select all the correct answers. looking at the phylogenetic tree, which three statements can you make about the interconnectedness of the species a, b, c, d, and e? species a and c may have shared features from a common ancestor. species c is more related to species d than species d is related to species e. species b and c are more closely related than species c and d. species b and e may have shared features from a common ancestor. species a is more related to species b than species b is related to species c.

Answers

Answer 1

The correct answer is  Species A and C may have shared feature.

What is Phylogenetic tree?

It is described as a diagrammatic portrayal of the relationships between living things in terms of evolution. This schematic illustration shows how several species developed from a number of shared ancestors.

The two-dimensional graph that depicts the evolutionary link between an organism and several other organisms is known as a phylogenetic tree.

The "Tree of Life" or "Dendrogram" are other names for the evolutionary tree. An old theory of a ladder-like evolution from weak to strong forms of life gave rise to the concept of a phylogenetic tree. The word "phylogeny" or "phylogenetic," which refers to race, origin, or lineage, is derived from an ancient Greek word. 

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Related Questions

Active neurons need ATP to support which of the following?
A) the movement of materials to the soma by axoplasmic transport
B) the synthesis of neurotransmitter molecules C) the movement of materials from the soma by axoplasmic transport
D) the recovery from action potentials
E) all of the above

Answers

the axoplasmic transport of materials TO the soma and the axoplasmic transport of materials FROM the soma. the creation of chemicals related to neurotransmitters. recuperation from potentials. Through stimulating microglia, ATP may encourage the rebuilding of synaptic networks.

Extracellular ATP is primarily thought to serve as a rapid excitatory neurotransmitter in neuro-neuronal and neuro-effector synapses by activating postsynaptic P2X receptors. Additionally, ATP stimulates microglia to generate plasminogen, a kind of neurotrophic factor that improves synaptic  neurite outgrowth from explants of neocortical tissue and encourages the proliferation of mesencephalic dopaminergic neurons.

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describe the effect of increasing the efferent radius on glomerular capillary pressure and filtration rate

Answers

An growth in efferent radius will lower each capillary stress and filtration rate. With an expanded radius, the blood might be capable of float quicker out of the glomerular and reduce filtration rate(much less urine is produced), and the stress will drop while the blood quantity is decreased.

An growth withinside the efferent arteriolar diameter (lower in resistance) reasons a lower withinside the glomerular capillary hydrostatic stress and a lower in GFR. A lower withinside the diameter of the efferent arteriole has the other effect.

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what is the maximum extent to which the parts of the temporomandibular joint can move when opening and closing as measured in degrees of a circle?

Answers

Range of motion is the maximum degree of a circle that the temporomandibular joint components can move when opening and closing.

The temporomandibular jointhas two craters that are separated by an articular plate and have fibrocartilaginous surfaces. Separate superior and inferior synovial membranes interline these superior and inferior articular craters.

The entire flow of a joint is a fit achievement; a range of motion (ROM) is the range or limit at which any of the parties may propose a joint or an established point. A tool called a goniometer is used to calculate the range of motion.

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researchers use a technique called rna interference to significantly decrease, but not completely remove, expression of the bcl2 gene in the amygdala of lab animals. what would be the effect of this change?

Answers

researchers use a technique called RNA interference to significantly decrease,  An increase in apoptosis would be the effect of this change. RNA interference (RNAi) is a preserved physiological response to double-stranded RNA

RNA interference (RNAi) is a preserved physiological response to double-stranded RNA which helps facilitate barrier to both endogenous parasitic and exogenous pathogenic nucleic acids as well as transcriptional regulation of nutrient genome. Increased apoptosis is seen in AIDS, neurodegenerative diseases like Alzheimer's, Parkinson's, and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, ischaemic injury after a heart attack, stroke, or reperfusion, and autoimmune diseases like hepatitis and graft versus host disease.

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the presence of a gene in the genome does not indicate the expression of that gene. which of the following elements can control gene expression? (mark all that apply) non-coding rna (ncrna) protein such as transcription factors dna enhancer sequences dna topological domains

Answers

All responses must be marked (all apply) Gene discovery by sequence analysis. Because genes are not a random collection of nucleotides, but rather contain distinguishing characteristics, sequence examination may be used to find them.

These characteristics indicate whether a sequence is a gene or not, and hence non-coding DNA lacks them by definition.

Temperature, diet, light, pollutants, pathogenic agents, age, and gender/sex are all factors to consider.

Gene expression is often measured by measuring amounts of the gene product, which is frequently a protein. Western blotting and enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay, or ELISA, are two commonly used protein quantification procedures.

When a gene is activated, transcription occurs, and the protein is produced through translation.

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Full Question;

The presence of a gene in the genome does not indicate the expression of that gene. Which of the following elements can control gene expression? (Mark all that apply)

A-Protein such as transcription factors

B-DNA topological domains

C-DNA enhancer sequences

D-Non-coding RNA (ncRNA)

Before the development of molecular techniques, scientists classified animals based on shared morphological and embryological characters. Complete the sentences discussing the bases for traditional animal classification. Animals possess specialized ____________ . The division of animals as radial or bilateral is based on each group's body ____________ . The Bilateria are, in turn, divided into three major classifications based upon the structure of the ____________ . This feature is important because it allows for organs to be cushioned by ____________ that is relatively incompressible. Lastly, animals can be classified by the way their zygotes subsequently divide to form a multicellular individual; the embryological pathway can proceed by either ____________ cleavage. cartilage complete or incomplete fluid mitotic or meiotic nucleic acids organs radial or spiral tissues symmetry DNA BODY CAVITY FLUID BONE

Answers

Animals possess specialized tissues. The division of animals as radial or bilateral is based on each group's body symmetry. The Bilateria are, in turn, divided into three major classifications based upon the structure of the body cavity. This feature is important because it allows for organs to be cushioned by fluids that is relatively incompressible. Lastly, animals can be classified by the way their zygotes subsequently divide to form a multicellular individual; the embryological pathway can proceed by either radial or spiral cleavage.

The classification of animals is seen based on the symmetry of their bodies. Symmetry is the similarity of parts in various areas and directions of the body, concerning being cut by several axes or planes. Based on the symmetry of their bodies, animals can be classified as follows:

Asymmetrical animals, cannot be divided into equal parts by any plane. For example, a sponge.Bilateral symmetrical animal, its body can be divided into 2 equal parts if it is cut by only 1 plane. For example, the phylum Chordata.Biradial symmetry animal, its body can be divided into 2 equal parts if it is cut by 2 planes. For example, sea anemones.Radial symmetry animals, their bodies can be divided into equal parts if cut with various planes. For example, hydra sp and Echinodermata.

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is dna attracted to the anode or cathode? which is applied to the top of the casket/gel and which is applied to the bottom of the casket/gel. why?

Answers

In gel electrophoresis, the anode is positively charged. DNA is a negatively charged molecule, which attracts different charges, so DNA migrates towards the anode during gel electrophoresis.

Gel electrophoresis is the experimental method for the separating mixtures of the DNA, RNA, or the proteins by the molecular size. In gel the electrophoresis, the molecules to be separated are to be forced into the gel containing small pores by the electric field. What is the Principle of Gel Electrophoresis? Gel Electrophoresis and DNA DNA is negatively charged, so when an electric current is passed through the gel, the DNA migrates towards the positively charged electrode. Fragments are ordered by size because short DNA strands migrate through the gel faster than long strands.

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in drosophila, mutation screening usually involves use of a balancer chromosome that includes three elements: a set of overlapping inversions, an easily recognized dominant mutation, and a recessive lethal mutation that prevents balancer homozygotes from surviving. which one, or combination, of these elements is necessary and sufficient to suppress crossovers?

Answers

In Drosophila genetics, balancer chromosomes are chromosomes that have had many inversions and rearrangements. Balancers, which were first described almost a century ago, are widely utilized in intricate crosses and stock maintenance.

A fly geneticist's toolkit includes powerful and crucial balancer chromosomes. They are employed in genetic mating strategies to keep harmful mutations in stable stocks, avoid recombination, and track chromosomes. Typical balancer chromosomes are made to do three things: carry dominant genetic markers, suppress meiotic recombination with their homologs, and carry recessive fatal mutations. This way, homozygotes that don't carry the desired mutation are eliminated. In Drosophila melanogaster, the Y chromosome plays a crucial role in male reproduction. only 16 of these are protein-coding genes.

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The cash flow statement should be evaluated by examining the cash flow pattern ______.

Answers

Examine the cash flow pattern of the subtotals for the three sections of the cash flow statement to evaluate it.

The amount of cash or cash equivalent that the guest receives or discharges parenthetically of a fee(s) to creditors is popular as cash flow. Cash flow reasoning is frequently used to analyze the liquidity position of the association. Cash flow is the inflow and efflux of services from a trade. It should be for daily movements, taxes, buying stock, and paying workers and money needed to run a business.

Cash flow is the main cause it enables you to meet your existent monetary responsibilities as well as anticipate the future. A cash flow statement is an economic statement that supports an aggregate dossier concerning all cash inflows a company endures from allure continuous movements and external expense beginnings. It again includes all cash outflows that finance trade projects and money during a likely ending.

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Which balanced redox reaction is occurring in the voltaic cell represented by the notation of a l ( s ) | a l 3 + ( a q ) | | p b 2 + ( a q ) | p b ( s ) ?.

Answers

As a redox reaction takes place, a voltaic cell generates power. The reduction potentials can be used to gauge a voltaic cell's voltage.

Do voltaic cells undergo redox reactions?

As a redox reaction takes place, a voltaic cell generates power. The reduction potentials of the half reactions can be used to calculate the voltage of a voltaic cell. Batteries, a practical source of electricity, are made from voltaic cells.

What kind of operation takes place in a voltaic cell?

natural redox reactions

A voltaic cell, often referred to as a galvanic cell, is an electrochemical cell that produces electricity by redox reactions that occur on their own.

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this amino acid sequence is found in a tripeptide: met-trp-his. give a possible nucleotide sequences on the template strand of dna that can encode this tripeptide. please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. answer choices 5'-tacaccgta-3' 5'-auguggcau-3' 3'-auguggcau-5' 5'-tacacagta-3'

Answers

5'-AUGUGGCAU-3'. The codon table may be used to identify the probable mRNA nucleotide sequences encoding for the tripeptide Met-Trp-His.

We can see from the table that the amino acid this has two possible codons, whereas Met and Trp each have one codon. As a result, the tripeptide might be encoded by two distinct mRNA nucleotide sequences. The template and non-template DNA strands can be produced from these prospective mRNA sequences after the nucleotide sequences for the potential mRNA have been identified.

Dual mRNAs codons

5'-AUGUGGCAU-3'

Non-template for DNA:

5'-ATGTGGCAT-3'

DNA template

3'-TACACCGTA-5'

5'-AUGUGGCAC-3'

Non-template for DNA:

5'-ATGTGGCAC-3'

Template for DNA:

3'-TACACCGTG-5'.

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ivory coast and china are two developing nations. china has a much larger per capita ecological footprint than ivory coast. this is most likely due to

Answers

China has a much larger per capita ecological footprint than ivory coast due to III) Ivory Coast's dependence on small scale and subsistence agriculture.

Ivory Coast is well known for its religious and ethnic harmony, as well as its well-developed economy. This Western African country was hailed as a model of stability.

China's rapid economic growth is due to two main reasons that are large-scale capital investment financed by large domestic savings also foreign investment and rapid productivity growth. China is the world's largest manufacturing economy and exporter of goods. They are world's fastest-growing consumer market and second-largest importer of goods.

The above question is incomplete

Ivory Coast and China are two developing nations. China has a much larger per capita ecological footprint than Ivory Coast. This is most likely due to:

I. China's larger population.

II. China's growing dependence on fossil fuels to drive their economy.

III. Ivory Coast's dependence on small scale and subsistence agriculture.

IV. Ivory Coast's much smaller GDP.

Hence ,III is the correct option

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where would you find a kelp forest? group of answer choices in a salt marsh in a silty coastal area in an estuary along a continental shelf in a coral reef

Answers

Answer:

Cool, shallow waters closer to shore

Explanation:

what is the term for the type of resistance provided against a pathogen months after infection by that same pathogen?

Answers

Immunity would be the answer hope it helps

researchers have found that increasing global temperatures will cause methane (ch4), a greenhouse gas, to be emitted at increasing rates by microorganisms found in freshwater ecosystems. what biogeochemical cycle will be most directly affected by this increase in methane?

Answers

The carbon cycle will be most directly affected by this increase in methane. The correct answer is option (A).

It is obvious from the supplied question that the rate of methane emission will increase as a result of the anticipated rise in temperature brought on by global warming. The carbon cycle is the biogeochemical cycle that will be directly impacted by this.

One atom of carbon and four hydrogen atoms make up the molecule known as methane. The carbon dioxide that organisms release into the atmosphere is captured by producers as part of the carbon cycle, and when methane emissions rise, it becomes more difficult for organisms to absorb carbon dioxide due to its excess presence. Carbon dioxide should be present in order for the producers to capture the carbon.

The complete question is:

Researchers have found that increasing global temperatures will cause methane (ch4), a greenhouse gas, to be emitted at increasing rates by microorganisms found in freshwater ecosystems. what biogeochemical cycle will be most directly affected by this increase in methane?

(A). Carbon cycle

(B). Hydrogeological cycle

(C). Nitrogen cycle

(D). Phosphorous cycle

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are these ciliates more closely related to all other protists than they are to plants, fungi, or animals? select all that apply. are these ciliates more closely related to all other protists than they are to plants, fungi, or animals?select all that apply. ciliates are as closely related to plants as they are to protistan members of the archaeplastida. ciliates are more closely related to all other protists than they are to plants, fungi, and animals. ciliates are more closely related to the unikonta than to fungi and animals. ciliates are as closely related to plants as they are to protistan members of sar. ciliates are as closely related to fungi and animals as they are to protistan member of SAR:

Answers

Ciliates are connected to protistan members of the eukaryotic supergroup Unikonta in the same way that fungi and mammals are. the aforementioned.

Why are these ciliates less closely related to plants, fungi, or mammals than to all other protists?

Ciliates have protistan members of the Archaeplastida as close relatives as they do to plants. Ciliates are protistan members of the eukaryotic supergroup Unikonta and are closely linked to both fungi and animals.

What protists share the most genetic similarity with fungi and animals?

The organisms that are most similar to the kingdom of fungi are nucleariids. They are single-celled organisms that consume bacteria and algae for food. Choanoflagellates are the closest relatives of animals. They are also single-celled protists and have a flagella at the cell's one side.

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what connections can you make between homeostasis and the reproductive system in the concept map? select all that apply.

Answers

Connections can you make between homeostasis and the reproductive system is that it does other organ system’s maintenance is not provided by the reproductive system.

What is homeostasis?

Homeostasis is any self-regulating process that allows biological systems to maintain stability while adjusting to environmental factors that are best for survival.

The organism's equilibrium is not greatly aided by the reproductive system. The maintenance of the species is what the reproductive system actually pertains to. By ensuring that the children live, the reproductive system keeps the body's balance.

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a man has a large inversion on one of his chromosomes. how might this impact his offspring? no impact because all genetic information is retained severe phenotypic abnormalities caused by unbalanced chromatids fewer autosomes because normal synapsis during meiosis does not occur minor genetic abnormalities due to minimal deficiency in genetic material

Answers

The remaining one-fourth will have chromosomes 4 and 12 in their normal positions. Three-fourths will have at least one translocated chromosome.

An individual's whole chromosomal set is known as their karyotype. A laboratory-created representation of a person's  chromosomes separated from a man or woman cell and put in numerical order is also referred to by this word. To check for irregularities in chromosomal range or structure, a karyotype may be utilised.Your doctor can discover whether there are any abnormalities or structural issues with the chromosomes by analysing them using karyotyping. There are chromosomes in almost every cell in your body. They consist of the genetic make-up you inherited from your parents.

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blocking afferent action potentials from the chemorecep- tors in the carotid and aortic bodies would interfere with the brain's ability to regulate breathing in response to a. changes in ph b. changes in pco2 c. changes in blood pressure d. changes in po2

Answers

It would be difficult for the brain to control breathing in response to -

(option c) change in blood pressure.

A chemoreceptor, sometimes referred to as a chemosensory receptor, is a specialized sensory organ that converts a chemical substance (either endogenous or produced) into a biological signal. If the chemoreceptor is a neuron, the signal may take the form of an action potential; otherwise, it may take the form of a neurotransmitter that can activate a nerve fibre. Examples of such specialised cells include taste receptors and internal peripheral chemoreceptors like the carotid bodies. An increase in the breathing amount of carbon dioxide in the blood, for example, is one alteration that a chemoreceptor can detect in physiology (hypercapnia).

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Cecropias are known for the mutualistic relationship they have with which creature?.

Answers

The mutualistic association that cecropias have with creature ants is well documented.

What function does a cecropia moth serve?

The adult stage of the cecropia moth exists solely for mating and egg-laying. Cecropia moths must survive as adults on the fat reserves they stored while they were caterpillars. They actually only have a short lifespan and are completely mouthless.

How uncommon are cecropia moths?

The International Union for Conservation of Nature has not evaluated the cecropia moth, but it doesn't appear to be all that uncommon to find in the United States. On a maple or birch tree, you might be able to catch one in the spring or summer.

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what is the difference between an epsp and an ipsp? predict whether activation of a given neurotransmitter receptor will generate an epsp or an ipsp.

Answers

An EPSP has a higher reversal potential than the action potential threshold, whereas an IPSP has a lower reversal potential than the threshold.

PSPs actually reduce the likelihood that the postsynaptic cell will generate an action potential at many other synapses. Excitatory (or EPSPs) PSPs increase the likelihood of a postsynaptic action potential occurring, while inhibitory (or IPSPs) PSPs decrease this likelihood.

The IPSP reduces the membrane potential of neurons, making action potentials less likely. A postsynaptic cell has fewer inhibitory connections, but they are closer to the soma.

Signals sent across excitatory synapses increase neuron activity, while signals sent across inhibitory synapses decrease neuron activity. The type of channel that is coupled to the receptor, as well as the concentration of permeant ions inside and outside the cell, determine whether a postsynaptic response is an EPSP or an IPSP.

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if a retrovirus could infect one of any of these kinds of cells, which would amplify it the most within the first 2 hours?

Answers

Cancer cells are the best target to amplify the most within first 2 hours. Highly oncogenic retroviruses are recombinants of viral and host genes.

Retroviruses are viruses with RNA rather than DNA in their genomes that infect cancer cells. Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme that is used to integrate into the DNA of the host cells. It is enhanced to a greater extent the more cell replication takes place. More retroviruses are then produced by the cell, infecting further cells. Many diseases, including AIDS and various types of cancer, are linked to retroviruses.

Low-incidence cancer-causing retroviruses lack inserted host information. Instead, it seems that they alter the expression of potentially carcinogenic host genes, which in turn results in cancer. Retroviruses incorporate proviral DNA into the chromosomal DNA of their host during the course of their regular life cycle. Integrations take place across numerous locations. Although most integrations are benign, some can cause cancer. Many of these seem to encode tyrosine phosphorylating protein kinases.

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what connects the upper motor neurons to lower motor neurons? what connects the upper motor neurons to lower motor neurons? interneurons sensory neurons primary afferent neuron muscle fibers

Answers

Lower motor neurons' anterior horn cells form a synaptic connection with upper motor neurons in the spinal cord, typically through interneurons. The lower motor neurons' cell bodies, known as the anterior horn cells, are found in the spinal cord's grey matter.

Interneurons serve as the communication hubs for neural circuits, allowing information to be sent to lower motor neurons or the central nervous system (CNS) in the brain stem and spinal cord from higher motor neurons, sensory, or motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord. Your muscles contract when they receive a signal from the higher motor neurons via another signal that is sent to them. They are essential for the adult mammalian brain's neurogenesis, neuronal oscillations, and reflexes.

Renshaw cells are among the earliest interneurons to be discovered. The motor neurons' axon collaterals stimulate them. Renshaw cells also link negatively to a number of motor neuron populations.

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What is the role of atp when large molecules need to be transported across the cell membrane against the concentration gradient?.

Answers

To release energy, the link between the phosphate groups is broken. This energy aids in the movement of molecules against a concentration gradient across cell membranes.

What method is used to move molecules across a cell membrane?

Active and passive transport are the two methods used to move molecules across a cell membrane. Simple diffusion, assisted diffusion, and osmosis are examples of passive transport techniques that depend on the inherent kinetic energy of molecules.

How does ATP work to give the cell energy?

Energy is released when the connection between the second and third phosphate groups is broken for cellular functions. Glucose provides the energy necessary for the breakdown of ADP and a phosphate group into ATP during cellular respiration.

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what is the relationship between recombination frequency and the actual physical distance on a chromosome?

Answers

As physical distance increases, the recombination frequency first increases in a linear fashion, but gradually levels off to a frequency of 0.5.

What is the relationship between recombination frequency and the physical distance between genes on a chromosome?

Recombination frequency is inversely proportional to the distance between the genes present on a chromosome.

Does recombination increase with distance?

As the distance between two genes increases, so does the number of crossover events between them, but recombination is only seen if the number of crossovers is odd. So for distant genes the probability of an odd or even number of crossovers becomes 50%, meaning this is the maximum recombination frequency.

What is recombination frequency?

Recombination frequency (θ) is the frequency with which a single chromosomal crossover will take place between two genes during meiosis. A centimorgan (cM) is a unit that describes a recombination frequency of 1%.

Thus, recombination frequency is inversely proportional to physical distance.

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in the united states, disinfection of drinking water with chlorine or other methods is done to remove: group of answer choices sand and gravel. pathogenic microorganisms. none of the choices bad smells. particles suspended in water.

Answers

pathogenic microorganisms

In the United States, disinfection of drinking water is primarily done to remove pathogenic microorganisms. Correct option is B.

Chlorine and other disinfection methods are used to kill or inactivate harmful bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens present in the water to make it safe for consumption. Disinfection is a crucial step in water treatment to protect public health by reducing the risk of waterborne diseases caused by these microorganisms.

While water treatment processes may involve removing particles suspended in water, including sand and gravel through filtration, and can also help address bad smells, the primary purpose of disinfection is to ensure the water is free from harmful pathogens.

Water Disinfection:

Water disinfection is a crucial step in the process of treating drinking water to make it safe for consumption. The main objective of disinfection is to eliminate or inactivate harmful microorganisms, such as bacteria, viruses, and parasites, that may be present in the water. These microorganisms can cause waterborne diseases and pose serious health risks to the population if not properly removed.

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Remnant of low-mass or medium-mass star

PLS HELP do tomorrow

A. White Dwarf

B. Neutron Star

Answers

White dwarfs are small stars that emerge when larger stars like red giants run out of hydrogen, which they use as fuel, and disintegrate. White dwarfs are the core of these large stars. A) White Dwarf

What is a white dwarf?

An average star can go through different stages in its life cycle as it evolves.

The stages are the followings,

NebulaProtostarMain sequence (orange and yellow dwarf)SubgiantRed giantWhite dwarf.

When red giants begin to disintegrate because they run out of fuel (hydrogen), they lose their outer layers, and their core remains exposed. This core of low mass cools and becomes a white dwarf.

White Dwarfs are Remnant of low-mass or medium-mass star. Option A)

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which of the following factors would increase the amount of oxygen discharged by hemoglobin to peripheral tis- sues? a. decreased temperature b. decreased ph c. increased tissue po2 d. none of the above

Answers

The answer is option (d) is none of the above.

What is oxygen?

Its atomic number is 8, making oxygen a chemical element. When oxygen is present at normal pressures and temperatures, it forms the chemical compound (O2), which has two atoms and is a colorless gas.

What is hemoglobin ?

In addition to carrying oxygen from the lungs to the tissues and facilitating the return of carbon dioxide, hemoglobin also functions as a two-way respiratory carrier. Hemoglobin's high affinity for oxygen and low affinity for carbon dioxide, organic phosphates, hydrogen ions, and chloride ions in arterial circulation are characteristics that distinguish them from one another.

Therefore, answer is option (d) is none of the above.

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cancerous growths are clonal in origin because cancer cells . multiple choice question. can invade healthy tissues originate from a single cell that has accumulated genetic changes during cell division can migrate to other areas of the body and form secondary tumors at the new sites can form a tumor that is localized only at one site

Answers

Cancerous growths are clonal in origin because of cancer cells originate from a single cell that has accumulated genetic changes during cell division.

The human body contains several billion cells. Cells are the teeny, tiny building blocks of our tissues and organs. Every one of us was once a single cell. That cell divided into two new cells after internal replication.

Cells become abnormal when the DNA, which holds the instructions needed for cells to operate, is damaged. The cells they make after that will not be similar to healthy ones. Along with having a variety of appearances, they might also possess different traits. The medical word for this kind of abnormal cell proliferation in body tissue, including skin, is dysplasia. As long as there aren't many abnormal cells and our immune system controls them, we won't get sick from them.

Sometimes these cells can vanish on their own. Only when these cells continue to change and start to divide erratically, leading to lumps or growths, does one of the more than 200 diseases recognized as cancer become apparent. These kinds of growths are tumors.

The complete question is:

Cancerous growths are clonal in origin because of cancer cells __________.

multiple choice questions.

(A). can invade healthy tissues originating from a single cell that has accumulated genetic changes during cell division

(B) can migrate to other areas of the body and form secondary tumors at the new sites

(C) can form a tumor that is localized only at one site

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Before the development of molecular techniques, scientists classified animals based on shared morphological and embryological characters. Complete the sentences discussing the bases for traditional animal classification. Animals possess specialized ____________ . The division of animals as radial or bilateral is based on each group's body ____________ . The Bilateria are, in turn, divided into three major classifications based upon the structure of the ____________ . This feature is important because it allows for organs to be cushioned by ____________ that is relatively incompressible. Lastly, animals can be classified by the way their zygotes subsequently divide to form a multicellular individual; the embryological pathway can proceed by either ____________ cleavage. cartilage complete or incomplete fluid mitotic or meiotic nucleic acids organs radial or spiral tissues symmetry DNA BODY CAVITY FLUID BONE

Answers

Animals collectively known as the Eumetazoa possess specialized tissues. The division of animals as radial or bilateral is based on each group's body. The Bilateria are, in turn, divided into three major classifications based upon the structure of the Body Cavity. This feature is important because it allows for organs to be cushioned by fluid that is relatively incompressible. Lastly, animals can be classified by the way their zygotes subsequently divide to form a multicellular individual; the embryological pathway can proceed by either radial or spiral cleavage.

Eumetazoa include all multicellular forms except the sponges. A fluid-filled space inside the body that holds and protects internal organs is termed as body cavity. The division planes are not at 90° angles, thus the blastomeres are not aligned directly over or beside one another in spiral clevage. In Radial Cleavage resulting daughter cells are located exactly on top of one another.

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suppose a student repeats a measurement two times and then calculates the standard deviation. because the standard deviation is small, the student reports that their experiment was extremely precise. is the student's conclusion appropriate? Which of the following is an example of a quantity quota? O A city sets a limit on the maximum rent that tenants pay. A city awards a construction firm a monopoly over all public housing construction. O A city imposes a tax on all people who move into the city. A city enforces zoning laws that restrict the number of housing units. Question 5 (1 point) Jorge sells a hammock for $85. His marginal cost for one hammock is $40, and his average cost is $50. What is Jorge's producer surplus on the sale of one hammock? -$5 $45 $35 $40 Question 19 (1 point) Which of the following statements is correct? The incidence of a tax is determined by the statutory burden of the tax. Taxes lead to shortages. Regardless of the statutory burden of a tax, the actual economic burden will depend on the relative elasticities of demand and supply. The economic burden of a quota is always equivalent to the economic burden of a tax. The electrocardiogram (ECG) is composed of a P-wave, a QRS complex, and a T-wave. These three components are measured:-once during each cardiac cycle.-three times during each cardiac cycle: during a contraction of the atria, a contraction of the ventricles, and when the heart is at rest.-twice during each cardiac cycle: during a contraction of the atria and a contraction of the ventricles.-independently of the cardiac cycle. in what ways do the military practices reflect the influence of the steppe environment on the mongols? 11. dividend reinvestment plans dividend reinvestment plans (drips) allow shareholders to reinvest their dividends in the company itself by purchasing additional shares rather than being paid out in cash. understanding how dividend reinvestment plans work under dividend reinvestment plan, the company gives any cash dividends that investors would have received in a bank, which acts as a trustee. the bank then uses the money to repurchase the companys existing stock in the stock market. the bank then allocates the shares purchased to the participating stockholders accounts on a pro rata basis. some firms that use dividend reinvestment plan will allow stockholders to purchase stock at a price slightly below the market price. why do firms use dividend reinvestment plans? companies decide to start, continue, or terminate their dividend reinvestment plans for their stockholders based on the firms need for equity capital. a firm is likely to start using new stock drips if it additional equity capital. a child undergoing prolonged steroid therapy takes on a cushingoid appearance. the nurse would expect to find which manifestation during further assessment? You were hired to work the medical unit and when you arrive at work the charge nurse has assigned you to the post-surgical unit since they are understaffed. Which is the MOST appropriate action? a patient with a spinal cord injury is complaining of pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath, and is very anxious. these manifestations would most likely correlate with which complication? according to shaffer (2002), what is the percentage of mothers working outside the home at least part time? Which blood vessels receive lymph from the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct?. Find WY.W8X39YWrite your answer as an integer or as a decimal roundWY = At a movie theater, the size of popcorn bags decreased 33\frac{1}{3} 31 %. If the old bags held 24 cups of popcorn, how much does the new bags hold? identify the most appropriate test to use for the following situation: a national computer retailer believes that the average sales are greater for salespersons with a college degree. a random sample of 14 salespersons with a degree had an average weekly sale of $3542 last year, while 17 salespersons without a college degree averaged $3301 in weekly sales. the standard deviations were $468 and $642 respectively. is there evidence to support the retailer's belief? a patient is assigned to a community mental health center inpatient facility instead of a mental hospital. in this case, the decision-makers have applied the principle of: The presence of many red blood cells in the urine during a microscopic examination is known as ________. person 1 and her friends are planning a weekend trip. person 1 is in charge of estimating the amount of food and drinks she will need for the whole weekend, and to find lodging. whats the best way for person 1 to prioritize what she needs to accomplish? Two UNO students want to start a business selling slushies at the Gene Leahey Mall during the summer. They will have an initial cost of $500 to buy equipment and an additional $1.25 cost for each slushie they sell. They plan to charge $3.50 for each slushie. Let C(x) represent the cost (in dollars) associated with starting and running the business and R(x) represent the revenue (in dollars) earned from sales. Let x represent the numberof slushies sold.a. Write a linear function for cost.C(x) = Write a linear function for revenue.R(x)=c. Find C(50). Show your work. Write C(50) as an (x, y) coordinate point. - Write a sentence that explains the meaning of the point in the context of the problem.D. Find R(50).Represent R(50) as an (x, y) coordinate point. Write a sentence that explains the meaning of the point in the context of the problem?e. If the students sell 50 slushies, do they make a profit? Use mathematical work to help explain your answer. Complete the sentence below.If the students sell 50 slushies, do they make- a profit? Because-F. How many slushies do the students need to sell to break even? Use complete sentences to explain your problem solving strategy and your conclusion.G. How many slushies do the students have to sell to make a profit of $1250? Use complete sentences to explain your problem solving strategy and your conclusion. Write a letter of Application. in order to transmit the new polyphony, which other aspect of music became more sophisticated in the middle ages? The word "sympathy" in line 1 most likely means