are both zero at x = 0 and x = L.

This gives us the following boundary value problem for X(x):

X''/X + λ² = 0

where λ = (n * π) / L is the separation constant and n is an integer representing the mode number.

The solution to this differential equation is given by:

X(x) = A * sin(λx) + B * cos(λx)

Applying the boundary conditions, we have:

X(0) = A * sin(0) + B * cos(0) = 0

X(L) = A * sin(λL) + B * cos(λL) = 0

From the first boundary condition, we get B = 0.

From the second boundary condition, we have:

A * sin(λL) = 0

For non-trivial solutions, sin(λL) = 0, which gives us the following condition:

λL = n * π

Solving for λ, we get:

λ = (n * π) / L

Substituting λ back into X(x), we get the mode functions:

X_n(x) = A_n * sin((n * π * x) / L)

The natural frequencies (ω_n) corresponding to the mode functions are given by:

ω_n = c * λ = (n * π * c) / L

So, the natural frequencies for the free-free end conditions are:

ω_n = (n * π * √(E/pA)) / L

where n is an integer representing the mode number.

we have,

The natural frequencies for the free-free end conditions are given by (n * π * √(E/pA)) / L, and the corresponding mode functions are A_n * sin((n * π * x) / L), where n is an integer representing the mode number and A_n is the amplitude of the mode.

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6. Distinguish the suitable components to control the power factor between 0.85 lagging to 0.85 leading for a solar panel factory. i. Power bank ii. Capacitor bank iii. Inductor bank iv. Resistor bank a) i & ii b) ii & iii c) iii & iv d) ii (3 marks)

Answers

The following are the appropriate components to control the power factor between 0.85 lagging to 0.85 leading for a solar panel factory:Capacitor bank. Option(B) is correct

Power factor correction (PFC) is the method of increasing the power factor of a power supply circuit in order to provide a more effective use of electrical power. The power factor is the ratio of actual power to apparent power, and it is a measure of how efficiently electrical power is being used.

The use of a capacitor bank is the most common method of power factor correction. Capacitors help to increase the power factor by absorbing reactive power from the circuit. A capacitor acts as a reactive load, absorbing the inductive reactive power produced by the load.

In this case, capacitors are used to reduce the power factor of the circuit.Inductor bank: Inductors are used in circuits where there is a need to reduce the flow of current. They are reactive components that absorb and store electrical energy in a magnetic field. They are used in power factor correction circuits to decrease the power factor.Inductors are typically used in low power factor circuits to prevent harmonic distortion and to smooth the waveform. Resistor bank: Resistors are used in circuits where a voltage drop is required.

They are used to reduce the amount of current flowing through a circuit, which in turn reduces the amount of power being consumed. Resistors are typically used in high power factor circuits to prevent harmonic distortion and to smooth the waveform.In conclusion, the suitable components to control the power factor between 0.85 lagging to 0.85 leading for a solar panel factory are the Capacitor bank, Inductor bank and Resistor bank.

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Give two reasons why an engineering manager should care about
professional ergonomics certification.

Answers

As an engineering manager, professional ergonomics certification is highly recommended as it will help you to improve your knowledge about the ergonomics standard and industry best practices. Ergonomics is a science that focuses on designing products and systems that are easy and safe to use, thus certification of this standard shows that the engineering manager is concerned about his employees' health and well-being.

The following are the two reasons why an engineering manager should care about professional ergonomics certification:
1. Improved Productivity: An engineering manager who holds a professional ergonomics certification will improve productivity and reduce the risk of work-related injuries. Certified managers understand how to design and arrange the workplace to reduce the risk of injuries and maximize the efficiency of the employees. Certified managers also have a better understanding of ergonomics guidelines and standards that improve worker comfort and minimize repetitive stress injuries, resulting in a reduction in absenteeism, fatigue, and discomfort.
2. Legal Compliance: The second reason why an engineering manager should care about professional ergonomics certification is that it is a legal requirement. As an engineering manager, it is the responsibility of the individual to ensure that the company complies with ergonomics regulations. The company must ensure that the work environment is safe and comfortable, especially if the employees perform repetitive tasks. A professional ergonomics certification course will provide managers with a clear understanding of the ergonomics standard and industry best practices that meet regulatory requirements.

In conclusion, obtaining a professional ergonomics certification is essential for engineering managers. It shows that the manager cares about the employee's health and well-being, as well as legal compliance. Ergonomics is an essential part of workplace design, and certified managers will improve productivity and create a safer and healthier workplace.

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A revolving shaft with machined surface carries a bending moment of 4,000,000 Nmm and a torque of 8,000,000 Nmm with ± 20% fluctuation. The material has a yield strength of 660 MPa, and an endurance limit of 300 MPa. The stress concentration factor for bending and torsion is equal to 1.4. The diameter d-80 mm, will that safely handle these loads if the factor of safety is 2.5.(25%)

Answers

A revolving shaft with machined surface carries a bending moment of 4,000,000 Nmm and a torque of 8,000,000 Nmm with ± 20% fluctuation.

The material has a yield strength of 660 MPa, and an endurance limit of 300 MPa. The stress concentration factor for bending and torsion is equal to 1.4. The diameter d-80 mm will that safely handle these loads if the factor of safety is 2.5.

Now, we can calculate the safety factor for bending and torsion using the following formula = σe / σmaxn (bending) = 330 / 142.76n (bending) = 2.31n (torsion) = 330 / 88.92n (torsion) = 3.71Hence, the shaft will be safe under torsion but will fail under bending. Therefore, the diameter of the shaft must be increased.

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Water is the working fluid in an ideal Rankine cycle. Steam enters the turbine at 1400lbf
/ in2 and 1200∘F. The condenser pressure is 2 Ib / in. 2
The net power output of the cycle is 350MW. Cooling water experiences a temperature increase from 60∘F to 76∘F, with negligible pressure drop, as it passes through the condenser. Step 1 Determine the mass flow rate of steam, in lb/h. m = Ib/h

Answers

The mass flow rate of steam and cooling water will be 8963 lb/h and 6.25x10^7 lb/h respectively whereas the rate of heat transfer is 1.307x10^7 Btu/h and thermal efficiency will be; 76.56%.

(a) To find the mass flow rate of steam, we need to use the equation for mass flow rate:

mass flow rate = net power output / ((h1 - h2) * isentropic efficiency)

Using a steam table, h1 = 1474.9 Btu/lb and h2 = 290.3 Btu/lb.

mass flow rate = (1x10^9 Btu/h) / ((1474.9 - 290.3) * 0.85)

= 8963 lb/h

(b) The rate of heat transfer to the working fluid passing through the steam generator is

Q = mass flow rate * (h1 - h4)

Q = (8963 lb/h) * (1474.9 - 46.39) = 1.307x10^7 Btu/h

(c) The thermal efficiency of the cycle is :

thermal efficiency = net power output / heat input

thermal efficiency = (1x10^9 Btu/h) / (1.307x10^7 Btu/h) = 76.56%

Therefore, the thermal efficiency of the cycle is 76.56%.

(d) To find the mass flow rate of cooling water,

rate of heat transfer to cooling water = mass flow rate of cooling water * specific heat of water * (T2 - T1)

1x10^9 Btu/h = mass flow rate of cooling water * 1 Btu/lb°F * (76°F - 60°F)

mass flow rate of cooling water = (1x10^9 Btu/h) / (16 Btu/lb°F)

= 6.25x10^7 lb/h

Therefore, the mass flow rate of cooling water is 6.25x10^7 lb/h.

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Q06: Design a synchronous up counter to count even number from 0 to 8 using T flop-flop. The counter repeated sequence as follows: 0 -> 2->4->6->8->0-> 2 -> 4....

Answers

Synchronous up counter can be designed using T flip-flops. Synchronous up counter is a digital circuit that counts the numbers in a sequence by incrementing a binary value.

The counter sequence can be increased by 1 by adding a clock pulse to the circuit.

Here, we need to design a synchronous up counter to count even numbers from 0 to 8 using T flip-flop.

The counter sequence is [tex]0- > 2- > 4- > 6- > 8- > 0- > 2- > 4…..[/tex]

Here, we have to design a synchronous up counter that counts even numbers only.

Hence, we need to use the T flip-flop that is triggered by the positive edge of the clock pulse.

As we know that T flip-flop toggles its output state on the positive edge of the clock pulse if its T input is high.

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(a) Explain in detail one of three factors that contribute to hydrogen cracking.
(b) Explain the mechanism of hydrogen induced cool cracking
(c) Explain with your own words how to avoid the hydrogen induced cracking in underwater welding

Answers

(a) One of the factors that contribute to hydrogen cracking is the presence of hydrogen in the weld metal and base metal. Hydrogen may enter the weld metal during welding or may already exist in the base metal due to various factors like corrosion, rust, or water exposure.

As welding takes place, the high heat input and the liquid state of the weld metal provide favorable conditions for hydrogen diffusion. Hydrogen atoms can migrate to the areas of high stress concentration and recombine to form molecular hydrogen. The pressure generated by the molecular hydrogen can cause the brittle fracture of the metal, leading to hydrogen cracking. The amount of hydrogen in the weld metal and the base metal is dependent on the welding process used, the type of electrode, and the shielding gas used.


(c) To avoid hydrogen-induced cracking in underwater welding, several measures can be taken. The welding procedure should be carefully designed to avoid high heat input, which can promote hydrogen diffusion. Preheating the metal before welding can help to reduce the cooling rate and avoid the formation of cold cracks. Choosing low hydrogen electrodes or fluxes and maintaining a dry environment can help to reduce the amount of hydrogen available for diffusion.

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In a lifting flow over circular cylinder with vortex strength = 4m2/s, diameter = 0.2 m and density = 1.25 kg/mºDetermine the freestream velocity that generates lift coefficient = 0.45. Also, determine the lift and the drag forces per unit span

Answers

The freestream velocity that generates a lift coefficient of 0.45 is approximately 4.44 m/s. The lift force per unit span is approximately 0.35 N/m, and the drag force per unit span is approximately 0.39 N/m.

To determine the freestream velocity, lift, and drag forces per unit span in a lifting flow over a circular cylinder, with given vortex strength, diameter, density, and lift coefficient, the freestream velocity is calculated to be approximately 4.44 m/s. The lift force per unit span is determined to be approximately 0.35 N/m, and the drag force per unit span is approximately 0.39 N/m.

Given:

Vortex strength (Γ) = 4 m²/s

Diameter (D) = 0.2 m

Density (ρ) = 1.25 kg/m³

Lift coefficient (Cl) = 0.45

The vortex strength (Γ) is related to the freestream velocity (V∞) and the diameter (D) of the cylinder by the equation:

Γ = π * D * V∞ * Cl

Rearranging the equation, we can solve for the freestream velocity:

V∞ = Γ / (π * D * Cl)

Substituting the given values:

V∞ = 4 / (π * 0.2 * 0.45) ≈ 4.44 m/s

To calculate the lift force per unit span (L') and the drag force per unit span (D'), we use the following equations:

L' = 0.5 * ρ * V∞² * Cl * D

D' = 0.5 * ρ * V∞² * Cd * D

Since the lift coefficient (Cl) is given and the drag coefficient (Cd) is not provided, we assume a typical value for a circular cylinder at low angles of attack, which is approximately Cd = 1.2.

Substituting the given values and calculated freestream velocity:

L' = 0.5 * 1.25 * (4.44)² * 0.45 * 0.2 ≈ 0.35 N/m

D' = 0.5 * 1.25 * (4.44)² * 1.2 * 0.2 ≈ 0.39 N/m

Therefore, the freestream velocity that generates a lift coefficient of 0.45 is approximately 4.44 m/s. The lift force per unit span is approximately 0.35 N/m, and the drag force per unit span is approximately 0.39 N/m.

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A heat engine operates between two thermal reservoirs, a source with T H​ =2200 K and a sink with T L​ =700 K. Determine whether the heat engine is reversible, irreversible, or impossible for the following cases:
i) η th =69%
ii) Q H​ =800 kJ,Q L​ =200 kJ
iii) W net,out =300 kJ,Q L =200 kJ
iv) Q H​ =800 kJ, Wnet,out =540 kJ

Answers

Since ηth > ηCarnot, the engine is irreversible.

A heat engine that operates between two thermal reservoirs with a source of T H​ =2200 K and a sink with T L​ =700 K is reversible if its efficiency is equal to the Carnot efficiency. Otherwise, it is irreversible. If the efficiency is greater than the Carnot efficiency, it is impossible.

For the first case, ηth = 69%, so efficiency is less than the Carnot efficiency, which means that the heat engine is irreversible.

The Carnot efficiency is given by:

ηCarnot = 1 - TL / TH= 1 - 700 K / 2200 K= 0.6818 or 68.18%

Since ηth > ηCarnot, the engine is irreversible.

In the second case, QH = 800 kJ and QL = 200 kJ, so the efficiency is given by:

ηth = W/QH = (QH - QL) / QH = (800 kJ - 200 kJ) / 800 kJ = 0.75 or 75%

Since ηth > ηCarnot, the engine is irreversible.

In the third case, Wnet,out = 300 kJ and QL = 200 kJ, so QH is given by:

Wnet,out = QH - QL300 kJ = QH - 200 kJQH = 500 kJ

The efficiency is given by:ηth = W/QH = 300 kJ / 500 kJ = 0.6 or 60%

Since ηth < ηCarnot, the engine is irreversible.

In the fourth case, QH = 800 kJ and Wnet,out = 540 kJ, so QL is given by:

Wnet,out = QH - QL540 kJ = 800 kJ - QLQL = 260 kJ

The efficiency is given by:ηth = W/QH = 540 kJ / 800 kJ = 0.675 or 67.5%

Since ηth > ηCarnot, the engine is irreversible.

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Which of the following expressions is NOT a valid For calculating the specific net work from the a.) Wnet = (u3−u4)−(u2−u1) b) Wnet = (h3−h4)−(h2​−h1)
​c.) Whet = Cv(T3−T4)−Cv(T2−T1) d) Wnet = Cp(T3−T4)−Cp(T2−T1)
​e.) Wnet = (h3−h2 )+(u3−u4)−(u2−u1) f.) Wnet = (u3−u2)+P2(v3−v2)+(u3−u4 )−(u2−u1) a. All of above b. a & c c. b & d
d. e & f

Answers

The expression that is NOT a valid formula for calculating the specific net work is option d) Wnet = Cp(T3−T4)−Cp(T2−T1).

The specific net work is a measure of the work done per unit mass of a substance. The valid expressions for calculating the specific net work involve changes in either enthalpy (h) or internal energy (u) along with the corresponding temperature changes (T).

Option d) Wnet = Cp(T3−T4)−Cp(T2−T1) is not valid because it uses the heat capacity at constant pressure (Cp) instead of enthalpy. The correct formula would use the change in enthalpy (h) rather than the heat capacity (Cp).

The correct expressions for calculating specific net work are:

a) Wnet = (u3−u4)−(u2−u1), which uses changes in internal energy.

b) Wnet = (h3−h4)−(h2−h1), which uses changes in enthalpy.

c) Whet = Cv(T3−T4)−Cv(T2−T1), which uses specific heat capacity at constant volume (Cv) along with temperature changes.

e) Wnet = (h3−h2)+(u3−u4)−(u2−u1), which combines changes in enthalpy and internal energy.

f) Wnet = (u3−u2)+P2(v3−v2)+(u3−u4)−(u2−u1), which includes changes in internal energy, pressure, and specific volume.

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The expression that is NOT a valid formula for calculating the specific net work is option d) Wnet = Cp(T3−T4)−Cp(T2−T1). The specific net work is a measure of the work done per unit mass of a substance.

The valid expressions for calculating the specific net work involve changes in either enthalpy (h) or internal energy (u) along with the corresponding temperature changes (T).

Option d) Wnet = Cp(T3−T4)−Cp(T2−T1) is not valid because it uses the heat capacity at constant pressure (Cp) instead of enthalpy. The correct formula would use the change in enthalpy (h) rather than the heat capacity (Cp).

The correct expressions for calculating specific net work are:

a) Wnet = (u3−u4)−(u2−u1), which uses changes in internal energy.

b) Wnet = (h3−h4)−(h2−h1), which uses changes in enthalpy.

c) Whet = Cv(T3−T4)−Cv(T2−T1), which uses specific heat capacity at constant volume (Cv) along with temperature changes.

e) Wnet = (h3−h2)+(u3−u4)−(u2−u1), which combines changes in enthalpy and internal energy.

f) Wnet = (u3−u2)+P2(v3−v2)+(u3−u4)−(u2−u1), which includes changes in internal energy, pressure, and specific volume.

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A 4mm thick panel of aluminum alloy (p=2770kg/m³, c-875J/kg K and k=177W/m K) is finished on both sides with an epoxy coating that must be cured at or above T-160°C for at least 3 min. The curing operation is performed in a large oven with air at 200°C and convection coefficient of h=50W/m² K, and the temperature of the oven walls is 200°C, providing an effective radiation coefficient of had-16W/m²K. If the panel is placed in the oven at an initial temperature of 20°C, at what total elapsed time, te, will the cure process be completed?

Answers

To determine the total elapsed time required for the cure process to be completed, we need to consider both convection and radiation heat transfer mechanisms.

The heat transfer equation for the curing process can be written as:

Q = (m * c * ΔT) + (h * A * ΔT) + (σ * ε * A * (T^4 - T_s^4) * Δt)

Where:

Q is the total heat input required for curing,

m is the mass of the aluminum panel,

c is the specific heat capacity of the aluminum panel,

ΔT is the temperature difference between the curing temperature and the initial temperature,

h is the convection coefficient,

A is the surface area of the panel,

σ is the Stefan-Boltzmann constant,

ε is the emissivity of the panel,

T is the curing temperature,

T_s is the temperature of the oven walls,

and Δt is the time interval.

The cure process is considered complete when the total heat input Q reaches a certain threshold, which can be calculated by multiplying the curing temperature by the specific heat capacity and mass of the panel.

Once we have the heat input Q, we can rearrange the equation and solve for the time interval Δt:

Δt = (Q - (m * c * ΔT) - (h * A * ΔT)) / (σ * ε * A * (T^4 - T_s^4))

Substituting the given values into the equation, we can calculate the total elapsed time required for the cure process to be completed.

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Steam enters a turbine at 3 MPa, 450◦C, expands in a reversible adiabatic process, and exhausts at 50 kPa. Changes in kinetic and potential energies between the inlet and the exit of the turbine are small. The power output of the turbine is 800 kW.What is the mass flow rate of steam through the turbine?

Answers

Given data: Pressure of steam entering the turbine = P1 = 3 MPa Temperature of steam entering the turbine = T1 = 450°C Pressure of steam at the exit of the turbine = P2 = 50 kPaPower output of the turbine = W = 800 kW Process: The process is a reversible adiabatic process (isentropic process), i.e., ∆s = 0.

Solution: Mass flow rate of steam through the turbine can be calculated using the following relation:

W = m(h1 - h2)

where, W = power output of the turbine = 800 kW m = mass flow rate of steam h1 = enthalpy of steam entering the turbine h2 = enthalpy of steam at the exit of the turbine Now, enthalpy at state 1 (h1) can be determined from steam tables corresponding to 3 MPa and 450°C:

At P = 3 MPa and T = 450°C: Enthalpy (h1) = 3353.2 kJ/kg

Enthalpy at state 2 (h2) can be determined from steam tables corresponding to 50 kPa and entropy at state 1 (s1)At P = 50 kPa and s1 = s2 (since ∆s = 0): Enthalpy (h2) = 2261.3 kJ/kg Substituting the values in the formula,W = m(h1 - h2)800,000 W = m (3353.2 - 2261.3) kJ/kgm = 101.57 kg/s Therefore, the mass flow rate of steam through the turbine is 101.57 kg/s.

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Water flows through a 15m pipe with 1.3 cm diameter at 20 l/min. Determine the length of entrance region, le? 6. Glycerin flows through a 1.3 cm diameter at 0.5m/s. Determine the length of entrance region, le?

Answers

To determine the length of the entrance region (le) for water and glycerin flowing through pipes, calculate the Reynolds number and use empirical correlations to estimate le based on flow conditions and pipe geometry.

To determine the length of the entrance region, le, for water and glycerin flowing through pipes, we can use the concept of hydrodynamic entrance length. This length is defined as the distance required for the flow to fully develop from an entrance region with non-uniform velocity to a fully developed flow with a uniform velocity profile.

For water flow in a 15m pipe with a diameter of 1.3 cm and a flow rate of 20 l/min, we can calculate the Reynolds number (Re) using the equation:

Re = (density × velocity × diameter) / dynamic viscosity

By substituting the values for water density and dynamic viscosity, we can determine the Reynolds number. The entrance length, le, can then be estimated using empirical correlations or equations specific to the type of flow (e.g., laminar or turbulent).

Similarly, for glycerin flow in a 1.3 cm diameter pipe at a velocity of 0.5 m/s, we can follow the same procedure to calculate the Reynolds number and estimate the entrance length, le.

It's important to note that the determination of entrance length involves empirical correlations and can vary depending on the specific flow conditions and pipe geometry.

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Steam enters the turbine of a simple vapor power plant with a pressure of 60 bar, and a temperature of 500°C, and expands adiabatically to a condenser pressure, p, where it fully condenses to a quality of zero at the condenser exit (x = 0). The isentropic efficiency of both the turbine and the pump is 85%.
1. c) What modifications to the selected cycle can you implement to improve its performance? Show
one example modification along with the calculations of the improved performance.

Answers

The following modifications can be implemented to the selected cycle to improve its performance: Modification 1: Increase the boiler pressure:

This increases the efficiency of the Rankine cycle and allows the system to work on a higher temperature difference which in turn increases the thermal efficiency of the cycle.

The working fluid that has a higher pressure will release more heat to the steam which enters the cycle, allowing the steam to enter the turbine at a higher temperature and thus increase the thermal efficiency of the cycle. To show this modification, let us assume that the boiler pressure is increased to 100 bar, and the condenser pressure remains at 0.05 bar.

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The velocity components of a flow field are given as: u= 2xz v = yz+t w = xy +5 1) Judge the flow is steady or unsteady. 2) Determine the acceleration field of the flow field.

Answers

The acceleration field of the flow field is given by[tex]ax = 0ay = tzaz = 0[/tex] This is the required solution.

Acceleration field of the flow:

Considering u: Acceleration,[tex]au = ∂u/∂t= 0,[/tex] as there is no explicit dependence on t.Judging the flow as steady or unsteady:

For steady flow, the velocity components must not change with respect to time. Here, [tex]∂u/∂t = 0[/tex].

So, the flow is steady for u.Considering v:Acceleration, [tex]av = ∂v/∂t= t[/tex], as there is explicit dependence on t.

Considering w:Acceleration, [tex]aw = ∂w/∂t= 0,[/tex]

as there is no explicit dependence on t.Judging the flow as steady or unsteady:

For steady flow, the velocity components must not change with respect to time.

Here, [tex]∂w/∂t = 0.[/tex] So, the flow is steady for w.T

Therefore, the flow is steady for u and w, and unsteady for v. Acceleration field of the flow is given as follows:

[tex]ax = ∂u/∂t= 0ay = ∂v/∂t= taz = ∂w/∂t= 0[/tex]

The acceleration field of the flow field is given by[tex]ax = 0ay = tzaz = 0[/tex] This is the required solution.

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Surface plates are the most common reference surfaces for use with high pres. Which of the following describes the way they interact? A) Any flatness error in the surface plate is multiplied by the right page B) Negative errors of the surface plate reverse their sign when combined with the height age readings
C) Positive errors of the surface plate revene their sign when combined with the height D) There is no relationship between surface plate and height gages E) The surface plate supports the height gage.

Answers

The Correct option is E.

Surface plates are the most common reference surfaces for use with high precision measuring instruments. The way surface plates interact with these instruments is described below.

The accuracy and reliability of the results obtained from these measuring instruments are highly dependent on the surface plate used. A surface plate, as the name suggests, is a flat plate that serves as a base for accurate measurement. It is a highly precise reference surface, which provides a flat and level surface to measure against.

A height gage is a device used to measure the height of objects. The height gage is supported on the surface plate, and it measures the distance between the surface plate and the object being measured. The surface plate supports the height gage and provides a flat, level, and stable reference surface against which the height of the object can be measured.

The flatness of the surface plate is critical for accuracy. Any flatness error in the surface plate is multiplied by the height gage readings. The surface plate's flatness error must be minimal, and it should be calibrated regularly to ensure it remains within the required tolerance levels. Negative errors of the surface plate reverse their sign when combined with the height gage readings. On the other hand, positive errors of the surface plate revert their sign when combined with the height gage readings. The relationship between the surface plate and the height gages is therefore crucial in ensuring the accuracy and reliability of the measurements.

Therefore, the surface plate is an essential component of high precision measurement instruments, and its flatness and calibration are critical for accurate and reliable results.

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Problem II (20pts) Properties of Signals and their Fourier Series (FS) Expansions A real-valued periodic signal x(t) and its Fourier Series (FS) expansion form are given by a general form, as follows, x(t) = α₀+ [infinity]∑ₙ₌₁ αₙcos nω₀t + bₙ sin nω₀t Here the fundamental angular frequency ω₀=2πf₀, and period of x(t) is T₀ =1/f₀ 1. (5pts) If signal x(t) is an even-function of time, say x(-t) = x(t), simplify its Fourier expansion (the RHS of the given identity)? Provide detailed proof of your claim. 2. (5pts) If we assume that signal x(t) is an odd-function of time, say x(-t) =-x(t). simplify its Fourier expansion (the RHS of the given identity)? Provide detailed proof of your claim 3. (5pts) If we assume that signal x(t) has no DC component, how do you simplify its Fourier expansion (the RHS of the given identity)? Provide detailed proof of your claim. 4. (Spts) Find the Fourier Series expansion of time-shifted signal x(t -T₀)

Answers

The Fourier series of x(t) approaches the Fourier transform of x(t) as T → ∞.

Fourier analysis of signals:

Given a real-valued periodic signal x-(0) = p(tent), with the basic copy contained in x(1) defined as a rectangular pulse, 11. pl) = recte") = 10, te[:12.12), but el-1, +1] Here the parameter T is the period of the signal.

Sketch the basic copy p(!) and the periodic signal x(1) for the choices of T = 4 and T = 8 respectively.

x- (1) for T = 4:x- (1) for T = 8:2.

Find the general expression of the Fourier coefficients (Fourier spectrum) for the periodic signal x-(), i.e. X.4 FSx,(.)) = ?The Fourier coefficients for x(t) are given by:

an = (2 / T) ∫x(t) cos(nω0t) dtbn = (2 / T) ∫x(t) sin(nω0t) dtn = 0, ±1, ±2, …

Here, ω0 = 2π / T = 2πf0 is the fundamental frequency. As the function x(t) is even, bn = 0 for all n.

Therefore, the Fourier series of x(t) is given by:x(t) = a0 / 2 + Σ [an cos(nω0t)]n=1∞wherea0 = (2 / T) ∫x(t) dt3. Sketch the above Fourier spectrum for the choices of T = 4 and T = 8 as a function of S. En. S. respectively, where f, is the fundamental frequency.

The Fourier transform of the basic rectangular pulse p(t) = rect(t / 2) is given by:P(f) = 2 sin(πf) / (πf)4. Using the X found in part-2 to provide a detailed proof on the fact: when we let the period T go to infinity, Fourier Series becomes Fourier Transformx:(t)= x. elzaal T**>x-(1)PS)-ezet df, x,E 0= er where PS45{p(t)} is simply the FT of the basic pulse!By letting the period T go to infinity, the fundamental frequency ω0 = 2π / T goes to zero. Also, as T goes to infinity, the interval over which we sum in the Fourier series becomes infinite, and the sum becomes an integral.

Therefore, the Fourier series of x(t) becomes:

Substituting the Fourier coefficients for an, we get: As T → ∞, the expression in the square brackets approaches the Fourier transform of x(t): Therefore, the Fourier series of x(t) approaches the Fourier transform of x(t) as T → ∞.

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Q.2. Choose the correct answer. 1. A Oh no! The car's run out of petrol. B I told you we a. could 2. A Where's Andy? B I don't know. I'm quite worried. He a. can b. should 3. A Do you know why Jack was late this morning? B Yes. He go the doctor's. a. must b. must have c. had to 4-A I saw Sarah in town today. B You have done. Sarah's in Germany this week. b. mustn't a. shouldn't c. can't 5- A I've bought you some juice. B Oh, you have done. We've already got loads. a. can't b. needn't c. wouldn't have filled up at the last garage! b. must c. should have arrived by now. c. may

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1. A Oh no! The car's run out of petrol. B I told you we couldn't have filled up at the last garage!

2. A Where's Andy? B I don't know. I'm quite worried. He should have arrived by now.

3. A Do you know why Jack was late this morning? B Yes. He must have gone to the doctor's.

4-A I saw Sarah in town today. B You can't have done. Sarah's in Germany this week.

5- A I've bought you some juice. B Oh, you needn't have done.

We've already got loads. Explanation:

1. The correct option is "couldn't have filled up at the last garage!" because if they had, then the car wouldn't have run out of petrol.

2. The correct option is "should have arrived by now" because it means that Andy is late and the speaker is worried.
3. The correct option is "must have gone to the doctor's" because it means that Jack was late because he had an appointment with the doctor.

4. The correct option is "can't have done" because it means that the speaker couldn't have seen Sarah because she was in Germany.

5. The correct option is "needn't have done" because it means that the speaker didn't have to buy juice as they already had enough.

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6) A dead zone of a certain pyrometer is 0.15 % of the span. The calibration is 500 °C to 850 °C. What temperature change might occur before it is detected? [E 2.5]

Answers

The pyrometer has a dead zone of 0.15 percent of the span, and the calibration ranges from 500 degrees Celsius to 850 degrees Celsius. We need to determine the temperature change that can occur before it is detected.

Since the pyrometer has a dead zone of 0.15 percent of the span, this implies that it is unable to detect temperature changes within this range. To calculate the dead zone, we'll use the span, which is the difference between the highest and lowest temperatures that the pyrometer can detect.

So, the span is:850 - 500 = 350 degrees Celsius. Let x be the temperature change that occurs before the pyrometer detects it. Therefore, if we add x to the highest temperature, 850, and subtract x from the lowest temperature, 500, the pyrometer's span will expand by x degrees Celsius.

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Determine the sensitivity of the following thermocouples: (a) chromel Alunel ic) iron constantan ibi copper constantan (d) iron-nickel

Answers

The sensitivity of chromel Alunel is 0.409 mV/°C, the sensitivity of iron constantan is 0.146 mV/°C, the sensitivity of copper constantan is 0.401 mV/°C, and the sensitivity of iron-nickel is 0.053 mV/°C.

Given thermocouples: (a) chromel Alunel, (b) iron constantan, (c) copper constantan, and (d) iron-nickel, we need to determine the sensitivity of these thermocouples. Sensitivity of thermocouples is defined as the change in voltage for unit change in temperature. It is generally expressed in mV/°C.

Sensitivity of thermocouples is given by:

Sensitivity = (E2 - E1) / (T2 - T1),

Where E1 and E2 are the emfs of the thermocouple at temperatures T1 and T2 respectively.

Let us find out the sensitivity of each thermocouple one by one:

(a) chromel Alunel: Temperature range: 0°C to 100°C. The emf of chromel Alunel at 0°C is 0 mV and at 100°C is 40.9 mV.

Sensitivity = (E2 - E1) / (T2 - T1)

Sensitivity = (40.9 mV - 0 mV) / (100°C - 0°C)

Sensitivity = 0.409 mV/°C

(b) iron constantan: Temperature range: -40°C to 350°C. The emf of iron constantan at -40°C is -8.38 mV and at 350°C is 45.28 mV.

Sensitivity = (E2 - E1) / (T2 - T1)

Sensitivity = (45.28 mV - (-8.38 mV)) / (350°C - (-40°C))

Sensitivity = 0.146 mV/°C

(c) copper constantan: Temperature range: 0°C to 100°C. The emf of copper constantan at 0°C is 0 mV and at 100°C is 40.1 mV.

Sensitivity = (E2 - E1) / (T2 - T1)

Sensitivity = (40.1 mV - 0 mV) / (100°C - 0°C)

Sensitivity = 0.401 mV/°C

(d) iron-nickel: Temperature range: -180°C to 1000°C. The emf of iron-nickel at -180°C is -3.03 mV and at 1000°C is 49.54 mV.

Sensitivity = (E2 - E1) / (T2 - T1)

Sensitivity = (49.54 mV - (-3.03 mV)) / (1000°C - (-180°C))

Sensitivity = 0.053 mV/°C

Conclusion: The sensitivity of chromel Alunel is 0.409 mV/°C, the sensitivity of iron constantan is 0.146 mV/°C, the sensitivity of copper constantan is 0.401 mV/°C, and the sensitivity of iron-nickel is 0.053 mV/°C.

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Design or draw the following schematic diagram (each separate) of high or medium voltage single feeder radial circuit with a directional overcurrent protection.
- single line diagram (showing bus,ct,vt cb, isolator sw, earthing sw, lightning arresters, voltmeters, ammeters, energy meters, protection relay)
- three line diagram (same as required in the above single diagram)
-control circuit for earth sw (open, close, indications, interlockings)
-control circuit isolators sw (opne, close, indications, interlockings)

Answers

High or medium voltage single feeder radial circuit with a directional overcurrent protection consists of a few components. These components include bus, current transformer, voltage transformer, circuit breaker, isolator switch, earthing switch, lightning arresters, voltmeters, ammeters, energy meters, protection relay and others.

Single line diagramThe single line diagram for the high or medium voltage single feeder radial circuit with a directional overcurrent protection is shown below:Three line diagramThe three-line diagram for the high or medium voltage single feeder radial circuit with a directional overcurrent protection is shown below:Control circuit for earth sw (open, close, indications, interlockings).

The control circuit for the earth switch that is open, closed, and indicates interlocking is shown below:Control circuit for isolators sw (open, close, indications, interlockings)The control circuit for isolator switches, which are open, closed, and indicate interlocking, is shown below:

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List 4 reasons for using weirs in channels. Q2. (5 Points) Discuss which fitting causes more energy loss in pipes, a Mitre, Elbow, or Large Radius bends (hint Theoretical K).

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Weirs are dams or barriers constructed in open channels to regulate the flow of water. They are used in channels for various reasons, including flow measurement, water control, erosion control, and pollution control.

Here are four reasons why weirs are used in channels:1. Flow measurement: Weirs are commonly used to measure the flow rate of water in channels. By controlling the water level upstream of the weir, the flow rate can be calculated based on the height of the water over the weir.2. Water control: Weirs can be used to control the flow of water in channels. They can be used to maintain a constant water level upstream of the weir or to divert water to different channels.

In terms of energy loss in pipes, the fitting that causes the most energy loss is a Mitre bend. This is because a Mitre bend introduces a significant amount of turbulence into the flow, resulting in a high pressure drop and energy loss. A Large Radius bend is the best fitting in terms of energy loss, as it produces the least amount of turbulence and results in the lowest pressure drop. An Elbow fitting falls somewhere in between, producing more turbulence and energy loss than a Large Radius bend but less than a Mitre bend. The Theoretical K factor is a measure of the pressure drop across a fitting and is used to compare different fittings.

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please describe " Industrial robotics " in 7/8 pages
with 7/8 picture.

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Industrial robotics refers to the application of robotics technology for manufacturing and other industrial purposes.

Industrial robots are designed to perform tasks that would be difficult, dangerous, or impossible for humans to carry out with the same level of precision and consistency. They can perform various operations including welding, painting, packaging, assembly, material handling, and inspection. It is often used in high-volume production processes, where they can operate around the clock, without the need for breaks or rest periods. They can also be programmed to perform complex tasks with a high degree of accuracy and repeatability, resulting in improved quality control and productivity. Some common types of industrial robots include Cartesian robots, SCARA robots, Articulated robots, Collaborative robots, and Mobile robots.

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Write a handwritten report (5-10 pages) about the underground transmission line. (Deadline for Hard- copy is 29/05/2022)

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Underground transmission lines are cables that carry electricity or data and are installed under the ground.

What is  underground transmission line?

Big pipes that transport natural gas are called transmission lines. When they're buried underground, they're called underground transmission lines to tell them apart from the ones that are overhead. Putting cables underground has good things and bad things compared to putting them on really big towers.

Putting cables under the ground is more expensive, and fixing them if they break can take a lot of time. But cables that are buried under the ground are not affected by extreme weather conditions like hurricanes and very cold weather. It is harder for people to damage or steal cables that are under the ground.

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According to Healthy People 2023 what are the socialdetermination of health? and explain. Approximately how many plants need to be represented in exsitu collections in order to presene representatives the genetic diversity of that species? 1-3 plants 10-30 plants 100-300 plants 1000-3000 plants In humans, sickle-cell anaemia is inherited as a Mendelian monogenic recessive trait. A woman whose sister has sickle-cell anaemia intends to have a child with a man whose grandmother had sickle-cell anaemia. What is the probability of them having a child affected by sickle-cell anaemia?note - i dont think the answer is 25% give the correct answer Regarding quasi-one -dimensional flow, which statement is TRUE? The pressure remains constant throughout the flow. The momentum equation is the same for one-dimensional flow and quasi-one dimensional flow. The flow variables vary in one direction through the flow. Total enthalpy varies directly with the area of the flow. Recall the system of Example 1.7.3 for the vertical suspension system of a car modeled by 1361 kg.k mix(1) + ci(t) + kx(t) = 0, with m = = 2.668 x 10 N/m, and c = 3.81 x 10 kg/s subject to the initial conditions of x(0) = 0 and v(0) = 0.01 m/s. Solve this and plot the solution using numerical integration Explain why enzymatic hydrolysis of cellulose is more difficultthan enzymatic hydrolysis of amylose Consider a monopropellant rocket designed to generate a thrust of 100000 N for 30 s. The specific impulse is 200 s, and the chamber pressure is 3 MPa. The specific gravity of the monopropellant is 1.008. A pressurized gas system (at initial pressure of 10 MPa and initial temperature of 300 K) with helium (molar mass 4, specific heat ratio 1.67) is used for the propellant feed. What is the minimum volume of the gas tank required for the adiabatic expansion of the HPG? What is the corresponding mass of the pressuring gas? {Ans.: 1.086 m3, 17.42 kg. To calculate these values, you first must find the volume of the propellant expelled. This comes to 1.517 m3.} The tire of a vehicle is inflated with nitrogen gas to a pressure of 300 kPa. The tire has a volume of 0.44 m3 . The temperature of the air inside the tire is 680K. A puncture in the tire develops and all of the nitrogen escapes until the tire has no mass inside (the moon has negligible atmosphere). Assume that the ideal gas law applies, and that there are negligible changes in KE or PE for the system. What is the temperature of the nitrogen exiting the tire? a) Given the equation below: i. Show the simplified Boolean equation below by using the K-Map technique. (C3, CLO3) ii. Sketch the simplified circuit-based result in (ai) (C3,CLO3) b) Given the equation below: i. Show the simplify the logic expression z=ABC+ + ABC by using the Boolean Algebra technique. ii. Sketch the simplified circuit-based result in (bi) (C3, CLO3) 1. Which of the following processes take place in the cytoplasm? (Select all that applies)O Electron Transport ChainO PH mechanismO GlycolysisO FA synthesisO Krebs CycleO Beta oxidation2. Metabolic processes that generate NADH are: (Select all that apply).O Beta oxidationO Fatty Acid SynthesisO GlycolysisO PDHO Electron Transport ChainO Krebs Cycle0 Gluconeogenesis Use the derived transfer function to model the system and plotthe step response for the system by Matlab or Simulink.Transfer function: (cs+k)/(ms+cs+k) Member AB has the angular motions shown. Suppose that w = 4.5 rad/s and a = 6.5 rad/s . (Figure 1) Figure 1 of 1 . 2 m a 0.5 m X Determine the velocity of the slider block C at this instant. the full answer.2. Two metal objects are embedded in weakly conducting material of con- ductivity o. Use Ohm's law and calculate the potential V = |61 62| = = IR. Show that the resistance between the metal object A ward of a hospital was full with patients. Two patients were in the same room. The thermometer was used for one patient then it was washed with liquid soap and then water then was used for the second patient. The coverings of bed were boiled. The doctor and nurses cleaned their hands with hygiene (containing 70% alcohol). Discuss all the mentioned actions? An axial compression tied column with b = 50 cm and h=60 cm, reinforced with 100 25 mm. Assume f. = 28 MPa and f = 420 MPa. Area of 10 25 mm = 491 mm. The nominal capacity (axial compression : strength) P. of the column is a. 10916.24 KN O b. 7023.14 kN O c. 6114.31 KN O d. 9085.34 KN O For concrete in tension, the stress-strain diagram is linear elastic until fs or f. Select one: True False Explain why work hardenable aluminium alloys cannot be age-hardened because the precipitation hardening reaction does not occur. To maintain strength, what might be another reason why aluminium alloys can't be work hardened? (Think about dislocations.) 4. In which quadrant of a coordinate graph will the point (4,2) be found?: * A) Quadrant I B) Quadrant II C) Quadrant III D) Quadrant IV 5. How many edges, faces, and vertices, respectively, does a triangular pyramid have? : * A) 4, 6,8 B) 3,3,5 C) 7,4,5 D) 6,4,4 6. Complete the sequence below. 2,5,11,23 A) 38,57,78 B) 47,95,191 C) 35,41,53 D) 45,57,69 Consider combustion of an n-Octane (C8H8) droplet when its diameter is 140 m. Determine: a) The mass burning rate b) The flame temperature c) The ratio of the flame radius to the droplet radius for P = 1 atm and T. = 298 K. d) The droplet life time e) If the process is pure vaporization (no flame), deternine the droplet life time and compare the result with point d. Which has less kinetic energy, a car traveling at 45 km/h or a half-as-massive car traveling at 90 km/h? A.The 90 km/h car has less kinetic energy B.Both have the same kinetic energy C.The 45 km/h car has less kinetic energy "please Explain and write your explanation clearly and properly.Today, individual giant pandas and populations of giant pandas are being isolated in many small reserves in China. a) What are the genetic implications of having somany small reserves rather than one large reserve?b). What could be done to encourage gene flow? "