The statement which is true about the two processes is that the products of cellular respiration are also the reactants of photosynthesis.
What is photosynthesis?
It is defined as a process by which plants and other photosynthetic organisms convert the light energy in to chemical energy through the process of cellular respiration.
Some of the energy which is converted is stored in molecules of carbohydrates like sugar and starches which are made up of from carbon dioxide and water . Photosynthetic organisms which can perform photosynthesis are algae and cyanobacteria.
The process begins with proteins absorbing light energy which are called reaction centers and contain a green pigment which is called chlorophyll . In plants ,these pigments are present inside organelles called chloroplasts while in bacteria they are present in plasma membrane.
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g assume an aneurysm has widened a blood vessel from a diameter of 1 cm to a diameter of 4 cm. what is the velocity v1 of blood flow in the region of the aneurysm relative to the velocity v0 in the healthy portion of the blood vessel.
"Familial aneurysms" are defined as two or more aneurysms in first-degree relatives (parent, child, or sibling). These families may have members who are more likely to experience aneurysms than the general population.
An abdominal aortic Familial aneurysms (AAA) is a persistent focal dilatation that is 50% larger than the healthy, neighboring aorta's typical diameter (figure 1). True arterial aneurysms most frequently occur in the abdominal aorta, especially in the infrarenal aorta, which is the portion of the aorta below the renal arteries. The presence of previous major artery aneurysms, atherosclerosis, male sex, White ethnicity, advanced age, and male sex are all well-defined risk factors for the development of AAA. Other risk factors include smoking and being a smoker. during the last 20 years, while diminishing.
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explain the reason a man with rh-positive blood might be the father of a rh-negative blood child? g
When her antibodies enter the infant's bloodstream, they attack those cells. Red blood cells in the infant may swell and rupture as a result of this. This is referred to as newborn hemolytic disease or Rh disease. A baby's blood count may drop dramatically as a result.
A person is referred to as Rh positive or Rh negative depending on whether or not their blood contains the protein known as the Rh factor. Marriage between a Rh-negative female and a Rh-positive male should be avoided.
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Amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling allow for ________ and ________ of the fetus so that it can be tested for abnormalities.
Amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling allow for genetic abnormalities and sex of the child of the fetus so that it can be tested for abnormalities.
What is Amniocentesis?Prenatal testing using amniocentesis is often carried out in the second or third trimester of pregnancy.
It can identify some genetic and chromosomal disorders, including Down syndrome (such as cystic fibrosis). Your healthcare practitioner will do an amniocentesis during which they will take a small sample of amniotic fluid from the sac around the fetus. The fluid sample is then examined in a lab.
The fetus develops inside the amniotic sac throughout pregnancy. The fetus is encased and shielded by amniotic fluid inside the amniotic sac. Additionally, some of the fetus' cells are present.
Therefore, Amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling allow for genetic abnormalities and sex of the child of the fetus so that it can be tested for abnormalities.
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TRUE/FALSE. establishing a family history of osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, or ankylosing spondylitis is important because of its known genetic component.
TRUE if the genetic component of a family history of osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, or ankylosing spondylitis is significant.
What are rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, and osteoarthritis?Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) and rheumatoid arthritis (RA) are two of the most prevalent rheumatic illnesses. The joint degradation and decline in physical fitness are caused by these chronic progressive inflammatory disorders. [1] Their symptomatology and etiology differ despite being closely related.
What aspects of a patient's condition might point to a higher risk of osteoarthritis?Age: As people get older, their chance of having OA rises. Gender—After the age of 50, women are more likely than males to acquire OA. Obesity—Extra weight increases the strain on joints, especially those that bear the body's weight, including the hips and knees.
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what kinds of substitutions or insertions or deletions can occur? are there other types of mutations at larger scale?
Types of Substitutions: Transitions (substitute purine with purine)
Transversions (substitute pu w/ py)
Substitution mutations may have positive, negative, or no effects. Silent, missense, and nonsense mutations are three types of point mutations that they specifically induce. A silent mutation is one in which the protein's functionality is unaffected. The incorrect protein is coded for by a missense mutation.
An insertion in genetics is the addition of one or more base pair nucleotides to the DNA sequence. Because the DNA polymerase frequently slips in microsatellite regions, this frequently occurs.
Types of Insertions:
Frameshift mutations (insertion or deletion that alters the reading frame of the gene)
In-frame insertions and deletions ( deletion or insertion of a multiple of 3 nucleotides which do not Alter the reading frame)
Expanding nucleotide repeats: Increase in the number of a copies of a set of nucleotides( repeated sequence of a set of nucleotides in which the number of copies of the sequence increases)
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most known bacteriophages have which type of morphology? group of answer choices siphovirus podovirus myovirus microvirus
Most known bacteriophages have siphovirus morphology. Therefore option A is correct.
Siphoviruses are a type of bacteriophage with a characteristic long, non-contractile tail, which distinguishes them from other types like myoviruses (contractile tails), podoviruses (short, stubby tails), and microviruses (icosahedral capsids without tails).
Siphoviruses attach to specific receptors on bacterial cell surfaces using their tail fibers and inject their genetic material into the host cell to reproduce and release new phage particles.
Their prevalence can be attributed to their ability to infect a wide range of bacterial species, making them important agents in controlling bacterial populations and potential tools in phage therapy for combating bacterial infections.
Therefore option A is correct.
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the genome found in the nucleus of eukaryotic species is usually organized in what way? multiple choice question.
Most eukaryotic organisms' nuclear genomes are composed of shaped sets of chromosomes.
What kind of DNA sequence is seen most frequently in eukaryotic genomes?Abstract. The majority of the nuclear DNA in most eukaryotic genomes is composed of repetitive DNA, which are sequence motifs repeated hundreds or thousands of times throughout the genome.
How are prokaryotic and eukaryotic genomes structured?A single circular chromosome makes up the majority of bacterial genomes. One or two sets of linear chromosomes that are contained to the nucleus make up the eukaryotic genome. A gene is a section of DNA that is translated into an RNA molecule that has biological function. Many eukaryote genes are interrupted by introns.
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antioxidants are natural and synthetic molecules that inhibit the reactions of reactive oxygen species (ros). which vitamins/minerals are examples of nonenzymatic antioxidants? select all that apply.
Glutathione, carotenoids, vitamin C, and vitamin E are examples of non-enzymatic antioxidants.
Antioxidants are substances that may shield your cells from free radicals, which may be the cause of cancer, heart disease, and other illnesses. Molecules known as free radicals are produced when your body breaks down food, is exposed to radiation or tobacco smoke, or both.
Non-enzymatic Antioxidants prevent free radical chain reactions from continuing. Glutathione, carotenoids, vitamin C, and vitamin E are a few examples of non-enzymatic antioxidants. The antioxidants can also be categorized according to their solubility in water or lipids. There are two types of antioxidants: those that dissolve in water and those that dissolve in lipids.
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pasteurization, irradiation, canning, and the use of food additives are all techniques used to preserve food and reduce the risk of foodborne illness for consumers. choose the correct statements about food preservation. select all that apply. view available hint(s)for part c pasteurization, irradiation, canning, and the use of food additives are all techniques used to preserve food and reduce the risk of foodborne illness for consumers. choose the correct statements about food preservation. select all that apply. sulfites help prevent oxidation and browning in some foods. salt and sugar can be used to preserve foods. pasteurization is only used for milk. irradiated foods can become radioactive. an individual can contract botulism if food is canned improperly.
Pasteurization, irradiation, canning, and the use of food additives are all techniques used to preserve food and reduce the risk of foodborne illness for consumers.
Food irradiation (the use of ionizing radiation on food) is a technology that increases food safety and shelf life by reducing or eliminating microorganisms and insects. Irradiation, like pasteurising milk and canning fruits and vegetables, can make food safer for consumers.The source of the energy used to destroy the microbes is the fundamental difference between food irradiation and pasteurisation. While traditional pasteurization uses heat, irradiation uses the energy of ionizing radiation. Ionising radiation, such as x-rays, or radioactive sources, such as radioactive iodine seeds, are examples of irradiation.
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Biologists divide the biosphere into ______, which are the major types of ecosystems on earth.
Biomes, which are the primary divisions of ecosystems on Earth, are the biosphere. An ecosystem is a place where living organisms interact with one another and their surroundings as a functional and structural unit of ecology.
What possible relevance does the biosphere of Quizlet have?The biosphere is the highest level of ecological order. It encompasses every type of life and biome on the earth. The hydrology (water cycle), soil health, and atmospheric composition are all regulated by the biosphere, which also functions as the planet's life support system.
Which ecology can be found in the biosphere?The biosphere is sometimes thought of as one massive ecosystem, a complex community of living and nonliving items acting as a single organism.
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population of beetles, what traits are positively selected for?
Answer:
beetle population:
beetle color is controlled by many genes and varies in a spectrum from light to dark green.
Stabilizing selection. In stabilizing selection, intermediate phenotypes are more fit than extreme ones. For example, medium-green beetles might be the best camouflaged, and thus survive best, on a forest floor covered by medium-green plants. Stabilizing selection tends to narrow the curve.Directional selection. One extreme phenotype is more fit than all the other phenotypes. For example, if the beetle population moves into a new environment with dark soil and vegetation, the dark green beetles might be better hidden and survive better than medium or light beetles. Directional selection shifts the curve towards the favorable phenotype.Disruptive selection. Both extreme phenotypes are more fit than those in the middle. For example, if the beetles move into a new environment with patches of light-green moss and dark-green shrubs, both light and dark beetles might be better hidden (and survive better) than medium-green beetles. Diversifying selection makes multiple peaks in the curve.Which theory describes the arrangement and movement of particles in solids, liquids and gases?.
A model that represents the organization, motion, and energy of particles in a substance is known as the kinetic particle theory of matter.
What order are solids, liquids, and gases in?Solids have a regular row-by-row arrangement and can only vibrate in predetermined locations. The surrounding particles must be touched for liquids to travel freely in any direction. Gases are randomly arranged and have the ability to move in any direction.
In particle theory, what is diffusion?When chemicals combine without being moved, diffusion is considered to have taken place. It is the process by which a region with a lot of particles moves randomly to a region with less particles in liquids or gases.
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if a stressful situation is not resolved before glycogen is gone, the body enters which phase of gas during which the priority is to provide alternate fuels for metabolism?
In the Stage of Resistance phase of gas, the body's top concern is to supply alternative fuels for metabolism if a stressful condition is not remedied before glycogen runs out.
Long-term cortisol exposure can lower immune cells, encourage weight gain, induce muscle breakdown, increase glycogen retention, and reduce inflammatory response. The stressful reaction, often known as the fight-or-flight response, is brought on by the hormones that tell us whether to fight or escape. glycogen and cortisol, among other stressful hormones, are released by the nervous system in response to a threat, rousing the body to take stressful rapid action.
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Trisha pushed Eddie, who has a mass of 62.8 kg, with a force of 896.6 N. How fast did Eddie accelerate?
Answer:
dam why did Trisha push Eddie dawg .
the tails are added to the 3' end of the pre-mrna for its transport and stabilization from nucleus to cytoplasm. a. poly(u) b. poly(a) c. poly(c) d. poly(g)
The poly(a) tails are added to the 3' end of the pre-mRNA for its transport and stabilization from the nucleus to the cytoplasm. So, option B is the correct answer.
The poly(a) tail is added to the messenger RNA molecule during RNA processing to increase the stability of the molecule. It is a long chain of adenine nucleotides.
The 3' end of the transcript is cleaved to free a 3' hydroxyl and then an enzyme called poly-A polymerase adds adenine nucleotides to the RNA. This poly(a) tail prevents degradation and thus, makes the RNA more stable. It then sends the said molecule from the nucleus to get translated into a protein by ribosomes in the cytoplasm. So, option B is the answer.
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in positive control of several sugar-metabolism-related operons, the camp receptor protein (crp) binds to dna to stimulate transcription. which of the following events activates crp? in positive control of several sugar-metabolism-related operons, the camp receptor protein (crp) binds to dna to stimulate transcription. which of the following events activates crp? increase in glucose and decrease in camp decrease in glucose and increase in repressor increase in glucose and increase in camp decrease in glucose and increase in camp
A protein called CRP (cAMP receptor protein) is present in bacteria. A regulatory protein, that is.
When CRP binds to cAMP, a conformational shift occurs that causes CRP to bind to particular locations on DNA promoters. This interacts with RNA polymerase to activate transcription. CRP activity increases in response to a drop in glucose and a rise in cAMP. When glucose acts as a carbon source, cAMP levels are low. This results from the adenylate cyclase enzyme being inhibited (cAMP producing enzyme). Therefore, a drop in glucose will result in an increase in cAPM.
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How could an activator influence gene expression at a promoter far away from the place that it binds dna?.
An activator could influence gene expression at a promoter far away from the place that it binds dna as a Mediator protein is stimulated by the bound activator, and then the Mediator stimulates transcription.
What is a mediator?The Mediator is described as a multiprotein complex that functions as a transcriptional coactivator in all eukaryotes that was discovered in 1990 in the lab of Roger D. Kornberg, recipient of the 2006 Nobel Prize in Chemistry.
The activator directly binds to RNA polymerase, which then skips over a large region of DNA to start transcription will not influence gene expression at a promoter far away from the place that it binds dna.
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what significant characteristics related to emphysema and heart failure would you expect to observe in mr. c.y.? .
by observation the hypoxia induced by emphysema could indeed lead to pulmonary vasoconstriction, where it creates opposition to the right ventricle and inability, likely to result in the patient exhibiting symptoms of CHF.
His breathing will be hampered by both of these issues; if blood does not reach the lungs and air does not enter the lungs, the problem is exacerbated. However, hypoxia is most commonly caused by human-caused factors, particularly nutrient pollution (also known as eutrophication). Agricultural runoff, fossil-fuel combustion, and wastewater treatment effluent are all sources of nutrient pollution, specifically nitrogen and phosphorus nutrients. Emphysema is a lung illness that affects the terminal bronchioles (tiny air sacs). The alveolar walls are responsible for the exchange of oxygen and carbon
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which describes the updated revision of vitamins, minerals, proteins, and total calories that are thought to meet the needs of about 98% of a particular group?
The process that describes needs of 98% of particular groups are Recommended Daily Allowance.
Recommended Daily Allowance is the outline of vitamins had to meet the wishes of approximately ninety eight% of a group.
The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) is the common day by day nutritional consumption degree this is enough to fulfill the nutrient requirement of almost all (ninety seven to ninety eight percent) healthful people in a specific gender and existence degree group (existence degree considers age and, while applicable, being pregnant or lactation).
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Your tongue is covered in bumps called papillae. Papillae have taste receptors that are bundled together (taste buds). Taste buds have microscopic hairs called microvilli which send nerve impulses to the brain. However, your nose plays a role too! While you’re chewing, the food releases chemicals that travel up your nose and trigger olfactory receptors which also send nerve impulses to the brain to help you interpret the true flavor of what you’re eating. With this information, explain why a cold or allergies can diminish the flavor of your food.
During eating, the tongue and nose receptors collaborate to send signals to the brain that can provide an idea of the flavor. When one has a cold, the nose does not work well enough to detect smell of the food.
What is the role of receptors in the body?Many receptors on various cell types function differently, such as the tongue receptor, which sends food taste information to the brain. The nose receptors send the food smell to the olfactory region of the brain, but when a person becomes allergic or cold, the nose receptors stop working properly, and the smell does not reach the brain.
Hence, due to these reasons, the nose cannot smell and the person gets little flavor from the food.
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which organ is responsible for metabolizing and detoxifying foreign chemicals in the blood, including drugs? liver kidneys gallbladder spleen stomach
The option (a) is correct is liver.
What is metabolizing ?
The alterations in a cell's or an organism's internal chemistry. These modifications create the energy and raw resources that support cell growth, reproduction, and organism health. Getting rid of harmful compounds is assisted by metabolism.
What is detoxifying ?
A method wherein the liver uses one of two main enzyme routes to transform a harmful molecule—such as an anticancer medication—into a less toxic compound that is simpler for the body to eliminate.
Most chemical levels in the blood are controlled by the liver, which also excretes a substance called bile. This aids in the liver's waste product removal. The liver filters every drop of blood that leaves the intestines and stomach.
Therefore, the option (a) is correct is liver.
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Iron is an important micronutrient, especially during pregnancy.Maternal iron-deficiency anemia during pregnancy results from (Check all that apply.)a)insufficient iron intake for the increased requirements during pregnancyb)fetal demand for iron in the third trimester to store in the liverc)menstruationd)the fetus taking what it needs from the mother’s iron stores
Maternal iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy results from a)insufficient iron intake for the increased requirements during pregnancy. b)fetal demand for iron in third trimester to store in the liver.
Because their iron stores must serve both their own increasing blood volume and as a source of hemoglobin for the developing child, many pregnant women develop iron deficiency anemia without iron supplements. Anemia in pregnancy is most frequently caused by an iron shortage. Anemia due to a lack of folate. The vitamin folate is naturally present in some foods, such as green leafy vegetables. The body need folate, a kind of B vitamin, to create new cells, including healthy red blood cells. Red blood cells include the protein hemoglobin, which transports oxygen to other bodily cells. Many women don't get enough iron to last through the second and third trimesters. Premature birth, defined as delivery before 37 full weeks of pregnancy, is more likely among women who have severe iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy. Low birth weight and postpartum depression are also linked to iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy.
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microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid reveals gram-positive rods. what is the organism? group of answer choices streptococcus listeria naegleria haemophilus neisseria
Listeria is the microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid reveals gram-positive rods.
cerebrospinal fluid reveals -CSF (shown in blue) is produced by the tissue that lines the ventricles (hollow spaces) in the brain. It circulates in and around the brain and spinal cord, protecting and nourishing them.
Listeria is a bacterial genus that lives as an intracellular parasite in mammals. Until 1992, there were 17 species known, each with two subspecies. 21 species had been identified by 2020. The genus is named after the British sterile surgery pioneer. Lister, Joseph
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antidiuretic hormone is: question 3 options: 1) a hormone produced by the adrenal cortex that regulates na+ reabsorption and k+ secretion by the kidneys. 2) hormone produced by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary. it stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb more water, reducing urine volume. 3) a hormone released by certain cells of the frontal lobe that reduces blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting nearly all events that promote vasoconstriction and na+ and water retention. 4) a hormone released by certain cells of the heart atria that reduces blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting nearly all events that promote vasoconstriction and na+ and water retention.
Option 2 is the correct one , Antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is produced in the hypothalamus and transported to and released from the posterior pituitary gland, is a polypeptide hormone. ADH's main function is to control how much water is expelled by the kidneys.
ADH, sometimes referred to as vasopressin, enables the kidney tubules to directly reabsorb water, which concentrates salts and wastes in the urine that hypothalamus will eventually be expelled. Either through controlling blood volume or the amount of water in the circulation, the hypothalamus regulates the processes of ADH production. A rise in osmolarity exceeding 300 mOsm/L due to dehydration or physiological stress can increase ADH production and water retention, which in turn elevates blood pressure.
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a 45-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of fever (t max-103.5°f), chills, anorexia, diarrhea, and a non-productive cough. on general examination, vitals are as follows: pulse- 98/min, rr- 24/min, bp-120/60mm hg, and t- 103.5 °f. there are coarse basal crepitations and scattered rhonchi on examination of the lungs. other systems exam are normal. chest x-ray (cxr) shows patchy alveolar infiltrates with consolidation in the lower lobe. complete blood count reveals leukocytosis; sputum gram stain reveals only a few polymorphonuclear (pmn) leukocytes and no predominant pathogens. question: what is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Pneumonia
Explanation:
according to recent finding on human mutation rates based on genome sequencing, what is the most common type of mutation in humans?
In actuality, the G-T mutation is the one that occurs most frequently in human DNA. It happens once every 10,000 to 100,000 base pairs, which doesn't sound like much until you remember that the human genome has about three billion base pairs.
Viruses, which can have either RNA or DNA genomes, have the greatest per base pair per generation mutation rates. The mutation rates of DNA viruses range from 106 to 108 mutations per base each generation, while those of RNA viruses range from 103 to 105 mutations per base per generation.
Cystic fibrosis, hemophilia, and sickle cell disease are examples of hereditary mutations. Throughout a person's life, other mutations may occur on their own. Spontaneous, sporadic, or new mutations are the terms used to describe them. Only a few cells are affected.
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Match the following vocabulary words with their definitions.
1.an oval having both ends alike gravity 2.the natural force that makes objects move or tend to move toward each other aphelion 3.the path of the earth or any planet around the sun ellipse 4.to move around a center or axis rotate 5.instrument for making distant objects appear nearer, larger, and brighter perihelion 6.the point in a planet's orbit that is farthest from the sun revolution 7.the point in a planet's orbit that is nearest the sun orbit 8.movement around some point in a circle or curve telescope 9.a formal written work dealing with some subject treatise
1. An oval having both ends like gravity - Ellipse, 2. The natural force that makes objects move or tend to move toward each other aphelion - Gravity, 3. The path of the earth or any planet around the sun ellipse - Orbit, 4. To move around a center or axis rotate - Rotate.
5. Instrument for making distant objects appear nearer, larger, and brighter perihelion - Telescope,
6. The point in a planet's orbit that is farthest from the sun revolution - Aphelion
7. The point in a planet's orbit that is nearest the sun orbit - Perihelion
8. Movement around some point in a circle or curve telescope - Revolution
9. A formal written work dealing with some subject treatise - Treatise
Gravity is a fundamental interaction that causes shared feeling 'tween the entirety accompanying bulk or strength. A planet is a heavenly body that (a) is in influence by the Sun, (b) has adequate bulk for allure self-seriousness to overcome severe physique forces for fear that it acquires a hydrostatic balance (almost round) shape, and (c) has emptied the neighborhood about allure domain.
The planets, orderly of their distance outward from the Sun, are Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune.
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Answer:
guy above me is right I think
Explanation:
I like turtles
in the gi tract, a food bolus is converted into a semiliquid mass of partly digested food and digesteive secretions known as
In the Gi tract, a food bolus is converted into a semiliquid mass of partly digested food and digestive secretions known as chyme.
What is bolus?
Saliva combined with food after it has been chewed. Food particles are chemically reduced, hydrated for taste, and lubricated for easy swallowing when chewed to a size that can be easily swallowed. Saliva contributes digestive enzymes, water, and mucus that help in these processes.
What is digestive tracts?
The release of water, acids, enzymes, buffers, and salts is known as secretion in the digestive tract. digestive tract epithelium.
Food is transformed into chyme, a semi-liquid state that can be digested, from which it can be consumed (mixture of partly digested food and digestive secretions).
Therefore, e Gi tract, a food bolus is converted into a semiliquid mass of partly digested food and digestive secretions known as chyme.
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Which postulate of natural selection is deliberately enforced by dog breeders using artificial selection?.
Reproduction and survival are not decided by chance.
Is dog breeding artificial or natural?In dogs, reproduction can either be purposeful as part of a breeding scheme or unintentional. In either case, the majority of matings are fruitful and give birth to strong puppies. When natural breeding fails, artificial techniques must be used to breed some dogs.
What distinguishes artificial breeding from natural selection?Natural selection is any form of selection that arises as a result of an organism's capacity for environmental adaptation. On the other hand, artificial selection is selective breeding that is enforced by an outside force, typically humans, in order to increase the frequency of desirable traits.
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consider a certain species of grasshopper with a body that exhibits two phenotypes for pattern: 1) light green spots and 2) solid color with no spots. the solid allele is dominant, and the green-spotted allele is recessive. for a total of 487 grasshoppers, 445 are solid and 42 have green spots. a. list and describe all possible genotypes and phenotypes. b. what is the phenotypic frequency of the grasshoppers that have no spots? (round answer to two decimal places.) c. what is the phenotypic frequency of the green-spotted grasshoppers? (round answer to two decimal places.) d. calculate the frequency of the recessive allele in this population. (round answer to two decimal places.) e. calculate the frequency of the dominant allele in this population. f. explain why the phenotypic frequency and genotypic frequency of the green spotted grasshoppers is the same value. g. explain why the phenotypic frequency and genotypic frequency of the solid grasshoppers is not the same value.
1. Potential phenotypes and genotypes
Solid HH (homozygous dominant)Solid Hh (heterozygous), and green spots are homozygous recessive (hh).2. The frequency of grasshoppers with no spots is [tex]\frac{445}{487}[/tex] , equal [tex]0.9138[/tex] (2 decimal places= 0.91)
3. The frequency of green-spotted grasshopper phenotypes is [tex]\frac{42}{487}[/tex], or [tex]0.08624[/tex] (0.09 = 2 decimal places)
4. The frequency of the recessive allele= The[tex]\sqrt{ genotypic frequency of homozygous recessives}[/tex] = [tex]\sqrt{0.08624}[/tex] = 0.29
Hardy Weinberg. Equation: [tex]p^{2} + 2pq+q^{2} =1 and p+q=1[/tex], and
p= frequency of the dominant allele
q = Recessive allele frequency
[tex]p^{2}[/tex] = homozygous dominant genotypic frequency
2pq = genotypic frequency of heterozygotes
[tex]q^{2}[/tex] = homozygous recessive genotypic frequency
The answer to question C's calculation [tex]q^{2}[/tex] is 0.08624, or the homozygous recessive frequency of grasshoppers with green spots.
As a result, q, the frequency of the recessive allele = [tex]\sqrt{q}^{2}[/tex] = √0.08624 = 0.29 (rounded to 2 decimal places)
5.. Dominant allele frequency is 0.71.
P + q = 1 according to the Hardy-Weinberg equation.
The ratio of the recessive and dominant allele frequencies must be 1.
We estimated that the recessive allele's frequency was 0.29.
As a result, [tex]1-0.29 = 0.71[/tex] is the frequency of the dominant allele (or q).
6. Because there is only ONE GENOTYPE (hh) of green spotted grasshoppers, the genotypic and phenotypic frequencies of these insects are identical. Remember that this is equivalent to the q2 value that we calculated the frequency of the recessive allele for in question D.
7. Because there are multiple genotypes (Hh and), the phenotypic frequency of solid grasshoppers is NOT the same as the genotypic frequency.
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