Answer:
the maximum depreciation expense for year 4 = $2,498
Explanation:
depreciation per year using MACRS 7 year class, half year convention
year depreciation % purchase cost total depreciation
1 14.29% $20,000 $2,858
2 24.49% $20,000 $4,898
3 17.49% $20,000 $3,498
4 12.49% $20,000 $2,498
5 8.93% $20,000 $1,786
6 8.92% $20,000 $1,784
7 8.93% $20,000 $1,786
8 4.46% $20,000 $892
Suppose the money supply (as measured by checkable deposits) is currently $850 billion. The required reserve ratio is 20%. Banks hold $170 billion in reserves, so there are no excess reserves. The Federal Reserve ("the Fed") wants to decrease the money supply by $42.5 billion, to $807.5 billion. It could do this through open-market operations or by changing the required reserve ratio. Assume for this question that you can use the simple money multiplier.
1. If the Fed wants to decrease the money supply using open-market operations, it should (buy / sell)$_____billion worth of U.S. government bonds.
2. If the Fed wants to decrease the money supply by adjusting the required reserve ratio, it should_______the required reserve ratio.
Suppose that the risk-free rates in the United States and in the United Kingdom are 4% and 6%, respectively. The spot exchange rate between the dollar and the pound is $1.60/BP. What should the futures price of the pound for a one-year contract be to prevent arbitrage opportunities, ignoring transactions costs
Answer:
The futures price of the pound for a one-year contract be to prevent arbitrage opportunities would be $1.63/BP.
Explanation:
In order to calculate the the futures price of the pound for a one-year contract be to prevent arbitrage opportunities we would have to make the following calculation:
futures price of the pound for a one-year contract=Spot rate*(1+United Kingdom risk free rate)/(1+United States risk free rate)
futures price of the pound for a one-year contract=$1.60/BP*(1+6%)/(1+4%)
futures price of the pound for a one-year contract=$1.63/BP
The futures price of the pound for a one-year contract be to prevent arbitrage opportunities would be $1.63/BP.
Telecom Company is preparing its annual budgeted income statement. What is the best place to locate the amount of interest expense for the year
Answer: d. Cash Budget
Explanation:
The Cash budget is used to project the company's expected position in terms of the cash it holds in the future. As such, the budget contains both cash receipts and cash disbursements.
Some of the disbursements include expenses and loan payments. The loan payments are where the interest expense will be found for the coming year.
Suppose an individual makes an initial investment of $2,000 in an account that earns 8.4%, compounded monthly, and makes additional contributions of $100 at the end of each month for a period of 12 years. After these 12 years, this individual wants to make withdrawals at the end of each month for the next 5 years (so that the account balance will be reduced to $0).A) How much is in the account after the last deposit is made? B) How much was deposited? C) What is the amount of each withdrawal? D) What is the total amount withdrawn?
Suppose for every dollar change in household wealth, consumption expenditures change by $0.05. If real household wealth declines by $45 billion, potential GDP is $120 billion, and the multiplier effect for the first year after an expenditure shock is 1.4, what is the total change in output relative to potential for the first year? A. minus 1.63% B. minus 2.63% C. minus 2.8% D. minus 7.0%
Answer:
B. Minus 2.63%
Explanation:
Increase in consumption = Change in consumption × Household wealth
= $0.05 × $45billion
= $2.25billion
Total output = Potential GDP ÷ Multiplier effect
= $120 billion ÷ 1.4
= $85.71
Total change in output = Increase in consumption ÷ Total output
= $2.25 ÷ $85.71
= $0.0263 or 2.63%
What is google pay level? How do you define and measure its pay level?
Answer: Google pay level involves the total compensation for its employees.
Hope it helps.
Explanation:
Net income for the year was $45,500. Accounts receivable increased $5,500, and accounts payable increased by $11,200. Under the indirect method, the cash flow from operations is a.$62,200 b.$45,500 c.$28,800 d.$51,200
Answer:
d.$51,200
Explanation:
Calculation for the cash flow from operations Under the indirect method
Using this formula
Cash flow=Net income + Increased in accounts payable increased- Increased in Accounts receivable
Let plug in the formula
Cash flow =$45,500+$11,200-$5,500
Cash flow =$51,200
Therefore the cash flow from operations Under the indirect method will be $51,200
Ladders, Inc. has a net profit margin of 5.5 % on sales of $ 48.5 million. It has book value of equity of $ 41.8 million and total book liabilities of $ 28.2 million. What is Ladders' ROE? ROA? Note: Assume the value of Interest Expense is equal to zero.
Answer:
ROE= 0.063816 = 6.38%
ROA = 0.038107 = 3.81%
Explanation:
ROE = NET income / total equity
ROA = net income / average total asset
Net Profit margin = net income/ revenue
Equity = assets - liabilities
0.055 = net income/ $ 48.5 million
Net income = $2.6675 million
Assets = $ 41.8 million + $ 28.2 million = $70 million
ROE = $2.6675 million / $ 41.8 million = 0.063816
ROA = $2.6675 million / $70 = 0.038107
I hope my answer helps you
Recording Factory Labor Costs A summary of the time tickets for January is as follows: Job No 3467 3470 3471 Amount Job No.Amount 3478 3480 3497 3501 $6,829 3,438 11,273 21,352 $9,106 9,891 12,638 17,474 Indirect labor
a. Determine the amounts of factory labor costs transferred to Work in Process and Factory Overhead for January
b. Illustrate the effect on the accounts and financial statements of the factory labor costs transferred in.
Answer:
Work in process = $70649
Factory overhead = 21,352
Explanation:
A.
Factory labor cost transferred to Work in process is the sum of all direct labor cost incurred
Factory labor cost transferred to Factory Overhead is the sum of all indirect labor cost incurred
Work in Process = $6,829 + $3,438 + $11,273 + $9,106 + $9,891 + $12,638 + $17,474
Work in process = $70649
Factory overhead = 21,352
B.
Balance sheet
Assets = liabilities + Capital
$70649 + $21,352 = 92,001 No Effect
Statement of cashflow = No Effect
Income statement = No Effect
Gross profit margin (Gross profit/Sales) is an important determinant of NOPAT. Identify two factors that can cause gross profit margin to decline. Is a reduction in the gross profit margin always bad news
Answer:
Please find the detailed answer in the explanation section.
Explanation:
Gross profit margins can decline because:
1. When the industry becomes more competitive and/or the company's products have lost their competitive advantage so that the company will have to reduce prices inorder to sell more.
2. Product costs have increased. These are the cost to produce goods and services. Examples are direct labour, direct materials etc. Gross profit will decline if these increases
Declining gross profit margins are usually viewed negatively i.e the reduction in the gross profit margin is always a bad news for a company.
What causes gross profit margin to decline? - when the competition in the industry is high and the company is losing the competition in the market.
True or False? Financial instruments can be grouped by time to maturity (money vs. capital) or type of obligation (stock, bond, derivative).
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Financial Instruments are agreements pertaining to the exchange of money between parties. The financial instruments could be in the form of cash or the right bound by contractual laws to receive or deliver items with monetary value. Shares, bonds, loans, and derivatives like futures and forwards are other examples of financial instruments. These financial derivates are securities whose prices are hinged on underlying assets like bonds, stocks, commodities, and currencies. Cash instruments, on the other hand, have their prices determined mainly by the market fluctuations.
Classification of financial instruments could be based on the asset or debt classes. The debt classification could also be broken down as being long or short term. So, the grouping by time to maturity (money vs. capital) or type of obligation (stock, bond, derivative) is a system of classifying financial instruments.
On January 1, 2021, The Barrett Company purchased merchandise from a supplier. Payment was a noninterest-bearing note requiring five annual payments of $38,000 on each December 31 beginning on December 31, 2021, and a lump-sum payment of $280,000 on December 31, 2025. A 10% interest rate properly reflects the time value of money in this situation. ((FV of $1, PV of $1, FVA of $1, PVA of $1, FVAD of $1 and PVAD of $1) (Use appropriate factor(s) from the tables provided.) Required: Calculate the amount at which Barrett should record the note payable and corresponding merchandise purchased on January 1, 2021.
Answer:
The Barrett Company
Amount to record the note payable and merchandise purchase on January 1, 2021:
= $294,340
Explanation:
a) Calculation of Present Value of Future Cash Outflows by January 1, 2021:
1. Dec. 31, 2024, present value of $38,000 annuity for 4 years = $38,000 x 3.170 = $120,460
2. Dec. 31, 2025, present value of $280,000 for 5 years = $280,000 x 0.621 = $173,880
Total payment = $294,340 ($120,460 + 173,880)
b) The present value of $38,000 as an annuity lasting 4 years is calculated using the annuity factor of 3.170 at 10% interest rate.
c) The present value of $280,000 after 5 years is calculated using the discount factor of 0.621 at 10% interest rate.
d) These produce a value when added that gives the amount at which the note payable and corresponding merchandise purchased on January 1, 2021 by the Barrett Company should be recorded.
Using the following information please prepare a schedule of cost of goods sold and calculate the value of ending inventory and cost of goods of sold included in the Schedule of Cost of Goods Sold for the year ended December 31, 2019, Using FIFO, First In First Out The total Inventory valuation using FIFO on December 31, 2018 was 2,000 units at a cost of $10 per unit. On June 30, 2019 the company purchased 5,000 units at cost of $20 per unit. On September 30, 2019 the company purchased 3,000 units at a cost of $30 per unit. On December 1, 2019 the company sold 6,000 units.
Answer:
Ending inventory= $110,000
COGS= $100,000
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Beginning inventory=2,000 units for $10 per unit.
Purchases:
June 30, 2019= 5,000 units at cost of $20 per unit.
September 30, 2019= 3,000 units for $30 per unit.
On December 1, 2019 the company sold 6,000 units.
Using the FIFO (first-in; first-out) inventory method, the value of ending inventory is calculated using the cost of the last units incorporated into inventory.
Ending inventory in units= 10,000 - 6,000= 4,000
Ending inventory= 3,000*30 + 1,000*20= $110,000
COGS= 2,000*10 + 4,000*20= $100,000
Below are transactions for Wolverine Company during 2021.On December 1, 2021, Wolverine receives $4,000 cash from a company that is renting office space from Wolverine. The payment, representing rent for December and January, is credited to Deferred Revenue.Wolverine purchases a one-year property insurance policy on July 1, 2021, for $13,200. The payment is debited to Prepaid Insurance for the entire amount.Employee salaries of $3,000 for the month of December will be paid in early January 2022.On November 1, 2021, the company borrows $15,000 from a bank. The loan requires principal and interest at 10% to be paid on October 30, 2022.Office supplies at the beginning of 2021 total $1,000. On August 15, Wolverine purchases an additional $3,400 of office supplies, debiting the Supplies account. By the end of the year, $500 of office supplies remains.Required:Record the necessary adjusting entries at December 31, 2021, for Wolverine Company. You do not need to record transactions made during the year. Assume that no financial statements were prepared during the year and no adjusting entries were recorded. (If no entry is required for a particular transaction/event, select "No Journal Entry Required" in the first account field. Do not round intermediate calculations.)
Answer: Please see explanation column for answers
Explanation:
Journal for December 2021
A)To record advance in rent from customers
Date Account. Debit Credit
Dec 31 Deferred
Revenue. $2,000
Rent Revenue. $2,000
Reason--->The rent is paid for 2 months in advance ie January and December, but since the adjusting entry is for only December, we will divide .$4000 / 2=
$2,000 as Rent revenue earned.
B) To record Insurance expense
Date Account. Debit Credit
Dec 31 Insurance
Expense. $6,600
Prepaid insurance $6,600
Reason-- The company paid in advance but we consider only from July to December which is 6months as we are only preparing entry for December
Insurance Expense =13,200x 6/12=
$6600
C) To record accrued Salary
Date Account. Debit Credit
Dec 31 Salary
Expense. $3000
Salary payable $3,000
But will be paid next year.
D) To record accrued interest on loan borriwed
Date Account. Debit Credit
Dec 31 Interest
Expense. $250
Interest payable $250
Calculation
Interest =PxRxT=15,000 X 10%x 2/12=$250
Accrued interest from date of loan which is November to December the date of journal entry will be considered
E)To record supply expense for the year
Date Account. Debit Credit
Dec 31 Supply
Expense. $3,900
Supply $3,900
Calculation=
Supply expense=Supply at the onset +purchased supply - used supply.
1000 +3400 -500=$3,900
"Ortega Company manufactures computer hard drives. The market for hard drives is very competitive. The current market price for a computer hard drive is $59. Ortega would like a profit of $5 per drive. What target cost Ortega should set to accomplish this objective
Answer:
$54
Explanation:
Relevant data provided as per the question is shown below:
Market price = $59
Required profit = $5
According to the given situation, The computation of target cost is shown below:-
Target Cost = Market price - Required Profit
= $59 - $5
= $54
Therefore for computing the target cost we simply applied the above formula.
You are considering two mutually exclusive projects. Both projects have an initial cost of $52,000. Project A produces cash inflows of $25,300, $37100, and $22,000 for years 1 through 3, respectively. Project B produces cash inflows of $43,600, $19,800 and $10,400 for years 1 through 3, respectively. The required rate of return is 14.2 percent for Project A and 13.9 percent for Project B. Which project should you accept and why? a) Project A because it has the higher required rate of return b) Project A because it has the larger NPV c) Project 8, because it has the largest cash inflow in year 1. d) Project B; because it has the lower required rate of return
Answer:
b) Project A because it has the larger NPV
Explanation:
Net present value is the present value of after tax cash flows from an investment less the amount invested.
NPV can be calculated using a financial calculator
Project A
Cash flow in year 0 = $-52,000
Cash flow in year 1= $25,300,
Cash flow in year 2 = $37100
Cash flow in year 3= $22,000
I = 14.2
NPV = $13,372.95
Project B
Cash flow in year 0 = $-52,000
Cash flow in year 1= $43,600
Cash flow in year 2 =, $19,800
Cash flow in year 3= $10,400
I = 13.9
NPV = $8,579.62
The NPV of project A is larger than that of project B, so, project A is more suitable
Patricia Nall was approved for a $3,000, two-year, 11 percent loan with the finance charges figured using the discount method. How much cash will Patricia receive from this loan?
Answer:
$2,340
Explanation:
The computation of cash received from this loan is shown below:-
cash received from this loan = Approved amount - (Approved amount × Two year × Percentage of loan )
= Approved amount - ($3,000 × 2 × 11% )
= $3,000 - ($3,000 × 2 × 0.11 )
= $3,000 - $660
= $2,340
Therefore, for computing the cash will Patricia receive from this loan we simply applied the above formula.
For each of the following, compute the present value (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your final answers to 2 decimal places. (e.g., 32.16)): Present Value Years Interest Rate Future value $ 13 7 % $ 15,451 4 13 51,557 29 14 886,073 40 9 550,164
Answer:
To calculate these values, we use the present value formula:
FV = PV (1 + i)^n
Where:
FV = Future ValuePV = Present Valuei = interest raten = number of compounding periods (years in this case)Present value #1
15,451 = PV (1 + 0.07)^13
15,451 = PV (2.41)
15,451 / 2.41 = 6,411
Present value #2
51,557 = PV (1 + 0.13)^4
51,557 = PV (1.63)
51,557 / 1.63 = 33,471
Present value #3
886,073 = PV (1 + 0.14)^29
886,073 = PV (44.69)
886,073 / 44.69 = 19,827
Present value #4
550,164 = PV (1 + 0.09)^40
550,164 = PV (31.41)
550,164 / 31.41 = 17,516
Cullumber Company sells office equipment on July 31, 2022, for $20,260 cash. The office equipment originally cost $72,300 and as of January 1, 2022, had accumulated depreciation of $35,000. Depreciation for the first 7 months of 2022 is $4,290.Required:Prepare the journal entries to: a. Update depreciation to July 31, 2022. b. Record the sale of the equipment.
Answer:
a.
July 31, 2022
Depreciation expense $4290 Dr
Accumulated depreciation - Equipment $4290 Cr
b.
July 31. 2022
Cash $20260 Dr
Accumulated depreciation-Equipment $39290 Dr
Loss on disposal $12750 Dr
Equipment $72300 Cr
Explanation:
a.
The entry would be to charge depreciation expense for the first six months of equipment and to do so, we debit the depreciation expense account and credit the accumulated depreciation account.
b.
We first need to determine the net book value of the asset on the day of sale and then calculate the gain or loss on disposal.
Net Book Value or NBV = Cost - Accumulated depreciation
Accumulated depreciation = 35000 + 4290 = 39290
NBV = 72300 - 39290 = $33010
Loss on disposal = 20260 - 33010 = - $12750 loss
In a perfectly competitive market, the long-run market supply curve tends to be horizontal or nearly so. What is another way to state this fact
Answer:
Market supply is much more elastic in the long run than the short run.
Explanation:
Here are the options to this question :
In the long run, average total cost is minimized
Market supply is much less elastic in the long run than the short run.
In the long run, price equals marginal cost.
Market supply is much more elastic in the long run than the short run.
A perfect competition is characterised by many buyers and sellers of homogeneous goods and services. Market prices are set by the forces of demand and supply. There are no barriers to entry or exit of firms into the industry.
In the long run, firms earn zero economic profit. If in the short run firms are earning economic profit, in the long run firms would enter into the industry. This would drive economic profit to zero.
Also, if in the short run, firms are earning economic loss, in the long run, firms would exit the industry until economic profit falls to zero.
When the supply curve is horizontal or nearly so, it means that supply is highly elastic. a small change in price would greatly affect the quantity supplied.
DeKay Dental Supplies issued $10,000 of bonds on January 1, 2018. The bonds pay interest semiannually. This is a partial bond amortization schedule for the bonds Effective Decrease in Outstanding Payment Cash interest balance 400 400 400 400 409 409 409 410 balance 9,080 9,089 9,098 9,107 9,117 10 What is the stated annual rate of interest on the bonds?
a) 4.5%.
b) 9.0%.
c) 40%.
d) 80%.
Answer: d. 8.0%
Explanation:
The Stated Annual Rate of Interest on a bond refers to the coupon rate which is the amount that the company promises to pay on the bond pay period.
Looking at the question, the company is paying $400 every 6 months on the $10,000 bonds . The interest therefore is;
= 400/10,000
= 4%
Company pays 4% on the bonds every 6 months.
This 4% should be stated in annual terms so;
= 4% * 2
= 8%.
Your company manufactures widgets. The fixed cost incurred (independent of the number of widgets produced) each year is $80,000. The variable cost per widget is $0.25. The sale price of each widget is $1.00. The price and the costs are expected to remain unchanged over time. In year 1, the company expects to sell 100,000 widgets. It expects its sales to increase at the rate of 4% a year forever. The discount rate is 10%. Ignore taxes. What is the value of this company
Answer:
$450,000
Explanation:
Since the cash flows from the first 2 years are negative, we cannot calculate a negative terminal value. But we can calculate the present value of the total contribution margin and the fixed costs separately and the find the difference between them.
contribution margin = $100,000 - $25,000 = $75,000
growth rate = 4%
discount rate = 10%
the present value of contribution margin = $75,000 / (10% - 4%) = $1,250,000
now we calculate the present value of fixed costs = $80,000 / 10% = $800,000
the company's value = $1,250,000 - $800,000 = $450,000
An ad for Maybelline age-minimizing makeup in Ladies' Home Journal magazine featured actress Melina Kanakaredes and offered readers a $1-off coupon when they tried the new makeup. In the context of the communication model, measuring which of the following would be the best way for the source to measure feedback?A) the number of subscribers to Ladies' Home Journal
B) the number of people who make up the target market
C) the number of people who redeem the coupon
D) the number of people who have purchased Maybelline products in the past
E) the number of people to whom Melina Kanakaredes is an appealing spokesperson
Answer: C) the number of people who redeem the coupon.
Explanation:
The coupon was for people who tried the makeup if they saw the ad. To measure how many people tried the new makeup then based on the ad it would be best to use the number of people who redeemed that coupon when purchasing because it would mean that those people saw the ad and decided to act on it especially if the ad contained an actual physical coupon or a digital coupon that can only be used once. This way Maybelline will know for a fact that those using the coupons saw the ad.
First National Bank charges 13.5 percent compounded monthly on its business loans. First United Bank charges 13.8 percent compounded semiannually. Calculate the EAR for First National Bank and First United Bank. (Do not round intermediate calculations and enter your answers as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)
Answer: 14.28%
Explanation:
Effective Annual Rate is the rate that takes the periodic rates and converts it to an annual rate if compounding the periodic rate was taken into account.
The formula is;
EAR = (1 + r/m)^m - 1
Where;
r is the Annual nominal rate of interest and,
m is Number of compounding periods in a year
EAR = ( 1 + 13.8/2)² - 1
= 1.142761 - 1
= 0.142761
= 14.28%
"The nature and purpose of the public sector result in a unique organizational characteristics". Discuss
The correct answer to this open question is the following.
Although the question is incomplete because it does not provide the location, country, or any other further reference, we can say the following.
The nature and purpose of the public sector result in unique organizational characteristics, basically in the formation of bureaucracies that are a form of governmental and administrative organizations with many employees and hierarchies that more that improve management and operations, complicate it and make it slow due to the fact that the number of people working is numerous.
Experts say that this is not the more efficient and effective form of managing governmental offices. On the contrary, it is slow and inefficient.
Which senior managers may assume a greater deal of transferability between domestic and international HRM practices?
Answer: d. All of the Above
Explanation:
All the above senior managers are more likely to apply more Domestic HRM practices to make them International HRM practices when they are put into a situation where International practices will be needed.
This is because they have been with the Domestic companies for much of their time and so know more about Domestic practices than international.
The first options refers to senior managers in firms with large domestic markets. To be a senior manager demands experience in the market they are in so it is not far fetched to say that they are more knowledgeable in domestic practices than international.
The second option speaks of managers with little International experience meaning they are more likely to engage in transferability between domestic and International practices.
The third option speaks of managers who built their careers on domestic experience. They will find it hard letting go of what has brought them such success so will more likely apply domestic practices on an international scale.
Bailand Company purchased a building for $286,000 that had an estimated residual value of $6,000 and an estimated service life of 10 years. Bailand purchased the building 4 years ago and has used straight-line depreciation. At the beginning of the fifth year (before it records depreciation expense for the year), the following independent situations occur:
1. Bailand estimates that the asset has 8 years’ life remaining (for a total of 12 years).
2. Bailand changes to the sum-of-the-years’-digits method.
3. Bailand discovers that the estimated residual value has been ignored in the computation of depreciation expense.
Required: For each of the independent situations, prepare all the journal entries relating to the building for the fifth year. Ignore income taxes.
Answer:
Bailand Company
Journal Entries:
1. Re-estimated useful life to 8 years (12 in total):
Debit Depreciation Expense $21,000
Credit Accumulated Depreciation $21,000
To record depreciation expense for the year.
2. Sum of the digit method:
Debit Depreciation Expense $37,333
Credit Accumulated Depreciation $37,333
To record depreciation expense for the year.
3. Bailand discovers that the estimated residual value had been ignored:
Debit Depreciation Expense $27,600
Credit Accumulated Depreciation $27,600
To record depreciation expense for the year.
Explanation:
A) Calculations:
Building $286,000
Residual value = $6,000
Depreciable amount = $280,000 ($286,000 = 6,000)
Straight-line Depreciation per year = $28,000 ($280,000/10)
Accumulated Depreciation after 4 years = $112,000 ($28,000 x 4)
Book value after 4 years = $174,000
Independent situations:
1. Bailand estimates that the asset has 8 years’ life remaining (for a total of 12 years).
Book Value = $174,000
Residual value = $6,000
Depreciable amount = $168,000
Remaining Lifespan = 8 years
Depreciation expense each year = $21,000
2. Bailand changes to the sum-of-the-years’-digits method.
8/36 x $168,000 = $37,333 for fifth year.
7/36 x $168,000 for the sixth year
6/36 x $168,000 for the seventh year, and so forth
B) The Sum-of-the-years'-digits (SYD) is an accelerated method for calculating an asset's depreciation. For each year, there is a digit reflecting the number of years remaining. This digit is then divided by this sum of the years to determine the percentage by which the asset should be depreciated each year, starting with the highest number in the first year of application.
3. Bailand discovers that the estimated residual value has been ignored in the computation of depreciation expense.
Determination of annual depreciation expenses:
Depreciable amount = $286,000
Depreciation expense per year = $28,600 ($286,000/10)
After four years, Accumulated Depreciation = $114,400 ($28,600 x4)
Book Value = $171,600 ($286,000 - 114,000)
less salvage value $6,000
Depreciable amount = $165,600
Depreciation expense each year = $27,600 ($165,600 / 6)
"As stated in the flow of funds found in a revenue bond issue's trust indenture, before the revenues collected are applied to the operations and maintenance fund, revenues are placed in the:"
Answer: revenue fund
Explanation:
The flow of funds simply means utilization of revenues by the issuer. When revenues are collected, the revenues will be deposited at first to a revenue fund.
After then, the revenue will then be applied to the operations and maintenance fund and other necessary funding. Most times, the revenue kept in the revenue fund are used to carry out specific project.
1) In the previous problem, suppose Ferguson has announced it is going to repurchase $15,600 worth of stock. What effect will this transaction have on the equity of the firm? How many shares will be outstanding? What will the price per share be after the repurchase? Ignoring tax effects, show how the share repurchase is effectively the same as a cash dividend.
Answer:
1. Equity reduces to $372,300
2. 11,517 shares
3. $32.33
Explanation:
1. Effect on Equity
The company will use $15,600 cash to buy the equivalent amount of shares.
Cash Balance will reduce by;
= 52,900 - 15,600
= $37,300
Equity will reduce by the amount of stock repurchased;
= 387,900 - 15,600
= $372,300
2. Shares Outstanding
Current Stock Price = [tex]\frac{Equity Value}{Number of shares outstanding}[/tex]
= 387,900/12,000
= $32.33
Number of shares repurchased = 15,600/32.33
= 483 shares
New Shares Outstanding = 12,000 shares - 483 shares
= 11,517 shares
3. Price per share after repurchase
= [tex]\frac{New Equity Value}{New Number of shares outstanding}[/tex]
= 372,300 / 11,517
= $32.33
4. Dividends declared reduces the equity value.
= 32.33 - 1.30
= $31.03
The share repurchase is the same as the cash dividend because the stock price after the repurchase is the same as the stock price if dividends are declared less the cash dividends.
Janelle Heinke, the owner of Ha'Peppas!, is considering a new oven in which to bake the firm's signature dish, vegetarian pizza. Oven type A can handle 20 pizzas an hour. The fixed costs associated with oven A are $20,000 and the variable costs are $2.00 per pizza. Oven B is larger and can handle 40 pizzas an hour. The fixed costs associated with oven B are $30,000 and the variable costs are $1.25 per pizza. The pizzas sell for $14 each.
a) What is the break-even point for each oven?
b) If the owner expects to sell 9,000 pizzas, which oven should she purchase?
c) If the owner expects to sell 12,000 pizzas, which oven should she purchase?
d) At what volume should Janelle switch ovens?
Answer:
a) Oven A = 1,667; Oven B = 2,353 pizzas.
b) Oven A
c) Oven A
d) 13,334 pizzas
Explanation:
Since nothing was mentioned regarding her time availability, the capacity of each oven will not be taken into account.
The income equation for ovens A and B, respectively, are:
[tex]A=(14-2)x-20,000\\B=(14-1.25)x-30,000[/tex]
Where 'x' is the number of pizzas sold.
a) The break-even occurs when income is zero:
[tex]A=0=(14-2)x-20,000\\x_A=1,666.66\\B=(14-1.25)x-30,000\\x_B=2,352.94[/tex]
Rounding up to the next whole pizza, the break-even for oven A is 1,667 pizzas and for oven B it is 2,353 pizzas.
b) For x = 9,000:
[tex]A=(14-2)*9,000-20,000\\A=\$88,000\\B=(14-1.25)*9,000-30,000\\B=\$84,750[/tex]
Income is greater with oven A, so Janelle should use oven A.
c) For x = 12,000
[tex]A=(14-2)*12,000-20,000\\A=\$124,000\\B=(14-1.25)*12,000-30,000\\B=\$123,000[/tex]
Income is greater with oven A, so Janelle should use oven A.
d) She should switch ovens at the value for 'x' that causes B to be greater than A:
[tex]A<B\\(14-2)*x-20,000<(14-1.25)*x-30,000\\10,000<0.75x\\x>13,333.33[/tex]
Rounding up to the next whole pizza, she should switch ovens at a volume of 13,334 pizzas.