When George is the father, there is a 50% chance of having a color blind daughter, but when Gerg is the father, all of the girl children are normal, indicating that George is the father. As a conclusion, option B "George only" is the right response.
Because red, green color blindness is an x linked recessive disease, the defective allele is denoted by x' and the normal allele by x. Gail's genotype will be x'x because she is heterozygous for the trait. George is colorblind, so his gemotype is x'y. a hybrid of Gail and George Color blindness is defined as the inability to see colours normally. Color deficiency is another term for it. Color blindness occurs when a person is unable to distinguish between certain colours.
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what kind of virus is hiv? a herpesvirus a paramyxovirus a retrovirus a complex virus a provirus
Explanation:
Hiv is a retrovirus. Your welcome lol
a more standardized protocol for the kirby-bauer method that allows for greater reliability in results would be to use : (a) agar plate media poured to a specific depth, and (b) bacterial cultures of specific cell densities (macfarland standards).True or False?
The standard protocol for Kirby-Bauer method will provide grater reliability when the media is poured to a specific depth and of specific density.
MH is an agar is used as a well-known medium for the Kirby-Bauer test. It have to be poured into the plate at a sure thickness and a sure pH to yield dependable results. The disk diffusion, or Kirby-Bauer, method, is a not unusualplace check used to decide antibiotic susceptibility . Diffusion checking out works through setting an antibiotic disc onto an agar plate containing bacteria.
Therefore, the given statement is true.
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the mrna molecules used in the moderna (mod) and the pfizer-biontech (p-tech) vaccines contain genetic information for what sars-cov-2 viral component?
The mRNA molecules used in the Moderna (mod) and the Pfizer-BioNTech (p-tech) vaccines contain genetic information for the Spike protein of the SARS-CoV-2 viral component
A protein that emerges from the enveloped virus's surface in the form of a large structure known as a spike or peplomer is referred to as a spike protein or peplomer protein.
Moderna and Pfizer vaccines are based on mRNA and contain genetic information for spike protein. This allows the body to develop immunity to spike protein and defend itself against viral infection.
The Spike protein of SARS-CoV-2 binds to the receptor on the host cell and causes virus-cell membrane fusion, which is essential for the virus's invasion.
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Duchenne muscular dystrophy is caused by a mutation in a gene that comprises 2.5 million base pairs and specifies a protein called dystrophin. However, less than 1% of the gene actually encodes the amino acids in the dystrophin protein. On the basis of what you now know about gene structure and RNA processing in eukaryotic cells, provide a possible explanation for why less than 1% of the gene encodes the dystrophin protein. A. It is likely that the 5′ cap serves as an indicator for a smaller region of the gene to be used for translation of the protein.
B. It is likely that during the splicing process, a majority of the pre‑mRNA is removed in an effort to splice out all the introns.
C. It is likely that the addition of the 5′ cap contributes to the majority of the mRNA degrading, preventing its ability to be used for protein production.
D. It is likely that during the splicing process, a majority of the pre‑mRNA is removed in an effort to splice out all the exons.
From these data, less than 1% of the genes encode the dystrophin protein because it appears that the 5′ cap serves as an indicator for a smaller region of the gene to be used for translation of the protein.
Option A seems to have the right explanation.
Dystrophin is encoded by the DMD gene. The DMD gene is a large sequence but encodes a single protein. Only less than 1% of this large sequence area is responsible for coding the actual protein. This suggests that the remaining DNA sequence of the DMD gene is occupied by too many double intron sequences spliced from the mRNA transcript before translation can occur.
The researchers found that the DMD gene contains several splice sites which are deleted from the main mRNA transcript after transcription has occurred. The actual exonic sequence in the DMD gene is too small, so the probability of a mutation occurring is very low. This is not a normal case of gene silencing as DMD has mutated lesions in which gene silencing has no effect.
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what determines the difference in speed of contraction of the different types of skeletal muscle cells?
The rate of contraction varies depending on whether the myosin ATPase is fast or slow in the skeletal muscle cells.
Muscles are able to produce force and movement because they are organs that have cells that can contract. The skeleton's bones and skeletal muscles work together to produce body movements. It is connected to the diaphragmatic, esophageal, and ocular muscles as well. Skeletal muscle is used for a number of bodily functions, such as swallowing, breathing, and movement. Skeletal muscle contracts largely in reaction to voluntary input, in contrast to both smooth muscle and cardiac muscle.
The physical examination of a patient always includes a test to measure muscle strength and contraction. When a patient complains of weakness during a physical examination, generally in the context of a neurologic condition, the main goal of muscular strength testing is to assess and establish a differential diagnosis.
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Plants can reproduce both sexually and asexually. What are some examples of sexual reproduction in plants? select all that apply.
The genetic material needed for sexual reproduction must come from both parents. The gametes, or sex cells, of the parent plants are both male and female.
What is Reproduction ?To create babies, the genetic material from the male and female gametes is combined. This procedure is known as fertilization. Seeds are the result of sexual reproduction.
Genetic material from both parents is present in seeds that are created by fertilization. As a result, neither of the parent plants' offspring and the offspring are genetically similar. They may be able to survive if the environment changes thanks to their genetic variety.
Pollination, the act of sexual reproduction in flowering plants, is how it happens. Stamens, the male sex organ, and pistils, the female sex organ, are found in flowers.
Therefore, The genetic material needed for sexual reproduction must come from both parents. The gametes, or sex cells, of the parent plants are both male and female.
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in pea plants, the purple allele is sufficient for making purple flowers, even if one of the homologous chromosomes carries the white allele. which of the following statements are true in this case? select all that apply.
In the pea plant experiment, since the purple allele is sufficient in making purple flowers that means it is dominant in the first progeny.
Gregor Mendel was a 19th-century pioneer of genetics who today is remembered almost entirely for two things: being a monk and relentlessly studying different traits of pea plants. Born in 1822 in Austria, Mendel was raised on a farm and attended the University of Vienna in Austria's capital city.
In his pea plant experiment he took seven different traits of pea plant such as - tall, dwarf, white, yellow, wrinkled, round, purple. He performed true breeding - means capable of producing one and only one type of offspring, such as when all daughter plants are round-seeded or axial-flowered.
He observed that the parent generation was the P generation, and it included a P1 plant whose members all displayed one version of a trait and a P2 plant whose members all displayed the other version. The hybrid offspring of the P generation was the F1 (filial) generation. The offspring of the F1 generation was the F2 generation.
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The sequence of nucleotides in a single strand of DNA is shown. TGA - GTG - AAT - CAT. Which of the following represents the complementary DNA strand?
CAG ACA GGC TGC
ACU CAC UUA GUA
ACT CAC TTA GTA
GTC TGT CCG ACG
Problem Set 4 Answers
1a. The template DNA strand, from which the mRNA is synthesized, is 5’ CAAACTACCCTGGGTTGCCAT 3’
(RNA synthesis proceeds in a 5’ à 3’ direction, so the template strand and the mRNA will be complementary to each other)
b. The coding DNA strand, which is complementary to the template strand, is 5’ ATGGCAACCCAGGGTAGTTTG 3’
c. The sequence of the mRNA is 5’ AUGGCAACCCAGGGUAGUUUG 3’
(the sequence of the mRNA is complementary to the template strand and identical to the coding strand with U substituted for T)
d. The third codon is 5’ ACC 3’. Therefore, the corresponding anti-codon is 5’ GGU 3’
2. Below is a table for the genetic code:
T
C
A
G
T
TTT Phe (F)
TTC "
TTA Leu (L)
TTG "
TCT Ser (S)
TCC "
TCA "
TCG "
TAT Tyr (Y)
TAC "
TAA Stop
TAG Stop
TGT Cys (C)
TGC "
TGA Stop
TGG Trp (W)
C
CTT Leu (L)
CTC "
CTA "
CTG "
CCT Pro (P)
CCC "
CCA "
CCG "
CAT His (H)
CAC "
CAA Gln (Q)
CAG "
CGT Arg (R)
CGC "
CGA "
CGG "
A
ATT Ile (I)
ATC "
ATA "
ATG Met (M)
ACT Thr (T)
ACC "
ACA "
ACG "
AAT Asn (N)
AAC "
AAA Lys (K)
AAG "
AGT Ser (S)
AGC "
AGA Arg (R)
AGG "
G
GTT Val (V)
GTC "
GTA "
GTG "
GCT Ala (A)
GCC "
GCA "
GCG "
GAT Asp (D)
GAC "
GAA Glu (E)
GAG "
GGT Gly (G)
GGC "
GGA "
GGG "
a. The following codons can be mutated by one base to produce an amber codon:
CAG Gln
AAG Lys
GAG Glu
TCG Ser
TTG Leu
TGG Trp
TAA Stop
TAT Tyr
TAC Tyr
b. From part a, CAG (Gln) and TGG (Trp) can become amber stop codons through EMS.
c. From part b, both of the resulting amber codons could be suppressed by amber nonsense suppressors generated by EMS.
3a. The codon is the three nucleotide sequence in the mRNA that indicates which amino acid should be incorporated in the growing polypeptide chain. The anticodon is the complementary three nucleotide sequence in the appropriate tRNA.
b. Template strand is the DNA strand off which the mRNA is synthesized. The coding, or non-template, strand is the DNA strand complementary to the template strand; it has the same sequence (except for T for U substitutions) as the mRNA.
c. The Pribnow box is a sequence of six nucleotides (TATAAT) positioned at -10 that signals where transcription initiation should begin in prokaryotic DNA. The Shine-Delgarno sequence is a short, purine-rich region in the mRNA that is complementary to the rRNA within the 16S ribosomal subunit. The sequence signals which AUG acts as the translation start in mRNA.
4a. False, a wobble allows the anticodon in the tRNA to hybridize with different codons in mRNA.
b. False, a frameshift mutation affects all the subsequent amino acids.
c. False, only one codon (AUG) encodes for the start of protein synthesis; three codons signal the end of protein synthesis.
d. False, the wobble is first base (5’ to 3’) in the anticodon.
e. True, RNA can be used as a template for DNA synthesis in a process known as reverse transcription.
f. True. For example, a single base substitution causing CAT to change to AAT would signal a termination.
g. False, the Wobble Hypothesis explains how alternate base pairing can occur with the first nucleotide (going from 5' to 3') in the anticodon.
5a. Digestion of RNA with alkali will cleave the strand after each 3’ phosphate. Therefore, the products remaining will consist of pppNp, Np, and N-OH
b. If RNA was synthesized in the 3’ to 5’ direction (i.e. by adding ribonucleotides to the 5’ end), then the pppNp and Np fragments should be labeled with tritium.
c. If RNA was synthesized in the 5’ to 3’ direction (i.e. by adding ribonucleotides to the 3’ end), then the Np and N-OH fragments should be labeled with tritium.
d. Since the N-OH fragments were labeled with tritium, RNA synthesis must occur in a 5' to 3' direction.
6. In a missense mutation, the new nucleotide alters the codon so as to produce an altered amino acid in the protein product. With a nonsense mutation, the new nucleotide changes a codon that specified an amino acid to one of the stop codons (TAA, TAG, or TGA). Therefore, translation of the messenger RNA transcribed from this mutant gene will stop prematurely.
what led to the commercialization of personal genomic products? a. the increase in understanding of genetics and decrease in price of mapping a genome. b. the decrease in understanding of genetics and increase in price of mapping a genome. c. increased awareness of genetics thanks to the human genome project. d. increased demand for genetic mapping products.
The increase in understanding of genetics and decrease in price of mapping a genome.
The Genetic Code Project was ordered for what reason?The Genome Project (HGP) was indeed a 13-year, multinational undertaking that ran from 1990 to 2003.The full sequence of DNA bases with in human genome and the discovery of all human genes—which would make them available for future biological research—were the main objectives.
What were the human genome projects' primary objectives?Accurately sequencing the human genome's 3 billion nucleotide base pairs was one of the project's objectives.The identification and mapping of every human gene found inside the DNA sequence was a secondary objective.
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what was the consequence of a metal rod driven into the frontal lobe of phineas gage (with similar results to a frontal lobotomy)?
Gage suffered a intense mind harm from an iron rod penetrating his skull, of which he miraculously survived.
After the accident, Gage's persona changed into stated to have modified because of the harm the frontal lobe of his mind. Gage suffered a intense mind harm from an iron rod penetrating his skull, of which he miraculously survived. The consequences after his injury are that he has gone through profound persona adjustments due to his injury. He is regularly stated as having completely misplaced his inhibitions, in order that he commenced to act inappropriately in social situations.
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the first fossils of animals with hard parts appeared about 541 million years ago. what percentage of geologic time does the fossil record represent? express your answer as a percentage with two significant figures
The percentage of geologic time in the fossil record represents 20%.
Remains or traces of previously living things are referred to as fossils. Skeletons, aquatic animal skins, and human and animal imprints on stone are a few examples. The preserved remnants or traces of extinct animals, plants, and other species are known as fossils. Because they demonstrate that earlier life on Earth was distinct from the species present now, fossils are crucial pieces of evidence for evolution. Body fossils (bones and exoskeletons), trace fossils (feces and footprints), and chemofossils are examples of parts of an organism that is typically only partially preserved as fossils (biochemical signals). Paleontologists can classify fossils to establish their evolutionary links between organisms and age them using techniques like radiometric dating.
Therefore, 20% of geologic time is represented in the fossil record.
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if the trp codons in the trpl gene were mutated to encode another amino acid, what would the result be?
Answer: If the Trp codons in the trpL gene were mutated to encode another amino acid, what would the result be? The trp operon would never be transcribed.
until recently it was the widely accepted explanation of macroevolution. this model stated that small changes occur at a steady rate over many millions of years. this is the model of evolution.
Origins, diversifications, & extinctions are examples of macroevolutionary processes that occur on a large scale and require a long period, called geologic time.
Macroevolution includes both studying patterns on the tree of life just above species level and figuring out the mechanisms that are likely to have created these patterns.
Macroevolutionary thinking is useful for providing a more thorough knowledge of the primates' historical evolutionary extinctions. Examples of macroevolutionary processes that take place on a huge scale and require a lengthy period of time, known as geologic time, include origins, diversifications, and extinctions.
To understand such processes, one needs historical evidence, such as fossils from hundreds of millions of years ago or slowly evolving genetic sequences. Broad, protracted evolutionary changes are referred to as macroevolutionary.
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the concentration of solutes in a red blood cell is about a third that of seawater – about 0.3 m. if red blood cells are immersed in pure water, they swell. calculate the osm
The osmotic pressure at 25 °c of red blood cells across the cell membrane from pure water is 7.34atm
What is osmotic pressure?
Osmotic pressure is defined as the pressure that must be applied to the solution side to stop fluid movement when a semipermeable membrane separates a solution from pure water.
What would happen if red blood cells were placed in seawater?
Seawater is hypertonic to the cytoplasm in vertebrate cells and in plant cells. If a red blood cell and a plant cell were placed in seawater, the red blood cell would burst, and the plant cell would shrink.
What is the solute concentration of red blood cells?
Red blood cells have a solute concentration of around 0.9%.
Thus, the osmotic pressure of red blood cells is 7.34atm
Given: Concentration of Red blood cell C=0.30M, R=0.0821, T=298k
Osmotic pressure =CRT
Osmotic pressure=0.3 × 0.0821 × 298
Osmotic pressure =7.33979 ≃ 7.34atm
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Janelle was telling her mom about a dream where she was being chased by wolves. She said she ran and ran and when she woke up, her heart was beating rapidly, and she was very tired. Which gland had secreted a hormone that caused her body to respond in this way?.
Janelle was relating to her mother a dream in which wolves were pursuing her. By testing her we can say its hypothyroidism
Your thyroid gland doesn't generate enough of a few important hormones when you have hypothyroidism (underactive thyroid).
Early on, hypothyroidism may not show any obvious signs. Obesity, joint discomfort, infertility, and heart disease are just a few of the health issues that untreated hypothyroidism can lead to over time.
To identify hypothyroidism, accurate thyroid function tests are available. Once you and your doctor determine the right dose for you, treatment with synthetic thyroid hormone is typically easy, secure, and efficient.
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What is the probability of reinforcement when utilizing an extinction procedure?.
Extinction is a method that offers no chance of reinforcement.
What is an illustration of the extinction of a behavior that has been reinforced negatively?The extinction of behaviors that are maintained by negative reinforcement is another variation of this process. This is what is meant by "avoid extinction." Dannie, for instance, sulks when she refuses to consume her food.
Which of the following is an illustration of a behavior that was reinforced positively being eliminated?For instance, Brian's screaming was positively reinforced by the teachers' social attention to him. Before screaming, he received no attention, but after screaming, he did, and this is how his behavior of screaming was favorably reinforced.
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compare the changes in blood ph, carbon dioxide, and oxygen during sustained exercise. what causes the large increase in respiratory minute volume during exercise
Exercise-induced changes in acid-base and ion balance in normoxic and normobaric hypoxia
Complex alterations in acid-base balance are brought on by both exercise and hypoxia. The current study's goal was to determine if the modified physicochemical approach provides a better understanding of the changes in acid-base homeostasis after vigorous physical activity in normoxic and hypoxia than the conventional Henderson-Hasselbalch technique.
Methods
In this prospective, randomized, crossover trial, 19 healthy males underwent two study days of normoxia (12%) and normobaric hypoxia (12% oxygen, equivalent to an altitude of 4500 m) and exercised on a bicycle ergometer until voluntary exhaustion. Following the exercise test, arterial blood gases were sampled and analysed using the modified physicochemical approach and Henderson-Hasselbalch approach, respectively.
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A glomerulus is:
A) the source of erythropoietin.
B) attached to the collecting duct.
C) a hairpin loop segment of the renal tubule.
D) a set of capillaries within the renal corpuscle.
A glomerulus is the set of capillaries within the renal corpuscle (option D).
What is the glomerulus?Glomerulus is a small intertwined group of capillaries within nephrons of the kidney that filter the blood to make urine.
The kidneys (major excretory organ) remove excess fluid and waste from the body. Blood is filtered in the kidneys through nephrons.
Each nephron contains a network of small blood vessels, called glomerulus, which are enclosed in a sac called Bowman's capsule.
The thin walls of the glomerulus allow smaller molecules, wastes, and fluid (mostly water) to pass into the tubule while larger molecules, such as proteins and blood cells, stay in the blood vessel.
Therefore, glomerulus is a blood vessel in the kidney.
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The _______ are white, membranous folds attached by muscle to the thyroid and arytenoid cartilages of the larynx on their outer edges. The inner edges are free, allowing oscillation to produce sound.
true vocal folds
The muscles that make up the vocal folds' actual body are known as thyroarytenoid. By dragging the vocal folds' arytenoid (back) end toward their thyroid (front) end, they shorten the vocal folds.
What is the purpose of the thyroarytenoid muscle?The muscles that make up the vocal folds' actual body are known as thyroarytenoid. By dragging the vocal folds' arytenoid (back) end toward the thyroid (front) end, they shorten the vocal folds.
Who or what names the vocal folds?Vocal folds (also known as vocal cords) are extraordinary organs that act as an airway valve and vibrate to produce voice. The vocal folds are multilayer organs made up of a muscle and a mucosal layer. The area between both the two vocal folds is known as the glottis.
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Which of the following is a characteristic of sexual reproduction? Select all that apply.
A. Requires two parent organisms
B. Offspring are identical to the parent
C. Results in increasing the survival rate of the population
D. Extremely efficient
E. Can occur internally or externally
F. Offspring are genetically unique
Answer:
A, C, F
Explanation:
Suppose that, with regard to a particular gene with two alleles, a and a, we know that 60% of the alleles in the gene pool of a particular large population are a. We observe this population for five generations, during which we know that no mutation, selection, or migration has occurred. After this period, the frequency of the a allele is expected to be _____.
The frequency of the a allele is expected to be the appropriate response is: 0.4 .
Given that genotype and allele frequencies in populations are not changing, this is an illustration of the Hardy-Weinberg Principle in action. This indicates that frequencies don't change from generation to generation in the absence of evolutionary forces like founder effect, genetic drift, mate choice, natural selection, sexual selection, mutation, gene flow, and meiotic drive.
This concept also states that HW equilibrium exists: P2+2pq+q2=1 or p+q=1, where p is the frequency of one allele and q is the frequency of another allele; p2 is the frequency of one homozygous genotype (q2 of another), and 2pq is the frequency of heterozygous genotypes.
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diabetes and insulin signaling by kristy j wilson why does it make sense that mia’s grandfather may be more fatigued than a non diabetic
Mia's father would definitely be more fatigued because the body is unable to utilize the glucose available for energy.
What is diabetes?Diabetes is defined as the metabolic disorder whereby the pancreatic islet cells do not secrete insulin or secretes less insulin which should be used by the body for the metabolism of glucose.
The clinical manifestations found in an individual with diabetes include the following:
excessive hunger, excessive thirst, or fatiguefrequent urination, blurred vision, andpoor wound healing.The effective metabolism of glucose provides the body with ready energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) which is used for cellular activities such as muscular activities.
Therefore, Mia's grandfather may feel fatigued because of poor metabolism of glucose.
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examine the age structure diagrams and determine whether each of the countries represented has a growing population, a stable population, or a declining population
The rate of births and deaths determines population increase. The populations pyramids of various nations are discussed in just this ecological systems theory lecture on age structure diagrams.
A model that forecasts the rate of population growth using a shape is an age structure diagram. The bars depict different age groups from newborns to teens to reproduce to post-reproductive, and the graph displays a comparative ratio for males to girls. An age-structure diagram offers a picture of the current population, can represent historical data, and may offer hints about prospective issues in the future. The breadth of the base should always be compared to the size of the population when evaluating age-structure graphs. Age structure diagrams in nations with rapid development have a pyramidal form, indicating a majority of younger people, many of whom are currently or soon will be of reproductive age.
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sieve-tube elements are food-conducting plant cells that are part of the a) xylem. b) sclereids. c) tracheids. d) phloem.
Sieve-tube elements are food-conducting plant cells that are part of the d) phloem.
Phloem is a transport network that functions to transport and distribute food substances from photosynthesis from leaves to all parts of the plant. Phloem will transport dissolved substances, sap, around the plant. Phloem tissue is composed of pyramid-shaped cells. Phloem consists of fibers, companion cells, sieve tubes, and phloem parenchyma.
Sieve-tube elements are the main conducting cells in the phloem which have a special role. Conducting cells assist in the transport of molecules especially in long distance signaling and their pores allow connections between the cytoplasm and neighboring cells. The sieve will also serve as a conduit for transporting sugar over long distances.
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fatigue caused by depletion of glycogen stores and declining blood glucose during exercise is sometimes called
Answer:
Neuroglucopenia is the right answer
Explanation:
Test 2022
which two ecosystems are well known for the fact that they make excellent nurseries for infant and juvenile fish?
Answer:
Acquatic ecosystem and terrestrial ecos
Athletes who train at high altitudes increase their red blood cell count, which increases their oxygen supply during exercise. Increased oxygen supply results in __________. A. increased glycolysis B. increased use of myokinase C. longer aerobic respiration D. longer anaerobic fermentation E. reduced ATP consumption
C. Longer aerobic respiration.
High altitude physiology-
As we move away from the sea level with increasing altitude there is decrease in the atmospheric pressure. Decreased atmospheric pressure initially produce tissue hypoxia. The body adapts to this with cellular adaptations like increased RBCs, decreased affinity of oxygen to the hemoglobin and increased respiratory capacity. This phenomenon is also called acclimatization. Increased red blood cell count and various other adaptive measures lead to increased tissue oxygen supply.
Increased oxygen supply-
There are two pathways by which our body drives its energy needs. One is the aerobic pathway and other one being the anaerobic pathway. Anaerobic pathway which takes place in low oxygen conditions leads to formation of fatigue generating metabolites like lactic acid. Aerobic pathway is preferred as it gives high energy without production of dangerous metabolites. So increased oxygen supply leads to longer aerobic respiration.
So there will be a longer aerobic respiration.
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The presence of many red blood cells in the urine during a microscopic examination is known as ________.
Blood in the urine is known as hemoturia. Gross or visible hematuria refers to the presence of crimson or pink urine, which may indicate the presence of blood in the urine. The term "microscopic" hematuria refers to hematuria in which blood occasionally occurs in the urine but is difficult to detect since it can only be seen under a microscope.
Why are there red blood cells in the urine?The presence of more RBCs than usual in the urine could be caused by: cancer of the bladder, kidneys, or urinary system. kidney damage or inflammation. prostate issues
What does urine with tiny blood mean?A typical sign of glomerulonephritis, an inflammation of the kidneys' filtering system, is microscopic urinary bleeding. Possibly, glomerulonephritis.
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4) dna ligase has the ability to relax supercoiled circular dna in the presence of amp, but not in its absence. a) what is the mechanism of this reaction and why does it depend on amp? b) how could you determine that supercoiled dna had in fact been relaxed?
The mechanism behind the given reaction is the formation of the enzyme-AMP complex. The AMP supports this complex formation. The gel electrophoresis technique will help to determine whether the supercoiling in the DNA has in fact been relaxed.
a) In a three-step process, the ATP-dependent DNA ligases link single-stranded breaks (nicks) in the phosphodiester backbone of double-stranded DNA. The creation of a covalent enzyme-AMP complex (intermediate) is the initial stage in the ligation reaction.
A highly conserved lysine residue in the ligase's active region is covalently linked to AMP when the cofactor ATP is broken into pyrophosphate and AMP. The 5' phosphate of the nick receives the activated AMP residue, after which the nick is sealed by the formation of a phosphodiester bond and the removal of AMP.
b) The gel electrophoresis technique helps analyze the DNA. This technique uses an electric field to separate the DNA fragments based on size and charge. Supercoiled DNA moves faster than relaxed or open circular DNA in gel electrophoresis. And relaxed DNA migrates slowly and is found closer to the well. This way, we will find whether the DNA is relaxed or supercoiled.
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last time we ran our simulation we examined factors like climate (rainfall), resources (food), and boundaries (fences). think about our last two lessons.... what are two factors we can add to our simulation to determine if some factors have a bigger effect on the ecosystem? answer text
Mountains can have an impact on the climate. As air is driven over the higher land, it cools, causing moist air to condense and fall out as rain, hence mountains receive more rainfall than low-lying locations.
The temperature will decrease as elevation above sea level increases. Temperature and precipitation are the two main determinants of a region's climate. Of course it matters what the area's average annual temperature is, but it also matters what the annual temperature range is. Numerous interrelated factors have an impact on a location's climate. Latitude, elevation, adjacent water, currents in the ocean, geography, vegetation, and prevailing winds are a few of these. Climate change's effects include rising temperatures, altered precipitation patterns, and an increase in the frequency or intensity of
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