The measures that the nurse should include in the client's plan of care to prevent a thyroid crisis are to "provide a quiet, low-stimulus environment". The correct answer is A.
This question only provides answer choices with no conditions to analyze. Here is the complete question:
A nurse is caring for a client admitted with a diagnosis of hyperthyroidism. The client reports a weight loss of 12 pounds in the past two months, despite an increased appetite. The additional symptoms include increased perceptions, menstrual irregularities, and restlessness. Which of the following measures should the nurse include in the client's plan of care to prevent a thyroid crisis?As mentioned above, the actions the nurse should take to prevent a thyroid crisis are to "provide a quiet, low-stimulus environment". Although stress does not cause hyperthyroidism, the two are not unrelated. Physical or emotional stress can worsen hyperthyroidism symptoms in people who already have them. Hence, providing a quiet, low-stimulus environment is an important measure that the nurse must include to avoid a thyroid crisis.
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the nurse is taking care of a client who had a laryngectomy yesterday. to assure client safety, the nurse should give hand-off of care reports at which times? select all that apply.
When handing out care reports, the nurse should ensure client safety. Change of nurses and shift when nurse leaves for lunch.
How should the airway be managed in a patient who has had a laryngectomy?A pediatric facemask can be worn over the laryngeal stoma to perform preoxygenation and ventilation, respectively. Other options include covering the stoma with the end of a catheter mount or an inflated laryngeal mask airway.
Where should a laryngectomy patient be ventilated?Naturally, the stoma is the only way to get oxygen to the lungs if the patient had a laryngectomy. Try face-mask oxygenation or ventilation through the upper airways if these approaches don't work.
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the nurse is eliciting a health history from a client with ulcerative colitis which factor would the nurse considered to be the most likely associated with the clients. colitis
The factors that nurses perceive to be most likely to be related to their patients when treating ulcerative colitis include diarrhea, weight loss, abdominal cramps, anemia, and blood or pus in bowel movements.
Which details are crucial for the nurse to include in the lesson plan for a patient who has been diagnosed with Crohn's disease and admitted to the hospital?Knowing the typical Crohn's Disease signs and symptoms, the many forms of Crohn's Disease, and the medications used to treat the condition is crucial for a nurse caring for a patient with the condition.
When tending to a patient who has undergone abdominal surgery, what should the nurse concentrate on?recognizing bleeding symptoms. A thoracotomy patient who is postoperative is under the nurse's care.
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which of the following is not a purpose of the requisition lab slip? a. ensure the physician or other authorized individual has made an independent medical necessity decision with regard to each test the organization will bill b. encourage physicians or other authorized individuals to submit the diagnosis information for all tests ordered c. capture the correct program information d. contain a statement that indicates medicare generally covers all routine screening test
Therefore, the appropriate response is (d) contain a statement indicating that Medicare typically pays all routine screening tests; however, this statement was not intended to be included in the request lab slip.
What is meant by screening test?When a person does not exhibit any symptoms of a condition, a screening test is performed to look for probable health issues or diseases. The objective is early identification, lifestyle modifications, or surveillance to lower the risk of disease or to identify it early enough to receive the best possible care. Carrier screening tests are in two primary categories: molecular (analyzing the DNA-genetic code) and biochemical (measuring enzyme activity). Pap smear, mammography, clinical breast examination, measurement of blood pressure and cholesterol, eye and vision tests, and urinalysis.
What is the purpose of screening?Doctors utilize screenings, which are medical exams, to look for illnesses and other issues before any symptoms or signs appear. Screenings assist in identifying issues early on, possibly when they are simpler to treat. One of the most crucial things you can do for your health is to get the necessary screenings.
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6. which primary interventions are most appropriate for the client who survived an earthquake and is presenting with sharp abdominal pain; decreased pulse pressure; decreased level of consciousness; cool, clammy skin; and decreased urine output? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Ensuring patent airway
Utilizing a non-rebreather mask
Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter.
What is a urinary catheter?
In order to allow urine to drain from the bladder and be collected, a latex, polyurethane, or silicone tube known as a urinary catheter is placed into the bladder through the urethra. Additionally, it can be used to inject liquids for the diagnosis or therapy of bladder problems. Through the use of a flexible tube known as a catheter, urinary catheterization is a procedure used to empty the bladder and collect urine. In hospitals or the community, doctors or nurses typically insert urinary catheters. The catheter itself must be changed out at least every three months. Although a doctor or nurse typically performs this task, you or your caretaker may occasionally be able to learn how to do it.
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How many human sperm cells are in the typical race to reach and fertilize a human ovum?.
the nurse is monitoring a client who appears to be hallucinating. the client displays paranoid speech content, seems agitated, and gestures at a figure on the television. which nursing interventions are appropriate? select all that apply.
Reiterate that there is no danger to the client. Recognize the hallucinations presence. Use a soft voice and basic instructions. False perceptions of sensory events are hallucinations and pshycosis.
Some hallucinations, like those brought on by dozing off or waking up, are typical. Others, however, can be a symptom of a more severe condition like schizophrenia, dementia, or a disorder related to pshycosis. False perceptions of things or occasions involving your senses sight, hearing, smell, touch, and taste are known as hallucinations. Although hallucinations appear real, they are not.
Hallucinations are brought on by chemical interactions and/or abnormalities in the brain. Although hallucinations are frequently a sign of a psychosis related disorder, particularly schizophrenia, they can also be brought on by substance abuse, some transitory ailments, and neurological issues. Although hallucinations are frequently a sign of a psychosis related disorder, particularly schizophrenia, they can also be brought on by substance abuse, some transitory ailments, and neurological issues.
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to prevent gastroesophageal reflux in a client with hiatal hernia, the nurse should provide which discharge instruction?
Stay away from alcohol and caffeine. The nurse should encourage the client to stay away from certain foods and beverages to prevent stomach acid from refluxing into the esophagus.
How bad is gastroesophageal disease?
If GERD is left untreated, it can develop into a problem as the stomach acid damages the esophageal lining over time, causing inflammation and discomfort. Adults with untreated, persistent GERD run the danger of permanent esophageal damage.
Why does gastroesophageal develop?
Your LES opens to let food enter your stomach during regular digestion. Then it closes to prevent food and stomach juices that are acidic from returning to your esophagus. When the LES is weak or relaxes when it shouldn't, gastroesophageal reflux results. This enables the contents of the stomach to ascend into the esophagus.
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the nurse enters the room of a client and, without the use of the stethoscope, can hear the client wheezing. how should the nurse document this finding in the medical record?
Using a stethoscope, the nurse listens to the child's breath sounds as they enter and exit each lung lobe, anterior and posterior.
What are the justifications for a nurse to do a client nursing assessment?The nurse evaluates the client to ascertain whether interventions are successful as part of the nursing process.
1. To gather baseline data; 2. To create a nursing care plan
3. To determine whether actions are effective
continual evaluation
appraisal particular to a system.
physical examination with focus.
Which pain grading systems are employed to assess a client's level of suffering?Verbal rating scales, numerical rating scales, and visual analogue scales are the three methods that are most frequently used to measure the severity of pain. Common terms are used in verbal descriptor scales (VRSs).
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a patient with a spinal cord injury is complaining of pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath, and is very anxious. these manifestations would most likely correlate with which complication?
These symptoms would very certainly be related to pulmonary embolism (PE) (p. 1205).
What is spinal cord injury?Damage to the spinal cord or the nerves at the cauda equina, the end of the spinal canal, can result in a spinal cord injury, which frequently results in permanent alterations to strength, sensation, and other bodily functions below the location of the lesion. It could seem as though every part of your life has been impacted if your spinal cord was suddenly harmed. Your injury may have psychological, emotional, and social repercussions. Many scientists are confident that future research developments will make it possible to repair spinal cord injuries. There are active research projects all throughout the world. Many people with spinal cord injuries may live active, independent lives in the interim because to medical interventions and therapy.
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the nurse working with patients with cognitive disorders uses a specialized therapeutic and trust-building technique called reminiscence therapy. this intervention is characterized by which one?
Answer:
Encouraging residents to talk about pleasurable past events.
Explanation:
a nurse is teaching parents strategies to encourage healthy eating behaviors in children. what points would be important to include
The most beneficial advice to give parents of a 7-month-old girl on good eating patterns is to introduce new foods gradually over time.
Why is healthy eating important?
For optimal nutrition and health, a nutritious diet is necessary. You are protected from many lengthy, noncommunicable illnesses like cancer, diabetes, and heart disease. A healthy diet must include a variety of foods and be low in salt, sugar, trans fats, and trans fats made in factories.
Why is altering one's eating habits important?
You can get all the energy you need to stay active all day long from a diet that is balanced. You need certain nutrients for growth and repair, which will keep you strong and healthy and assist you in avoiding diseases like its some cancers which are linked to diet.
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a client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (aldactone). which information is most important for the nurse to provide to the client about diet modifications?
Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone antagonist, is a potassium-sparing diuretic and should be avoided if your diet contains a lot of potassium because it can cause hyperkalemia.
Which practice needs to be carried out by the nurse before administration?Before administering the drug, the nurse must make sure the patient's identify matches the MAR and the medication label to make sure the right patient is receiving it.
What medications should the client be advised against taking while receiving an opioid analgesic by the nurse?Avoid writing concurrent prescriptions for benzodiazepines, opioids, or other sedative-hypnotic drugs. When giving opioid prescriptions to people who regularly take benzodiazepines or other sedative-hypnotic drugs, proceed with utmost caution.
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a nurse is performing a physical assessment on a client with gastrointestinal distress. which assessment(s) should the nurse perform? select all that apply.
Inspection, auscultation, and mild abdominal palpation will all be part of the assessment process for the nurse in order to find any apparent abnormalities as well as bowel sounds and softness/tenderness.
What is gastrointestinal distress?A series of digestive conditions known as gastric distress are characterized by prolonged constipation, bloating, reflux, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, stomach pain, and cramping. These gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms might be brought on by autoimmune illnesses, food allergies, intolerances, or infections.
reflux of acid. Acid reflux, commonly known as gastroesophageal reflux disease, is more likely to cause stomach discomfort.
Bowel inflammation disorders
stomach ulcers
Intolerance to lactose.
Gallstones.
Such issues may be brought on by foodborne bacteria, infections, stress, particular drugs, or long-term illnesses including colitis, Crohn's disease, and IBS. Anyone who experiences frequent stomach issues, however, must deal with difficulties every day and potential humiliation.
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the nurse is preparing to discharge a client who is partially paralyzed after a stroke. which | behaviors would the nurse alert the family of as symptoms of caregiver role strain? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
erratic sleeping habits, decreased weight and appetite, and anxiety when giving the client medication
Why do drugs get prescribed?Chemicals or other substances are called "medicines" when they are used to treat, halt, or prevent disease, lessen symptoms, or aid in the diagnosis of illnesses. A number of diseases can now be cured and lives can be saved thanks to medical advancements. A wide range of sources produce medicines nowadays.
What kinds of drugs are exceptional ones?A specialty drug is a prescription drug that is either an expensive oral medication, a self-administered (non-diabetic) injectable medication, a medication that needs special handling, administration, or monitoring, or a medication that is an expensive injectable or self-administered (diabetic) injectable medication.
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which are important points for the nurse to consider when working with clients with disruptive behavior disorders and their families? select all that apply.
Points for the nurse to consider when working with clients with disruptive behavior disorders and their families are: remember to focus on the client's strength and assets and their problems, avoid "blaming" attitude toward clients or families and focus on positive actions to improve behaviors.
What is a disruptive behavior disorder?It is believed that there is not one single root cause for disruptive behavior disorders but are thought to be the result of genetic, physical, and environmental risk factors working simultaneously.
Common types of disruptive behavior disorder are oppositional defiant disorder and conduct disorder.
To fix disruptive behavior: acknowledge the feelings of the individual, address the disruption individually and immediately.
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a patient with asthma is prescribed albuterol [proventil], 2 puffs 3 times a day. the nurse should teach the patient to do what?
The nurse should instruct the client on how to take Albuterol should be given first, followed by Fluticasone five minutes later.
Which do you take first, Ventolin or Flovent?The patient is given the asthma medication inhaled Fluticasone (Flovent HFA) and inhaled Albuterol (Ventolin HFA) by the doctor. How will you, the nurse, deliver these medications? A. Administer Fluticasone first, followed by Albuterol five minutes later.
What type of corticosteroid would a nurse directly inhale into a patient?Fluticasone oral inhalation is used to treat asthma symptoms in both adults and children, including breathing difficulties, chest discomfort, coughing, and wheezing. It belongs to the corticosteroid drug family.
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the nurse suspects that a newborn infant who presents with bilateral flank masses, impaired lung development, and oliguria may be suffering from which disorder?
The nurse suspects that a newborn infant who presents with bilateral flank masses, impaired lung development, and oliguria may be suffering from Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPD).
What is Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPD)?One in 20,000 children have autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD), an uncommon hereditary condition. 8. Kidney cysts that are fluid-filled in an infant or fetus with ARPKD might expand or make the kidneys overly big. Even when still in the pregnancy, ARPKD can lead to impaired kidney function in children.Hence, The nurse suspects that a newborn infant who presents with bilateral flank masses, impaired lung development, and oliguria may be suffering from Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPD).
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the advanced practice nurse is caring for a patient with chronic low back pain. in the provision of care for this patient, the apn wants to determine the best evidence based practice regardign these guidelines. what is the best database for the nruse to access?
The best database for the nurse to access is The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ).
Clinical guidelines and evidence summaries are available from the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ). Studies in medicine, nursing, dentistry, psychiatry, veterinary medicine, and allied health are included in MEDLINE. Biomedical and pharmacological studies are included in EMBASE. PsycINFO covers psychology and allied medical specialties.
The mission of the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) is to produce evidence to improve the safety, caliber, accessibility, equity, and affordability of health care and to collaborate with other partners and the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services to ensure that the evidence is utilized.
The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality is operated by the United States Department of Health and Human Services.
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a 75-year-old man was admitted to the hospital for altered mental status. he had been in his usual state of good health until this morning when a nurse at the long-term care facility where he lives noticed that he was confused. shortly after being admitted to the hospital, he became combative and had to be restrained. his bed linens have to be changed frequently because of urinary incontinence. which nursing diagnosis best describes this client's condition?
The loss of total body sodium leads to volume depletion, also known as extracellular fluid (ECF) volume contraction. The use of diuretics, excessive perspiration, diarrhoea, burns, and renal failure are among the causes.
What transpires when the extracellular fluid level rises?Water will move from the cell into the extracellular space to balance the osmotic gradient if the ECF osmolarity rises due to a disruption; nonetheless, the total body osmolarity will stay higher than usual, and the cell will contract.
The creatinine urine test quantifies the creatinine content of the urine. A blood test can also be used to measure creatinine.
Inadequate ECF volume primarily impairs cardiovascular function by reducing plasma volume and, in certain circumstances, by resulting in circulatory shock.
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a client presents to the clinic reporting symptoms that suggest diabetes. what criteria would support checking blood levels for the diagnosis of diabetes?
A client presents the criteria would support checking blood levels for the Fasting blood sugar test would support checking blood levels for the diagnosis of diabetes.
Doctor check your blood sugar levels after a night of fasting (not eating). Prediabetes is defined as having a fasting blood sugar level between 100 and 125 mg/dL, diabetes as above 126 mg/dL, and normal blood sugar as less than 99 mg/dL.
Before a fasting blood glucose test, you might need to go without food for eight to ten hours. Before a blood test for iron, you might need to fast for 12 hours.
You should refrain from eating or drinking anything other than water for eight to twelve hours before to the fasting glucose test.
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alexandra measured her waist before going shopping for clothes. it measured 36 inches. what is her level of obesity-related health risk based on her waist circumference?
Increased waist circumference is greater than 40 inches.
What is the waist size that increases a woman's risk of disease?Waist Circumference This risk increases for women with waist sizes greater than 35 inches and for males with waist sizes greater than 40 inches. Place a tape measure around your center, slightly above your hipbones, while standing to get an accurate waist measurement.
What is the measurement of my waist in inches?Locate the bottom of your ribs and the top of your hip bone. Breathe normally out. Wrap the measuring tape around your waist, putting it halfway between these two points. Look over your measurements.
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when caring for a client in the medical clinic who has tried to lose weight multiple times, the client asks the nurse if she should try a high-protein, very low-calorie restricted diet. the nurse encourages her to seek guidance from the health care provider as these diets may cause which complication?
A high-protein, very low-calorie restricted diet may cause dehydration, and gallstones.
Dehydration will have causes that are not thanks to underlying malady. Examples embrace heat, excessive activity, meager fluid consumption, excessive sweating or medication facet effects. As you lose fluid, your blood becomes a lot of focused, creating your circulatory system work tougher to expeditiously pump blood.
Gallstones are hardened deposits of juice which will kind in your bladder. Your bladder may be a tiny, pear-shaped organ on the correct facet of your abdomen, simply below your liver. The bladder holds a juice known as gall that is discharged into your small intestine.
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the nurse is teaching about prevention of hepatitis a. which group does the nurse suggest will benefit from this vaccine?
People in the following groups should receive the vaccine because they are at an increased risk of contracting HAV: individuals who are homeless. individuals who share a home with an infectious person in hepatitis A.
Which of the following is the best sign of a recent hepatitis A virus infection?Almost all acute hepatitis A patients show detectable IgM anti-HAV. The presence of IgM anti-HAV in serum during the acute or early convalescent phase of infection confirms an acute HAV infection.
Can drinking cause hepatitis A?Hepatitis refers to liver inflammation. The liver is a crucial organ that filters blood, processes nutrients, and fights infections. The liver's function can be affected by inflammation or injury.
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A nurse is reviewing the plan of care with a client who has a new prescription for lovastatin. Which of the following statements by the client should indicate to the nurse a need for further assessment?
a. "I was just diagnosed with hepatitis B."
b. "I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice."
c. "I take metformin for my diabetes."
d. "I am trying to decrease my dietary fat intake."
d. "I am trying to decrease my dietary fat intake."
The client should indicate the nurse by saying: "I am trying to decrease my dietary fat intake."
What is cholesterol ?
A class of drugs known as HMG CoA reductase inhibitors includes lovastatin (statins). It functions by reducing the amount of cholesterol that may accumulate on the artery walls and obstruct blood flow to the heart, brain, and other organs of the body. This is done by delaying the body's creation of cholesterol.
a waxy, fat-like material that is produced in the liver and is present in all of the body's cells, including the blood. In addition to being necessary for the formation of hormones, tissues, cell walls, vitamin D, and bile acid, cholesterol is crucial for optimum health.
You can form fatty deposits in your blood vessels if you have high cholesterol. Over time, these deposits thicken and restrict the amount of blood that can pass through your arteries. These deposits can occasionally suddenly separate and form a clot that results in a heart attack or stroke.
Chronic stress raises stress hormone levels over time, which can result in over time raised blood pressure, blood sugar, cholesterol, and/or triglycerides.
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a client has just received stem cell transplantation as treatment for leukemia. what are the post procedural nursing interventions for clients receiving any form of stem cell transplantation?
Healthy stem cells are given to a patient during a technique known as stem cell transplantation (SCT), often known as a bone marrow transplant.
What happens after a leukemia stem cell transplant?Patients undergoing stem cell transplants run the risk of complications. These consist of: Infection: The body's immune system is compromised during leukemia treatment and after a stem cell transplant. A person is more susceptible as a result to severe bacterial, fungal, and viral infections.
What steps take place in the stem cell transplant process?Harvesting is the procedure of gathering stem cells from you or a donor to be used in the transplant. Treatment that gets your body ready for the transplant is called conditioning. the stem cells being transplanted.
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A common radiologic diagnostic manifestation of fibrotic restrictive disease is the appearance of?.
Common radiologic diagnostic manifestation of fibrotic restrictive disease is the appearance of : honeycomb lung.
What happens in fibrotic restrictive disease?Restrictive lung diseases keeps the lungs from expanding fully and therefore limiting how much air a person can breathe in. This term covers several chronic conditions like pulmonary fibrosis and various neuromuscular diseases.
Some of the examples of restrictive lung diseases are asbestosis, sarcoidosis and pulmonary fibrosis. Long-standing pulmonary fibrosis increases your risk of developing lung cancer. When restrictive lung disease is caused by a lung condition, it is difficult to be treated and eventually becomes fatal. Life expectancy depends on various factors and the most significant is how severe the disease is.
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a 27-year-old woman diagnosed with borderline personality disorder displays a labile affect, impulsivity, frequent angry outbursts, and difficulty tolerating her angry feelings without self-injury. a priority nursing diagnosis for this patient is:
a 27-year-old woman diagnosed with borderline personality disorder displays a labile affect, impulsivity, frequent angry outbursts, and difficulty tolerating her angry feelings without self-injury. a priority nursing diagnosis for this patient is: bulimia and a borderline personality disorder
Safety and close observation are the nurse's top priorities when arranging care for a 27-year-old lady who was admitted to your unit with bulimia and a borderline personality disorder.Bulimia is a type of eating disorder that is linked to mental health issues and is characterized by an abnormal urge to reduce weight and may require treatment in a psychiatric facility.As a result of this information, it is clear that bulimia is an eating disorder that requires care in appropriate professional settings, with borderline personality disorder displays a labile affect, impulsivity, frequent angry outbursts, and difficulty tolerating her angry feelings without self-injury.
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taking a nutrition class during college has been shown to increase intake of fruits and vegetables. this is an example of which food-intake influence?
Consuming a variety of fruits and vegetables might help reduce the risk of illnesses including some cancers, heart disease, and high blood pressure. Fruits and vegetables can also aid with bone and tooth formation, as well as feeling invigorated.
What nutrients do fruits and vegetables provide? What is the significance of this food group?Fruits and vegetables are high in vitamins, minerals, and phytochemicals. They are also high in fibre. There are numerous fruit and vegetable kinds available, as well as numerous ways to prepare, cook, and serve them. A fruit and vegetable-rich diet can help prevent you against cancer, diabetes, and heart disease.
Time restrictions, unhealthy snacking, convenience high-calorie food, stress, and high pricing of healthy food were all common impediments to good eating.
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the nurse is assessing a 3-day-postoperative client and the incision site. the nurse notes a moderate pinkish exudate on the dressing. this drainage is called .
Serosanguineous drainage is a somewhat pinkish exudate that appears on the dressing.
Which dressing would you apply to a wound with mild exudates?Use foam dressings, alginate dressings, or hydroactive dressings. Add a non-adherent, highly absorbent dressing on top. A foam dressing can also be combined with an alternate alginate dressing. AIM: Eliminate infection, lessen odor, absorb exudate, and safeguard.
What kind of exudates are signs of an infection?Exudate that turns thick and milky or that turns yellow, tan, gray, green, or brown is usually always an indication of infection. White blood cells, dead bacteria, wound debris, and inflammatory cells are all present in this discharge.
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a 40-week gestation primigravida client is being induced with an oxytocin (pitocin) secondary infusion and complains of pain in her lower back. which intervention should the nurse implement?
A 40-week pregnant primigravida patient who is having an oxytocin (Pitocin) secondary infusion is complaining of lower back pain.
During the fourth stage of labor, which nursing intervention is most important?Identification and prevention of hemorrhage during the fourth stage of childbirth are top nursing priorities. 24. The nurse will make an effort to encourage cervical effacement and increase contractions in a patient whose status is uncertain.
Which course of action should the nurse take for a client at 36 weeks?Which nursing intervention is most crucial to carry out for a patient who is admitted with vaginal bleeding at 36 weeks gestation? Observe the uterine contractions. Place a client's bottom on disposable pads.
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