A nurse would discover truncal obesity with thin extremities after a thorough examination of a kid who has developed a cushingoid appearance due to extended steroid medication.
The cushingoid facies, which include a moon face, buffalo hump, acne, an obese midsection, and thin, easily bruised skin, were once used to identify kidney transplant recipients.
Obesity that is mostly seen in the body's trunk as opposed to its extremities is referred to as truncal obesity.
The hormones ordinarily generated by the adrenal glands, two tiny glands located above the kidneys, are converted into steroids by humans. Steroids lessen redness and swelling when taken in levels greater than those your body naturally generates (inflammation).
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a patient has (age-related) osteoporosis. they are seen for an initial encounter in the ed and diagnosed with a current pathological fracture of the right humerus. which icd10cm code is assigned to describe this scenario?
A patient has (age-related) osteoporosis. They are seen for an initial encounter in the ed and diagnosed with a current pathological fracture of the right humerus. ICD code-M8 1.0 is assigned to describe this scenario.
What is the ICD-10 code for osteoporosis caused by advancing age?Age-Related Osteoporosis without Current Pathological Fracture is a billable ICD-10 code used for healthcare diagnosis reimbursement. Age-related osteoporosis with a recent pathological fracture is classified as a medical condition by the WHO under the category of osteopathies and chondropathies, and its ICD-9 code is 733.
ICD-10 code M81.0, which is billable for osteoporosis, unspecified, is typically used to code DEXA scan or bone density scan procedure codes. The two most common diagnoses used to code DEXA scan examinations are osteoporosis and osteoeopenia.
The WHO classifies ICD-10 code Z13. 820, Encounter for osteoporosis screening, as a medical condition that falls under the heading of "Factors influencing health status and interaction with health services."
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the home health care nurse is providing instructions to a client after a vulvectomy. which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
The nurse should tell the client to resume the activities slowly, keeping in mind that walking is beneficial activity.
What is vulvectomy ?During a vulvectomy, the outer genitalia may be partially or entirely removed.
Lichen sclerosus, precancer, and cancer are all removed surgically together with other damaged tissue.
la- bia maj- ora or minora, whichever is larger. The cli- toris or Barth- olin glands are where it starts less frequently.
to remove the urine from your bladder using a cath- eter or drainage tube.
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a client develops a mild skin irritation while receiving penicillin therapy. which products or actions would the nurse advise the client to avoid? select all that apply
The nurse's preadministration evaluation should cover the client's allergy history, medical and surgical history, medication history, and the client's current infection symptoms.
What are some typical penicillin adverse effects?The most typical penicillin side effects are hives, skin rashes, diarrhea, nausea, and headache. Shortness of breath or irregular breathing, joint pain, sudden lightheadedness and fainting, puffiness and redness of the face, scaly, red skin, vaginal itching and discharge, possibly with white patches, sore mouth and tongue, and abdominal cramps, spasms, tenderness, or pain are less frequent side effects.
How is penicillin allergy treated?Treatment for Penicillin Allergy: Antihistamines are a type of medication that they may suggest.To aid with your symptoms, try taking diphenhydramine. They may prescribe you a corticosteroid drug for more serious issues like edema. They will immediately administer the medication epinephrine to you if you experience anaphylaxis.
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the nurse is caring for a client whose acute kidney injury (aki) resulted from a prerenal cause. which condition most likely caused this client's health problem?
Heart failure can cause insufficient renal perfusion, which can result in prerenal failure. Glomerulonephritis, aminoglycoside toxicity, and ureterolithiasis are postrenal causes, respectively.
What conditions could lead to Prerenal kidney failure?Its most typical type of kidney failure in hospitalized patients is prerenal azotemia. It could be brought on by any illness that lowers blood flow to the kidney, such as: Burns. circumstances that let fluid to leave the circulation
Which patient has the greatest risk for Prerenal AKI?Patients who use diuretics are more likely to experience acute pre-renal kidney damage. This is because diuretics cause more urine to be produced, which reduces extracellular volume. These patients may develop AKI if they have a modest concomitant illness that causes extra fluid loss, such as a spell of fever or vomiting.
What is the most common and serious complication of AKI?The most dangerous side effects of acute kidney injury include elevated blood potassium levels, which in extreme situations can cause paralysis, muscle weakness, and irregular heartbeats.
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a young client is being treated for a femoral fracture suffered in a snowboarding accident. the nurse's most recent assessment reveals that the client is uncharacteristically confused. what diagnostic test should be performed on this client?
A young client is being treated for a femoral fracture suffered in a snowboarding accident. the nurse's most recent assessment reveals that the client is uncharacteristically confused. So, arterial blood gases (ABG) diagnostic test should be performed on this patient.
What are arterial blood gases used for?Due to the risk of fat embolism syndrome, subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, or disorientation in a patient who has received a fracture are grounds for prompt arterial blood gas investigations. This evaluation finding does not suggest that electrolyte levels, an ECG, or abdominal ultrasound are required right away.
What causes arterial blood gas?An arterial blood gases (ABG) test determines the acidity (pH) and amounts of oxygen and carbon dioxide in artery blood.
This test determines how well your lungs can transfer oxygen into your blood and eliminate carbon dioxide from your blood.
This can occur as a consequence of the lungs failing to function correctly (called respiratory acidosis) or as a result of a buildup of acid from metabolic reasons, most commonly as a result of tissues being deprived of oxygen (called metabolic acidosis).
So, arterial blood gases (ABG) diagnostic test should be performed on this patient.
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you have been called to a residence for a patient who is sick and not feeling well. the patient has multiple medical problems and is confined to bed, with care provided by family members. the patient has a gastric tube and an indwelling urinary catheter. which assessment finding should raise your suspicion that the patient has a urinary tract infection?
The catheter bag must be positioned beneath the patient's bladder by the EMT. The patient is being looked for by family members despite having numerous medical issues. There is a gastric tube in the patient.
What is the purpose of a gastric tube?
A gastrostomy tube, commonly known as a G-tube, is a tube that is put into the stomach to deliver food directly to a stomach. It's one method doctors can guarantee that picky eaters get the calories and fluids they require.
A stomach tube is it everlasting?
Having a gastrostomy might be permanent or temporary. Compared to NG- or NJ-tube feeding, it is regarded as a longer-term alternative feeding technique. (Feeding through NJ tube also occurs through the nose,
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a nurse needs to administer a continuous medication drip to a client. the nurse knows that, for a continuous infusion, she will likely need to add medication to which volume of iv solution?
The amount of medication she will need to add is Option C that is 500 to 1000 ml
What is a continuous infusion ?A parenteral medication is infused continuously over several hours. Adding medication to a sizable amount of IV solution—approximately 500 to 1,000 cc, not less—is known as a continuous drip and is done in this manner.
We defined "continuous infusion" as continuous intravenous administration throughout a 24-hour period, and "intermittent dosing" as the administration of an intravenous infusion for a duration of less than or equal to 30 minutes.
In the following situations, continuous infusion should be taken into account: children have pain for which oral and intermittent parenteral opioids do not sufficiently control pain; intractable vomiting prevents oral medications;
IV lines are not preferred; and children would prefer to stay at home despite severe pain.
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which condition causes hypoventilation in a patient who has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (
In a patient with a history of both diabetes mellitus and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), an excess of oxygen therapy results in hypoventilation.
How can hypoventilation occur?The term "hypoventilation" refers to breathing that is either too shallow or too slowly for the body's needs. The amount of CO2 in the body increases when someone hypoventilates. Acid level increases and there is insufficient oxygen in the blood as a result of this. Hypoventilation can make a person feel dizzy.
What is the ideal course of action for COPD?Short-acting bronchodilator inhalers are the initial line of treatment for the majority of COPD patients. By broadening your airways, bronchodilators help you breathe more easily. Short-acting bronchodilator inhalers come in two varieties: beta-2 agonist inhalers, such as salbutamol and terbutaline.
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Overdose of oxygen therapy causes hypoventilation in a patient who has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
What is hypoventilation?
It is breathing that is too shallow or too slow to meet the needs of the body. If a person hypoventilates, the body's carbon dioxide level rises.
This causes a buildup of acid and too little oxygen in bloodWhat is obstructive pulmonary disease?
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a chronic inflammatory lung disease that causes obstructed airflow from lungs.
Symptoms include breathing difficulty, cough, mucus production and wheezing.Smoking is main cause of COPD and is thought to be responsible for around 9 in every 10 cases.learn more about COPD at
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the nurse is preparing discharge teaching for a client diagnosed with peripheral vascular disease (pvd). which teaching points should the nurse include about foot and leg care?
Teaching points about leg and foot care for the client diagnosed with peripheral vascular disorder:
1. Each day, wash your feet. Completely drying them. Apply moisturizer to avoid cracks that can become infected. However, avoid moisturizing in between the toes as this can encourage the growth of fungus.
2. Put on comfortable footwear and sturdy, dry socks.
3. Treat any fungus that has affected your feet, such as athlete's foot, right away.
4. When clipping your nails, be careful.
5. Check your feet every day for damage.
5. Have bunions, corns, or calluses treated by a podiatrist.
6. As soon as you notice a wound or sore on your skin, consult your healthcare provider.
What is Peripheral Vascular Disorder?
A slow-moving circulation disorder called peripheral vascular disease (PVD) affects the extremities. PVD may be brought on by a blood vessel narrowing, blockage, or spasm.
The blood vessels, including arteries, veins, and lymphatic vessels, can develop the condition of PVD outside of the heart. Legs and the brain, which are supplied by these vessels, may not receive enough blood flow to function properly. But the most typical affected body parts are the legs and feet.
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select all that apply: the nurse is assessing the abilities of an older adult. which activities are considered iadl’s?
The nurse is assessing abilities of an older adult then activities that are considered IADLs are : preparing a meal, balancing checkbook and grocery shopping.
What is IADLs?The major domains of IADLs are cooking, cleaning, transportation, laundry, and also managing finances. Occupational therapist assess IADLs in the setting of rehab to determine the level of need of an individual for assistance and cognitive function.
Instrumental activities of daily living or IADLs are the things that you do every day to take care of yourself and home.
IADLs are the self-care tasks we generally learn as teenagers. They require complex thinking skills and including organizational skills. They also include: managing finances like paying bills and managing financial assets.
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to maintain skeletal, muscular, and cardiovascular health, a child should be physically active for at least minutes each day?
Children and adolescent between the ages of 6 and 17 should engage in 60 minutes (or more) of moderate-intensity physical activity each day.
What characterizes adolescence?A teen who has begun puberty but who has not yet reached adulthood. A kid goes through physical, hormonal, and cognitive changes during adolescence that signal the start of adulthood. Typically, adolescence occurs in older of ten and 19.
When does adolescence officially end?Puberty, which is biologically normal, signals the start of adolescence, which ends when an adulthood identity and behavior are accepted. The World Health defines adolescence as the time between ages of 10 to 19 years, which generally correlates to this developmental stage.
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name 2 conditions that require anticoagulant therapy. please indicated for each condition if therapy will be short or long term?
Medication are often used to treat and prevent; the most common situation for this is heart disease .
What is the most used therapy?Cognitive behaviour therapy may currently be the most popular form of therapy (CBT). CBT investigates the connection between a person's feelings, thoughts, and behaviors, as was previously mentioned. It usually focuses on identifying unfavorable thoughts and changing them to better ones.
Why is therapy so important?You get the chance to examine your thoughts, feelings, your behavioral patterns when you engage in therapy with only a psychologist, therapist, and counselor. Moreover, it can help you develop new strategies to cope and methods for handling daily pressures and symptoms related to your disease.
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the nurse will notify the health care provider immediately if the client taking amoxicillin for otitis media is also taking what medication?
The nurse will notify the health care provider immediately if the client taking amoxicillin for otitis media is also taking tetracycline for acne
Amoxicillin is first-line antibiotic recommended by most scientific societies for treatment of uncomplicated acute otitis media (AOM) in children and adults
Tetracycline works by slowing down growth of the bacteria that cause acne. It also acts as anti-inflammatory, so it helps make pimples less swollen and red.The tetracycline class of antibiotics inhibits C. acnes growth in pilosebaceous unit thus making the tetracyclines successful in treating acne.
Ear infections happen when bacteria or virus infect and trap fluid behind eardrum, causing pain and swelling/bulging of the eardrum.
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a female client is receiving an enteral feeding via nasogastric feeding tube. the daughter reports to the charge nurse that her mother is coughing vigorously and sounds congested. which staff member should the charge nurse ask to check on the client?
The registered nurse who is entering nursing notes will ask about client
What is a nasogastric feeding tube?
A tube that is put into the stomach through the nose and then down the neck and esophagus is known as a nasogastric feeding tube. It can be used to remove items from the stomach as well as to provide medications, liquids, and liquid meals.
Why are nasogastric feeding tubes used?
An nasogastric tube may be used to administer liquid nutrients when a person cannot tolerate solid foods by mouth. NG tube is best medications in some situations. The most common reasons for using a nasogastric tube include removing liquids or air from the stomach and protecting the bowel after surgery or during bowel rest. An nasogastric tube can be used by adults or children. In children, Nasogastric feeding tube may be important because of ingesting difficulties, or other medical conditions.
Hence, a registered nurse will charge the nurse about the patient.
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a nursing assistant wants to check the temperature of a patient. however, when she enters the room of the patient, she discovers that the patient very recently had a cold drink. how long should the nursing assistant wait before taking the oral temperature of the patient?
The nurse should wait for 10 to 20 minutes before taking the oral temperature of the patient who recently had a cold drink.
You will receive an incorrect reading if you take a patient's oral temperature after he or she has taken a hot or cold drink. The average time it takes for a patient's temperature to return to normal after consuming a cold beverage is 15 minutes, according to nurses who studied this issue.
Clinical judgments have long been based on oral temperature. It has been suggested that consuming cold drinks, like iced water, which is usually available at patients' bedsides or in clinic waiting areas, may reduce oral temperature readings.
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a clinician for a patient with an incurable disease suggests the use of tai chi for pain. which type of medicine is this now called?
Integrative Traditional is the name given to this form of medicine nowadays.
Why is it crucial for nurses to evaluate patients' backgrounds personally in addition to clinically?The psychosocial environment of a patient frequently contributes to clinical difficulties in that patient. Situationally, it depends on the patient and the issue(s) for which he or she is looking for clinical assistance.
How is bioethicist Norman Daniels' notion of health different from the WHO's constitution?narrower "the absence of disease, mental or physical."
When examining health disparities among socially significant groups, which of the following criteria requires the least amount of attention?hair shade
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a client with a traumatic brain injury is able, with eyes closed, to identify a set of keys placed in his or her hands. on the basis of this assessment finding, the nurse determines that there is appropriate function of which lobe of the brain?
The parietal lobe is suspected to be affected after the brain injury patient was able to identify the set of keys placed in his or her hands.
What is the Parietal lobe?
Just behind the parietal bone of the skull is where the parietal lobe is located. This crucial brain region supports the integration of sensory information and language processing.
What is a Brain?
The brain is made up of a variety of specialized regions that cooperate:
The cortex is composed of the brain's outermost layer of cells. The cortex is where thought and free will movement start. Between the spinal cord and the base of the brain is the brain stem. Here, you can regulate fundamental processes like breathing and sleeping.The brain's core contains a collection of structures known as the basal ganglia. Messages between numerous additional brain areas are coordinated by the basal ganglia.The base and back of the brain contain the cerebellum. Balance and coordination are functions of the cerebellum.
Hence, the parietal lobe is suspected to be affected after the brain injury patient was able to identify the set of keys placed in his or her hands.
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the nurse is performing an initial assessment on a newborn infant. when assessing the infant's head, the nurse notes that the ears are low-set. which nursing action is most appropriate?
The nurse is performing an initial assessment on a newborn infant. when assessing the infant's head, the nurse notes that the ears are low-set. The health care provider nursing action is most appropriate.
What about nurses?According to the Merriam- Webster wordbook, nurses are trained in promoting and maintaining health and should work autonomously or under the supervision of a croaker, surgeon, or dentist.From the time of birth to the top of life, nursers are present in every community, big and little.Nurses do a spread of duties, from furnishing direct case care and managing cases to setting nursing practice morals, creating internal control procedures, and managing intricate medical care systems.The maturity of long- term care in the country is handled by nurses, who also structure the largest single group of the sanitarium labor force.The four- time Bachelorette of Science in nursing( BSN) degree is the main route to professional nursing, as opposed to rehearsing at the specialized position.Nursing includes furnishing independent and platoon- rested care to people of all periods, families, groups, and communities, whether or not they're ill or not and anyhow of the position.Health creation, complaint forestallment, and thus the care of the ill, impaired, and dying are all included in nursing.A RN is a good healthcare provider who offers direct case care in a variety of sanitarium and community settings.Learn more about nurses here:
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the nurse will notify the health care provider immediately if the client taking amoxicillin for otitis media is also taking what medication?
The nurse will notify the health care provider immediately if the client taking amoxicillin for otitis media is also taking tetracycline for acne.
Tetracycline is used to treat acne and typically manifests as hives or wheals on the skin after a hypersensitivity reaction.
Infections are treated with tetracyclines, and they also aid in controlling acne. Your doctor may prescribe demeclocycline, doxycycline, or minocycline for further issues. Tetracyclines won't help with the flu, the cold, or any other viral illnesses.
Middle ear irritation or infection is known as otitis media. An infection of the respiratory system, a cold, or a sore throat can all lead to otitis media.
An infection of the air-filled area behind the eardrum is known as otitis media (the middle ear).
Acute otitis media Bacteria or viruses are typically the culprits behind ear infections.
Fever and ear discomfort are typical symptoms. Hearing loss or fluid leaking from the ear are less frequent possibilities.
The majority of ear infections heal on their own. Many people need antibiotics.
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an 8-year-old child was chasing his dog when the boy ran out into the street and was struck by a car. he is responsive to verbal stimuli and has an unstable pelvis and a bruise to the side of his face. his airway is open and his breathing is rapid and shallow. his radial pulse is rapid and weak and his skin is cool, moist, and diaphoretic. the patient also has abrasions to his back after being thrown by the car onto the pavement. based on these assessment findings, the emt would treat the patient for which life-threatening condition?
Shock is a life-threatening condition that EMTs would treat the patient for.
What is Shock?
The body's response to a sudden drop in blood pressure is a shock. The body's initial response to this potentially fatal circumstance is to limit (constrict) the blood arteries in the extremities (hands and feet). Vasoconstriction, as it is also known, helps maintain blood flow to the body's important organs. However, the body also produces the hormone (chemical) adrenaline, which can make the body's initial reaction go the other way. The blood pressure lowers as a result, which can be fatal.
What are EMTs?
An EMT provides transportation and emergency on-site medical care for seriously injured or unwell patients who need quick medical attention. EMTs provide this fundamental and urgent medical care inside an ambulance using the equipment and supplies that are there while making sure that every second counts.
Hence, Shock is a life-threatening condition that EMTs would treat the patient for.
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question 1 according to research by the national survey on drug use and health (nsduh), in 2013 an estimated 28.7 million people reported driving under the influence of alcohol at least once during the previous year. a) true b) false
According to research by the national survey on drug use and health (nsduh), in 2013 an estimated 28.7 million people reported driving under the influence of alcohol at least once during the previous year, the statement is true.
What is drug?Anything that is used to treat, diagnose, or relieve the symptoms of an illness or other abnormal condition that is not food. Additionally, drugs may alter the way the brain and the rest of the body function, resulting in modifications to mood, consciousness, thoughts, feelings, or behavior.
Why is it called drug?Etymology. The term "drug" in English is assumed to derive from the Old French "drogue," maybe from "droge (vate)" from Middle Dutch meaning "dry (barrels)," alluding to medicinal herbs kept as dry materials in barrels.
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to assist with preventing misuse of insulin and episodes of hypoglycemia after discharge, what information should the nurse provide to derek and his mother regarding the peak times of regular and intermediate-acting insulins?
The nurse should provide the following information to Derek and his mother regarding the peak times of regular and intermediate-acting insulins :
1. In 1 to 5 hours, NPH-insulin peaks.
Regular insulin starts working within 30 to 60 minutes, peaks between 1 to 5 hours, and lasts for up to 10 hours.
2. Peakless NPH-insulin
Insulin-glargine has a 24-hour duration, a 70-minute peak time, and no peaks.
3. In 6 to 14 hours, NPH-insulin peaks.
NPH-insulin has a 60 to 120-minute onset, a 6 to 14-hour peak, and a 16 to 24-hour duration.
4. The insulin surge lasts 12 to 24 hours.
Insulin-detemir has a gradual start, peaks between 12 and 24 hours after administration, and a dosage-dependent duration.
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which strength test best measures muscular endurance? a. 1-minute sit-up test b. bench press (1rm) c. grip strength d. leg press (1rm)
The best strength measure test for muscular endurance is a. 1-minute sit-up test
What is muscular endurance ?The capacity of a muscle or group of muscles to sustain repeated contractions against a force over an extended period of time is known as muscular endurance. The more repetitions you could perform, the stronger your muscle endurance was.
The term "muscular endurance" describes a muscle's capacity to continue contracting repeatedly despite opposition for an extended period of time. Long-distance running, cycling, or swimming, as well as circuit training and bodyweight workouts, are exercises that increase muscle endurance.
Push-ups, sit-ups, and repeated squat tests were used to measure the muscular endurance of subjects. The push-up test evaluates how well the arm, shoulder, and trunk muscles work to stabilize the trunk during performance.
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despite maintaining a neutral thermal environment, a premature infant continues to have hypothermia. what intervention should the nurse perform next?
Checking the infant's blood glucose level will be the best intervention that nurse should take for the premature infant suffering with hypothermia.
A dangerously low body temperature results from your body losing heat more quickly than it can create it, which is a medical emergency known as hypothermia. The average body temperature is 98.6 F. (37 C). When your body temperature drops below 95 F, hypothermia sets in (35 C).
There are causes of hypothermia outside underlying illnesses. Examples include exposure to the cold or intense physical activity.
Premature infant are more likely to develop hypothermia (body temperature below 36.5°C) than full-term infants, especially in the first few hours after delivery because of their enormous body surface area in comparison to weight and relative lack of subcutaneous fat.
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the nurse is reviewing the characteristics of breath sounds. which statement about bronchovesicular breath sounds is true? bronchovesicular breath sounds are
Fewer alveoli are found posteriorly, between the scapulae, particularly on the right, and anteriorly, in the first and second intercostal gaps, over large bronchi, where bronchovesicular breath sounds are audible.
What distinguishes the noises made by bronchovesicular breathing?Although milder than bronchial sounds, bronchovesicular sounds have a tubular quality. While changes in pitch and intensity can frequently be heard more clearly during expiration, bronchovesicular noises are roughly comparable between inspiration and expiration.
What do the sounds made by bronchovesicles mean?The sounds that a doctor hears when listening to a patient's lungs can reveal whether that person has an infection, inflammation, or fluid in or around the lungs. A person who suffers from a lung ailment like asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease could have changed vesicular breath sounds.
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according to federal guidelines, hospices may provide no more than what percentage of the aggregate annual patient-days at the inpatient level?
Federal guidelines state that hospices are only allowed to administer 20% of total annual inpatient patient days.
Who Can Receive Hospice Care?
1. Palliative care has been chosen by the patient and/or family when the illness is terminal (with a prognosis of less than six months).
2. The patient's nutritional condition has changed; for example, over the past 4-6 months, there has been a > 10% loss of body weight.
3. Reduced capacity for physical activity.
4. Decline in brain function.
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assessment of a patient who complains of the sudden onset of chest discomfort reveals a central intravenous catheter to his right upper chest. while assessing this piece of medical equipment, which finding related to the catheter should be of greatest concern to the emt?
The line of the catheter should be unclamped and without a cap is the greatest concern to the emt (emergency medical technician) for treating chest discomfort.
What is the use of catheter attached to the chest?Cardiac catheterization is used to test the reason for having chest pain and abnormal heart rhythm. It is a small, flexible, hollow tube fixed into the blood vessel in the groin, arm, or neck that will enter into the blood vessel of aorta.
Chest discomfort is caused by heartburn (burning sensation behind the breastbone) occurs when acid in the stomach washes up from stomach into the tube.
It may also be caused by:
Heart attack- blockage of blood flow to the heart muscleAngina pectoris- Chest pain caused by the reduced blood flow in the heartPericarditis- Swelling and irritation of the membrane surrounding the heart (Pericardium)Myocarditis- Swelling or inflammation of the middle layer of heart wall (Myocardium).Hence, catheter should be unclamped and without a cap to minimize the pressure in the tube during the introduction to right upper chest.
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which explanation would the nurse provide the outpatient radiolgoy staff regarding storage of radium in lead containers
The nurse provides explanation regarding radium stored in lead containers because lead acts as a barrier in separating radium from lead.
Why are radioactive materials stored in lead?
Because of having high atomic number and high density, it is effective at stopping gamma rays and X-rays. Lead is very dense and hard for penetrating radiation as the atoms are packed close together.
Lead can only be used to shield X and gamma radiation, not high energy beta particle radiation.
The material for shielding will depend on a number of factors:
Heat dissipationResistanceWeight and thicknessUniformity capacityThe primary material of lead that makes it ideal as a shielding material is density. Lead and lead alloys are excellent materials for radiation shielding. This material possesses other critical properties like high degree of application flexibility, extreme level of stability and high atomic number.
As lead has a very high number of protons in each atom which makes it very dense. Lead shielding is used in variety of applications like diagnostic imaging, radiation therapy, nuclear and industrial shielding.
Hence, nurse provides explanation regarding lead as it acts a barrier in passing X-ray and gamma radiations.
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when assessing a multigravida the first postpartum day, the nurse finds a moderate amount of lochia rubra, with the uterus firm, and three fingerbreadths above the umbilicus. what action should the nurse implement first? a. massage the uterus to decrease atony b. check for a distended bladder c. increase intravenous infusion d. review the hemoglobin to determined hemorrhage
action should the nurse implement first is to Check for a distended bladder.
When assessing a woman's lochia on the fifth postpartum day what the nurse expect to find?Lochia (vaginal discharge) (vaginal discharge)
For the first three days following delivery, Lochia is a dark crimson color. No more than a few plum-sized blood clots are typical. The hue of the lochia will be more watery and pinkish to brownish on the fourth through tenth day following delivery.
How will normal lochia appear during the first hour postpartum?Lochia will first appear dark crimson, and the flow can be strong. The lochia should brighten and take on a reddish or brownish color after four to ten days. The lochia should resemble spotting after 10 to 14 days, like what you could experience right before or after your period.
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the long-term care nurse is performing assessments on several of the residents. which are normal age-related physiological changes the nurse should expect to note? select all that apply.
Decline in visual acuity, increased risk of urinary tract infections, and more frequent awakenings after falling asleep.
Short definition of infection:An infection occur when bacteria infect the body, grow, and cause the body to react. Three events are necessary for an infection to occur: Source: Infectious (germ) agent habitats. a vulnerable person who acts as a germ entry point.
For instance, what exactly is an infection?An disease starts when a bacterium harms a person by entering their body. The microbe reproduces and colonizes on that person's body, living off of it. These dangerous microbes proliferate quickly and are contagious. Examples of pathogens include bacteria.
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