Please help! THIS IS A EASY ONE, HOPEFULLY.

Answer:

We know the momentum after the collision MUST be equal to the momentum BEFORE the collision.  

Momentum is a VECTOR quantity having both magnitude and direction.  The first ball has momentum P =m*v = 2*4 = 8 at 90degrees.  The second ball has momentum P = 1*8 = 8 at -90 or 270 degrees.  They sum to zero when you perform vector addition.

Explanation:

Answer:It will take about 3000 years

Explanation:

Answer:

The horizontal and vertical distances are x = 210 m and y = -240.35 m, respectively.

Explanation:

Using the equation of the displacement in the x-direction, we have:

(let's recall we have a constant velocity in this direction)

[tex]x=v_{ix}t[/tex]

Where:

[tex]x=30(7)[/tex]    

[tex]x=210\: m[/tex]    

Now, we need to use the equation of the displacement in the y-direction to find the vertical distance. Here we have an acceleration (g)

[tex]y=v_{iy}t-\frac{1}{2}gt^2[/tex]

Where:

Then, the vertical position at 7 s is:

[tex]y=-\frac{1}{2}(9.81)(7)^2[/tex]

[tex]y=-240.35\: m[/tex]

Therefore, the horizontal and vertical distances are x = 210 m and y = -240.35 m, respectively. The minus sign means the negative value in the y-direction.

I hope it helps you!

Answer:

See explanation

Explanation:

From the formula;

0.693/t1/2 = 2.303/t log (Ao/A)

t1/2 = half life of Sodium-24

Ao = initial activity of Sodium-24

A= activity of Sodium-24 at time = t

So,

0.693/15 = 2.303/15 log (800/A)

0.0462 = 0.1535  log (800/A)

0.0462/0.1535 =  log (800/A)

0.3 = log (800/A)

Antilog(0.3) =  (800/A)

1.995 =  (800/A)

A = 800/1.995

A = 401 Bq

ii) 0.693/15 = 2.303/30 log (800/A)

0.0462 = 0.0768 log (800/A)

0.0462/0.0768 =  log (800/A)

0.6 =  log (800/A)

Antilog (0.6) =  (800/A)

3.98 =  (800/A)

A = 800/3.98

A = 201 Bq

iii)

0.693/15 = 2.303/45 log (800/A)

0.0462 = 0.0512  log (800/A)

0.0462/0.0512  =  log (800/A)

0.9 = log (800/A)

Antilog (0.9) =  (800/A)

7.94 = (800/A)

A = 800/7.94

A= 100.8 Bq

iv)

0.693/15 = 2.303/60 log (800/A)

0.0462 = 0.038 log (800/A)

0.0462/0.038 = log (800/A)

1.216 = log (800/A)

Antilog(1.216) = (800/A)

16.44 = (800/A)

A = 800/16.44

A = 48.66 Bq

Answer:

is there a. b.  c  or d?

Explanation:

This question is incomplete, the missing image is uploaded along this answer below;

Answer:

a) the required angular acceleration magnitude α is  π rad/s² or 3.14 rad/s²

b) the time at which the contact occur is 8 seconds

Explanation:

Given the data in the question;

first we convert the given angular velocity to rad/s

angular velocity = 240 rpm = ((240/60) × 2π ) = 8π rad/s

so

ωA = 8π rad/s

next we determine angular acceleration at point A; so

ωA = at

8π rad/s = at -------let this be equation

thus, angular acceleration of disk A is ωA and rotates in counter clockwise direction.

Next we determine the velocity of point C;

Vc = rA × ωA

where Vc is velocity at point C, rA is radius of A ( 150/1000)m,  { from the diagram }

so we substitute

Vc = 0.15m × 8π

Vc = 1.2π m/s

for angular velocity at point B;

Vc = rB × ωB

where rB is the radius of B ( 200/1000)m

we substitute

1.2π = 0.2 × ωB

ωB = 1.2π / 0.2

ωB = 6π rad/s

Thus, the wheel B rotates with an angular velocity of 6π rad/s in clock wise direction.

Now,

a) Determine the required angular acceleration magnitude α

we find the the angular acceleration of disk B after 2 seconds, using the expression;

ωB = at

where angular acceleration is a and t is time ( t - 2)

we substitute

ωB = at

6π = a( t - 2) -------- let this be equation 2

now, lets substract equation 1 form equation 2

(6π = a( t - 2)) - (8π = at)

(6π = at - 2a) - ( 8π = at)

-2π = 0 + -2a

2π = 2a

a = 2π/2

a = π rad/s² or 3.14 rad/s²

Therefore, the required angular acceleration magnitude α is  π rad/s² or 3.14 rad/s²

b) determine the time at which the contact occurs;

from equation 1

8π = at

we substitute in the value of a

8π = π × t

t = 8π / π

t = 8 seconds

Therefore, the time at which the contact occur is 8 seconds

Answer:

The combined magnetic force of the magnetized wire coil and iron bar makes an electromagnet very strong. In fact, electromagnets are the strongest magnets made. An electromagnet is stronger if there are more turns in the coil of wire or there is more current flowing through it.

Answer:

Explanation:

Force between two charged conducting sphere

= k x Q₁ x Q₂ / r² ,  k is a constant  Q₁ and Q₂ are charges and   r is distance between them .

= 9 x 10⁹ x 12 x 10⁻⁹ x 18 x 10⁻⁹ / .30²

= 21600 x 10⁻⁹

= 2.16 x 10⁻⁵ N .

b )

After the spheres are joined together , there is redistribution of charge and remaining charge will be equally shared by them .

Charge on each sphere = (12 - 18 ) x 10⁻⁹ / 2

= - 3 x 10⁻⁹ C .

Force = 9 x 10⁹ x 3 x 10⁻⁹ x 3 x 10⁻⁹ / .30²

= 900 x 10⁻⁹ N .

Answer:

okay I'm a bit confused but I like the little emoji dudw

Answer:

?

Explanation:

.

Answer:

    q = 2 10⁻⁸ C

Explanation:

For this exercise we use the translational equilibrium equation

                    F_e -A =

                    F_e = W

the electric force is given by Coulomb's law

                    F_e = [tex]k \frac{q_1q_2}{r^2}[/tex]

in this case they indicate that the loads on the tapes are equal

                    F_e = k q² / r²

we substitute

                    k q² / r² = m g

                    q = [tex]\sqrt{ \frac{mg r^2}{k} }[/tex]

calculate  

                     q = [tex]\sqrt { \frac{ 12 \ 10^{-3} \ 9.8 (0.55 \ 10^{-2})^2 }{9 \ 10^9} }[/tex]    

                     q = [tex]\sqrt{ 3.9526 \ 10^{-16}[/tex]

                     q = 1,999 10⁻⁸ C

                     q = 2 10⁻⁸ C

Answer:

C your answer would be C

Explanation:

It should be right

Answer: gravitational potential energy

Explanation:

Answer:

hello your question is incomplete below is the missing part

Ex = 0

Ey = [tex]\frac{-2kQ}{\pi a^2}[/tex]

Explanation:

Attached below is a detailed solution showing the integration of the expression dEx and dEy from ∅ = 0 to ∅ =π

Ex = 0

Ey = [tex]\frac{-2kQ}{\pi a^2}[/tex]

Answer:

1.93×10²⁸ s

Explanation:

From the question given above, the following data were obtained:

Number of electron (e) = 2×10²⁴

Current (I) = 10 A

Time (t) =?

Next, we shall determine the quantity of electricity flowing through pasing through the point. This can be obtained as follow:

1 e = 96500 C

Therefore,

2×10²⁴ e = 2×10²⁴ e × 96500 / 1 e

2×10²⁴ e = 1.93×10²⁹ C

Thus, 1.93×10²⁹ C of electricity is passing through the point.

Finally, we shall determine the time. This can be obtained as follow:

Current (I) = 10 A

Quantity of electricity = 1.93×10²⁹ C

Time (t) =?

Q = it

1.93×10²⁹ = 10 × t

Divide both side by 10

t = 1.93×10²⁹ / 10

t = 1.93×10²⁸ s

Thus, it took 1.93×10²⁸ s for 2×10²⁴ electrons to pass through the point

D. A hockey puck sliding across ice

Answer:

26.833 N

Explanation:

The computation of the resaltant of two forces is shown below:

Given that

Force A = 12N

Force B = 24N

Based on the above information  

Resultant R is

[tex]=\sqrt{A^2 + B^2 + 2AB \times cos \theta}\\\\=\sqrt{144 + 576 + 2\times 24\times 12\times cos90^{\circ}}\\\\=\sqrt{144+576+576\times 0}\\\\=\sqrt{720}[/tex]

=26.833 N

Answer:

Actions

Explanation:

if u mean what are these called then it's actions

Answer: Regular Physical Activity

Explanation:

According to the ideal gas law, pressure will rise as a gas's temperature rises. There is a limit to how much the tire can expand before the rubber gives in to the pressure build-up.

For every 10 degrees that the temperature drops, the inflation pressure in tires typically decreases by 1 to 2 psi. Moreover, as the tire pressure heats up during the first 15 to 20 minutes of driving, it will increase by one psi every five minutes.      

The ideal gas law states that pressure will increase as a gas's temperature increases. Before the rubber gives in to the pressure build up, the tire can only expand so far.

Therefore, The pressure in your tires will increase due to the increased particle movement in hot air, which will cause the centre of the tread to bow out and wear out first. Increasing the demand for new tires.

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Answer:

a)  k = 701.8 N / m, b)  m_{ast} = 61.1 kg, c)  v ’= -1.3 10⁻⁴ m / s

Explanation:

a) For this exercise let's use the relationship of the angular velocity

         w = [tex]\sqrt{ \frac{k}{m} }[/tex]

          k = w² m

the angular velocity is related to the period

          w = 2π / T

we substitute

          k = 4 π²    [tex]\frac{m}{T^2}[/tex]

let's calculate

          k = 4 π²   10 /0.75²

          k = 701.8 N / m

b) now repeat the measurement with an astronaut on the chair

         w = [tex]\sqrt{ \frac{k}{m} }[/tex]

where the mass Month the mass of the chair plus the mass of the astronaut

        M = m + [tex]m_{ast}[/tex]

          M = k / w²

          w = 2π / T

let's calculate

           w = 2π / 2

            w = π rad / s

            M = 701.8 /π²

            M = 71,111 kg

now we use that

          M = m + m_{ast}

          m_{ast} = M - m

          m_{ast} = 71.111 - 10.0

          m_{ast} = 61.1 kg

c) if the astronaut's movement is simple harmonic

          x = A cos wt

therefore the speed is

         v = [tex]\frac{dx}{dt}[/tex]

         v = -Aw sin wt

maximum speed is

          v = - Aw

          v = 0.100 π

          v = 0.31416 m / s

we can suppose that the movement of the space station and the astronaut  is equivalent to division of the same

initial instant. Before the move

         p₀ = 0

final instant. When the astronaut is moving

        p_f = M_station v’+ m_{ast} v

the moment is preserved

         p₀ = pf

         0 = M__{station} v ’+ m_{ast} v

         v ’= - [tex]\frac{m_{ast} }{M_{station} } \ v[/tex]

we substitute

         v ’= [tex]\frac{61.1 }{ 100000 } \ 0.31416[/tex]

         v ’= -1.3 10⁻⁴ m / s

the negative sign indicates that the station is moving in the opposite direction from the astronaut

Answer:

D. equal to 1.2

Explanation:

on edg

The length of the power cord will be equal to 1.2 m.

The length of the power cord when shanti gets off the train is equal to 1.2 m.

The Correct answer is Option D.

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Answer:

the law of conservation of energy

Answer:

Uhh 2 one

Explanation

Answer:

Explanation:

Given that,

The current in the light bulb, I = 0.5 A

(a) We know that,

Electric current = charge/time

or

Q = It

Put t = 2 hours = 7200 s

So,

Q = 0.5 × 7200

Q = 3600 C

(b) Charge on one electron, [tex]Q=1.6\times 10^{-19}\ C[/tex]

Let there are n electrons flow through the bulb in 2 hours.

I = Q/t

Since, Q = ne

So,

I = ne/t

[tex]n=\dfrac{I\times t}{e}\\\\n=\dfrac{0.5\times 7200}{1.6\times 10^{-19}}\\\\n=2.25\times 10^{22}[/tex]

Hence, this is the required solution.

Answer: The answer is D. KNO3

Explanation:

The graph shows that the KN03 going straight up from the temperature sign so you reversed that so that it will make it to 90°C to 30°C

To solve this we must be knowing each and every concept related to solubility. Therefore, the correct option is option D among all the given options.

The greatest amount of one material that may be dissolved in the other is referred to as its solubility. It is the most solute that may be dissolved into a solvent near equilibrium, resulting in a saturated solution.

When specific circumstances are satisfied, more solute can be dissolved further than the solubility limit point, resulting in a supersaturated solution. Adding extra solute after saturation or supersaturation does not enhance the concentration in the solution. Rather, the excess solute begins to precipitated out of solution. KNO[tex]_3[/tex] is the compound that would have the greatest percentage recovered after cooling a saturated solution of that compound from 90°C to 30°C.

Therefore, the correct option is option D.

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Answer:

a) True

Explanation:

There are several possible explanations for this positive charge

* The explanation of the small positive charge in the plant when the bee approaches is like a defense system of the plants,

to prevent the bees from taking the pollen, but the flowers need the bees to transport the pollen for fertilization, so this possibility is not correct

* The air is conductive so the bee indexes a charge in the nearby air, this charge must be negative and this charge induced in the air induces a charge on the flower that must be positive.

When reviewing the different statements we have

a) True, it agrees with the second explanation of the phenomenon

b) False. The earth is a deposit of negative charge

c) false. If this is the case the charge should be negative

d) False. This residual charge from the other bees is quickly neutralized by the charge from the Earth.

Answer:

Explanation:

.

The impulse exerted on the beach ball is 2.75 kgm/s.

The impulse exerted on the exercise ball is - 2.75 kgm/s.

This is the force applied to an object that acts over a period of time.

The impulse exerted on the beach ball is the change in the momentum of the ball and it is calculated as follows;

J = ΔP

J = m(v - u)

J = 0.25(7 - (-4))

J = 0.25(7 + 4)

J = 2.75 kgm/s

The impulse exerted on the exercise ball is equal in magnitude but opposite in direction to the beach ball.

Thus, the impulse exerted on the exercise ball is - 2.75 kgm/s.

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