photoreceptors of the eye include rods and cones. which one is responsible for interpreting color; which can function only under conditions of high light intensity?

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Answer 1

The photoreceptors which responsible for interpreting color and function under conditions of high light intensity is cone cells

Cone vs Rod cells

The retina is filled with 150 million light-sensitive cells. Photoreceptors are the cells in the retina that respond to light. There are two types of photoreceptors : cone and rod photoreceptors

Cone photoreceptors are located in the central portion. It contains proteins named photopsins. Cones are activated by bright light and aid the eye to see color. There are 3 subtypes of cones : blue, red and green, which each of them sensitive to various wavelengths of light. For example : Red light stimulate the red cones. 

Rod photoreceptors are sensitive to low-light levels. It assist the eye in night vision and seeing in black and white. In a dim room, we use mainly our rods. The protein contained in this photoreceptor is called as rhodopsin. This photoreceptors are more numerous in the periphery of the retina.

Signals from the photoreceptors are sent through the optic nerve to the brain for processing.

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Related Questions

In relation to their position in a food chain, what do plants and photosynthetic algae have in common?.

Answers

They’re both primary source of foods

Kettlewell's experiment is included in most biology texts as an example of evolution occurring.

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The moths once resided in a clean environment. Dark moths became rare as a result.

All members of the order Lepidoptera that are not butterflies are grouped together as moths, a paraphyletic group of insects, with caterpillars constituting the great bulk of the order. According to one estimate, there are over 160,000 different species of moth, many of which are still unnamed. Although there are some daytime and crepuscular moth species, nocturnal species predominate. There are some moths that can be serious agricultural pests all over the world, especially their caterpillars. Examples include bollworms and crop borers. In the northeastern United States, where it is an invasive species, the larva of the spongy moth (Lymantria dispar) seriously harms forests. in climatic conditions that are moderate.

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In 1988, a biologist named Richard Lenski introduced 12 genetically identical populations of E. coli to test tubes and subjected them to the same conditions: a period of growth followed by starvation. After several years, all 12 strains had adapted to the conditions in similar ways; however, their genetic sequences were very different. Which of the following conclusions from this experiment is correct? -The 12 E. coli populations underwent convergent evolution resulting from similar environmental conditions.-Similar selective pressures on genetically identical organisms can have different effects at the level of the genome.-Evolution by natural selection can be directly observed in organisms with short generation times.-Similar phenotypes may result from a variety of underlying genotypes. - All of the aboves

Answers

All of the above options are correct.

a. Similar phenotypes may result from a variety of underlying genotypes

b. Similar selective pressures on genetically identical organisms can have different effects at the level of the genome.

c. Evolution by natural selection can be directly observed in organisms with short generation times.

d. The 12 E. coli populations underwent convergent evolution resulting from similar environmental conditions

e. All of the above are correct conclusions drawn from Richard Lenski's

experiments.

THE CORRECT ANSWER IS E.

e. All of the above are correct conclusions drawn from Richard Lenski experiments

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you dig up a large mass of fungal filaments. upon close examination, you find cross-walls composed on chitin. which of the following describes what you dug up?

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A septate mycelium containing hyphae, The body of a fungus is made up of a mycelium, which is a collection of hyphae (plural, mycelia).  Septa typically reproduction feature tiny apertures big enough to let ribosomes.

Asexual reproduction is used by septate mycelium-containing fungus in which sexual reproduction is either absent or unknown to create their mycelium spores, a process known as sporogenesis. More species of fungus are categorized as having asexual reproduction. Most fungi's hyphae are segmented into cells by internal walls called septa (singular, septum).

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inherited feature that varies from individual to individual.target 1 of 8 2. a blank is one particular variation of a character.target 2 of 8 3. a genetic cross involving parents that differ in a single character is called a blank.target 3 of 8 4. most human genes come in alternate versions called blank.target 4 of 8 5. if an organism has two non-identical versions of a gene, the one that is expressed in the organism is called the blank allele.target 5 of 8 6. if an organism has two non-identical versions of a gene, the one that is not expressed in the organism is called the blank allele.

Answers

Character, Trait, Monohybrid cross, Alleles, Dominant allele and Recessive alleles respectively for the each questions

Genes are sections of DNA that help determine specific characteristics or behaviors by encoding for proteins that have an impact on physiology. Alleles are distinct variations of a gene that change depending on the nucleotide base that is present at a specific genomic site. A person's genotype is the result of their particular allele distribution. Genes are pieces of DNA that have a role in the development of specific traits, qualities, or abilities. The immune system, skin pigmentation, hormone production, and eye color are just a few examples of the things that genes affect. Genes code for proteins or portions of proteins.

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homeostasis is a state in which a. some body functions increase while others decrease. b. vital functions of the body decrease. c. vital functions of the body are maintained at a normal level. d. vital functions of the body increase.

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Homeostasis is a condition in which the body's essential processes are kept operating normally.

Any self-regulating process, such as homeostasis, helps an organism retain stability while also responding to environmental factors that are favorable for its survival. If homeostasis is effective, life continues; if it is not, a catastrophe occurs or the organism perishes.

As currently understood, homeostasis is a self-regulating process that allows biological systems to retain stability while adapting to shifting external environments. Body temperature control, blood pressure control, and blood sugar control are three instances of homeostasis.

Option C is the right response, thus that is why.

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explain how the biodiversity found on earth is demonstrated through the winogradsky column in terms of the niches they occupy.

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The Winogradsky column is a long glass column that is used to grow different microorganisms. Different Microbes will be formed in different layers in this column, a layer in which a microbe formed resembles the environmental niche of that microbe.

Several layers of microbes are found in the column each has a different microorganism. Hence biodiversity found on earth can be demonstrated in terms of the niche they occupy using winogradsky column.

To grow microbes a long glass column is filled with pond mud, water, egg shells and egg yolk, and paper. After filling the column it should be placed in a natural light source for several months. This process creates an aerobic/anaerobic gradient in the column. The top region of the column will be aerobic bottom of the column will be more anaerobic. Usually, anaerobic bacteria will be found in the lower region of the column where mud is settled and aerobic bacteria will be in the upper layer. Hence different layers with different environmental conditions are developed inside the column. Microbes will only be in the layer which matches their natural niche.

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in the area below type your ad libitum sampling of the primate. remember to include time markers to indicate the behavior that you were observing.

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The Specific focal animal codes are also provided for specific activities.

What is primate?

Haplorrhines and Strepsirrhines are the two subgroups of primates. The words for haplorrhine and strepsirrhine respectively mean dry and wet nose. The dry-nosed primates known as haplorrhines include tarsiers, apes, monkeys, and humans. Haplorrhines are divided into three groups:

1) the catarrhines, which include humans, apes, and monkeys from the old world;

2) the platyrrhines, which include South American monkeys; and

3) tarsiers. Tarsiers can only be found in South East Asia, while apes can be found in both South East Asia and Africa.

What is behavior?

The coordinated responses (actions or inactions) of entire living organisms (individuals or groups) to internal and/or external stimuli, excluding responses better defined as developmental changes.

For these above mentioned sampling techniques, it is said to collect various data of the primates from a particular video within 2 minutes of time interval.

These data are of context (general activity), position, social behavior's, substrate, food (type of eating) for focal animal sampling and feeding, resting, travelling, social for scan sampling.

For focal animal sampling the total time is one-half hour and for scan sampling it is 20 minute which we have to divide by 2 minutes of intervals. For example if the video is of 6 minutes then it would be as follows:

0:00 - 2:00 = Context, position, etc.

2:00 - 4:00 = Context, position, etc.

4:00 - 6:00 = Context, position, etc.

Therefore, Specific focal animal codes are also provided for specific activities.

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movement of muscles during inspiration allows expansion of the lungs and thus a decrease in internal lung pressure (decrease in alveoli pressure), resulting in air entering into the alveoli. which of the following statements describes what makes this possible?

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The lungs' pleural fluid makes the lung walls adhere to the thoracic wall. During inspiration, the diaphragm flattens and tightens, and the chest cavity enlarges.

The contraction creates a vacuum, which allows air to enter the lungs. During exhalation, the diaphragm loosens and forms its dome-like shape, ejecting air from the lungs. When you inspire or breathe in, your diaphragm contracts and drops. As a result, your lungs enlarge to fill the extra space in your chest cavity. Your chest cavity can expand by using the muscles located in the region between your ribs. The diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract during inhalation, increasing the lung volume. The physical characteristics of the lung have an impact on both the intrapleural and alveolar pressures.  However, both the atmospheric and intrapulmonary air pressures are necessary for breathing—the process by which air enters the lungs during inspiration and exits during expiration.

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primates are distinguished by characteristics that were shaped by the demands of living in trees. what were these 4 characteristics?

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Key ideas. All primates are descended from creatures who lived in trees, and they all possess adaptations that make it possible for them to climb trees, such as a rotating shoulder joint, separated large toes and thumbs for grabbing, and stereoscopic vision.

The opposable thumb and big toe, prehensile hands and feet, nails rather than claws on the digits, the ability to sit for long periods of time in an upright position without using the upper limbs for balance, dependence on vision, and diminished sense of smell are all characteristics that are derived from primates.

A short muzzle, a relatively poor sense of smell, prehensile five-digit hands and feet with flat nails instead of claws, acute vision with depth perception from forward-facing eyes are just a few of the characteristics that set primates apart from other mammals.

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the pituitary gland releases multiple choice a chemical similar to zolpidem, a drug sold under the trade name ambien. growth hormone, which helps repair body tissues. epinephrine, which increases relaxation and sleepiness. melatonin, which interacts with stimulants such as caffeine to increase alertness.

Answers

The pituitary gland releases - B. growth hormone, which helps repair body tissues

The pituitary gland is called the 'master gland' as the hormones it produces control so many different processes in the body.

It senses the body's needs and sends signals to different organs and glands throughout the body to regulate their function and maintain an appropriate environment.it is responsible for regulating the function of other endocrine glands.Growth hormone is released by the anterior pituitary.It plays an important role in tissue healing or repair especially is responsible for healing burned tissue and bone tissue damage.The growth hormone increases collagen content in wounds and is responsible for repairing muscle tissue after exercise.

Thus, The pituitary gland releases - B. growth hormone, which helps repair body tissues

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Full Question:

The pituitary gland releases

A. epinephrine, which increases relaxation and sleepiness.

B. growth hormone, which helps repair body tissues.

C. melatonin, which interacts with stimulants such as caffeine to increase alertness.

. a chemical similar to zoldipem, a drug sold under the trade name Ambien.

Everyone is exposed regularly to ionizing radiation found in the soil, water, and air and from cosmic rays. In fact, 80% of the ionizing radiation people are exposed to comes from naturally occurring sources. Ionizing radiation can cause double-strand breaks in the DNA. Often, the DNA breaks have missing nucleotides at the broken ends. What type of repair would likely be used, and what would be the result of repairing this type of damage?
A. Nonhomologous end joining would be used and would lead to properly repaired DNA.
B. Direct repair would be used to join the DNA, but errors would still remain.
C. Nonhomologous end joining would be used to join the DNA, but errors would still remain.
D. Direct repair would be used and would lead to properly repaired DNA.
C

Answers

The result of repairing this type of damage would be d. Non-homologous end joining would be used to join the DNA, but errors would still remain.

Non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) without a homologous sequence is used to fix the double-strand breaks.

DNA ligase IV binds the two ends after the double-strand break removes some nucleotides from them. First, Ku proteins bind to the ends and recruit DNA-PKcs, which in turn recruits Artemis, a nuclease, to get rid of any single-stranded DNA in that area.

The DNA would be joined using non-homologous end joining (NHEJ), but there would still be errors because NHEJ only deletes a small number of nucleotides. Therefore, this is a blunder-inclined fix system.

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How could an activator influence gene expression at a promoter far away from the place that it binds dna?.

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The activator binds directly to RNA polymerase, causing it to commence transcription by skipping over a significant portion of DNA.

What impact do activators have on gene expression?

Since they work to encourage gene transcription and, in certain situations, are necessary for it to happen, activators are thought to have positive control over gene expression. The majority of activators are DNA-binding proteins that attach to promoters or enhancers.

Activators' effects on transcription are what?

Transcription factors are typically categorized as "activators" or "repressors," according to conventional wisdom. Gene activation results from the recruitment of coactivators by activators, whereas transcriptional repression results from the recruitment of corepressors by repressors.

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The characteristic that determines which generation in plants is dominant is the generation that.

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The plant generation that carries out the majority of photosynthesis is considered the dominant generation.

Photosynthesis is an important process that occurs in plants and blue-green algae for the production of organic substances or carbohydrates using water and carbon dioxide. This process releases oxygen as a byproduct. Since they prepare their own foods, they are considered autotrophs.

Therefore, the generation of plants that are more obvious, more independent, and more photosynthetic is referred to as the "dominant generation of plants." This dominance helps plants survive and evolve from one generation to the next.

Therefore, the correct option is option c.

The complete question is -

The characteristic that determines which generation in plants is dominant is the generation that

a) is diploid

b) is haploid

c) carries out the majority of photosynthesis

d) produces the most gametes

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1. compare your d1s80 pcr product with those of the rest of the class. did any students have genotypes similar to yours? how could you explain such similarities?

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The mitochondrial DNA itself will vary between students because each of us inherited it from our moms; but since the same region is being amplified, the sequences of our PCR result will be the same.

The sequences of our PCR findings will be the same because the same region is being amplified, despite the fact that each student's mitochondrial DNA is distinct because we all received it from our mothers. Each cell has hundreds to thousands of mitochondria, which are found in the fluid surrounding the nucleus (the cytoplasm).

Chromosomes present in the nucleus hold the majority of DNA, while mitochondria only store a small quantity of their own DNA. The term "mtDNA," or mitochondrial DNA, is used to describe this genetic material. 16,500 DNA base pairs, or around 5% of the total DNA base pairs in human mitochondria, make up.

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which is the most likely outcome we would see if the virus that causes avian flu were to somehow combine with the human flu virus?

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Viruses that cause the flu can change are influenza virus . Because of this, persons who contract these viruses may experience worsening health conditions of our immune systems.

If the H5N1 avian flu virus mixed with a human influenza virus, the resulting "combined" virus might produce a novel, quickly contagious human influenza virus. a widespread viral infection that, especially in high-risk populations, can be fatal. Throat, nose, and lungs are all affected by the flu. Individuals with chronic illnesses or weakened immune systems, young children, elderly people, pregnant women, and older adults are at a higher risk. The list of symptoms also includes fatigue, headaches, chills, muscle aches, cough, congestion, and a runny nose. To help the body fight the infection on its own, rest and fluid consumption are the main treatments for flu. Taking paracetamol might help with the symptoms.

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the algorithms are of your choice. for example, you may use any of the general purpose heuristic optimization algorithms from the course material, including, but not limited to, branch and bound, simulated annealing, greedy local search, tabu search, genetic algorithm etc. or, you can use any other algorithm that you may find by searching the literature, or you may create your own heuristic algorithms.

Answers

An algorithm is a set of rules or instructions which used to solve complex problems. In many STEM fields, algorithms are used by laptop programs to streamline processes.

Example :Typical addition algorithm: Align numbers vertically along corresponding position values. Add numbers along the shared place value columns. Write the sum of each position value under each position value column. If the sum of the place value columns exceeds nine, carry the tens digit to the next column to the left. Once all place-valued columns have been added, the addition is complete and the algorithm terminates.

Here is an example that demonstrates this algorithm:

123+456=579

Notice that the numbers are aligned vertically along the position values. Each column of place value is then added and the result is written below the horizontal line.

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digeorge's syndrome is a developmental defect that prevents the maturation of the thymus. what cell type would be reduced by this condition?

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Due to decreased maturation numbers and dysfunctional peripheral T cells, infants born with improper thymus development (caused by DiGeorge syndrome or FoxN1 mutations) experience life-threatening infections that cause early mortality during the first year of life 5-7.

Prevention and Mitigation.

DiGeorge syndrome (DGS) is a primary   maturation immunodeficiency disease (PIDD) characterised by impaired thymocyte development and function, which increases vulnerability to infections. T-cells are taught in the thymus how to combat infection and stave off autoimmune disease. Primary immunodeficiency known as DiGeorge Syndrome (DGS) is characterised by cellular (T-cell) deficit, distinctive facial features, congenital cardiac disease, and hypocalcemia.Due to a comparative decrease in naive CD4+ T-cells, patients with DiGeorge syndrome have high memory CD4+ T-cell counts. Low absolute T cell lymphopenia is frequent in our sample of DiGeorge syndrome individuals, and it gets less severe with age.

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how does meiosis generate genetic diversity? answer homologous chromosomes cross over during prophase i, and during metaphase i, chromosomes align randomly. during prophase ii, chromosomes exchange material. during metaphase i, chromosomes align randomly, and during prophase ii, chromosomes exchange material. homologous chromosomes cross over during prophase i. during metaphase i, chromosomes align randomly. i don't know yet

Answers

Homologous chromosomes cross over during prophase I, and during metaphase I, chromosomes align randomly.

Three separate mechanisms, including the crossing over of homologous chromosomes in prophase I, are used by meiosis to produce genetic variation. The second method involves the chromosomes' random arrangement (not alignment) during metaphase I.

Last but not least, meiosis II's random distribution of sister chromatids will further boost genetic variety. Given that genetic variety is not produced by random alignment, the optimal response is  crossing over. Synapsis, or the merging of homologous chromosomes, also has little impact on genetic diversity.

Independent segregation describes how homologous chromosomes are organized. As a result of the homologous chromosomes aligning randomly on the metaphase plate during metaphase I, genetic diversity is increased. As a result, the offspring cells will have unique chromosome arrangements.

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a client’s antibody test for hiv showed no antibodies. for which reason would the client need to have a nucleic acid test completed before being told that testing for hiv is negative?

Answers

The patient might be at stage 0 of the illness.

What is an HIV infection?

HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) is a virus that weakens your immune system's defenses against common infections and disease .A range of potentially fatal infections and disorders are referred to as AIDS (acquired immune deficiency syndrome) when your immune system has been badly harmed by the HIV virus.

The three different forms of HIV diagnostic tests include nucleic acid (RNA), antigen/antibody, and antibody testing. Antigen and RNA testing can directly detect HIV, however antibody tests only find antibodies, not the virus itself. The CDC advises testing for HIV antigens and HIV nucleic acid because research on high-risk groups indicated that antibody testing alone can miss a significant portion of HIV infections that can be detected by virologic tests, particularly during stage 0. The HIV antibody test is sensitive and specific to antibodies, but further tests should be run to get a firm diagnosis. Due to their participation in high risk conduct, the customer does not require a second test. Not every client must undergo two tests.

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If you made a big deletion of DNA in the promoter sequence of a gene, which of the following is likely to happen? The gene would not be transcribed The mutation of the DNA would be copied to the RNA sequence None of these answers are correct DNA polymerase would no longer be able to bind and carry out transcription The promoter is not transcribed, therefore RNA would be made as usual The transcription factors will recognize and bind the DNA, initiating transcription

Answers

If you made a big deletion of DNA in the promoter sequence of a gene then, the gene would not be transcribed.

What is DNA?

Humans and nearly all other species carry their genetic information in DNA, also known as deoxyribonucleic acid. The DNA of an individual can be found in almost all of their cells.

The information molecule is DNA. It provides the knowledge required to produce proteins, another type of substantial molecule. Each of your cells contains 46 substantial structures called chromosomes that are distributed throughout these instructions. These chromosomes are made up of numerous smaller segments of DNA, called genes.

Therefore, Option A is correct.

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What anatomical region would the stoma created by the descending colostomy be in?.

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The descending colostomy is positioned on the lower left side of the abdomen in the descending colon.

Where is the location of a colostomy stoma?

A stoma. The location of the stoma depends depend on the portion of your colon that is redirected, but it is often below your waist on the left side of your abdomen. You will meet with a trained stoma nurse to discuss the location of the stoma if the procedure is planned in advance.

Where on the bowel does a stoma occur?

The small bowel (small intestine) is diverted through a stomach opening during an ileostomy. The gap is referred to as a stoma.

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in a bacterium, there is a mutation in the gene for the repressor protein of the lac operon. the mutation has changed a codon in the mrna from ucu to ucc. when lactose is present, how would this mutation affect the function of the lac operon?

Answers

The phenotypic effect would be that the lactase structural enzymes would be produced uncontrollably (wouldn't be able to stop the transcription) if the repressor gene underwent a mutation that prevented the repressor protein from binding to the operator.

Constitutive expression results from mutations in the repressor that prevent it from binding to the operator. A non-inducible phenotype results from mutations that block the inducer's ability to bind without affecting the operator's ability to bind.

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which type of mutation changes the genotype but cannot change the phenotype of a microbial organism?

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DNA changes known as silent mutations do not manifest themselves in the phenotypic of the organism. They represent a particular kind of neutral mutation.

Mutations may have an impact on an organism by altering its phenotype, or they may have an impact on the way DNA codes the genetic information (genotype). When mutations take place, they may be completely fatal or they may result in the termination (death) of an organism. The bulk of base pair modifications (particularly substitutions) after mutagen treatment have no impact on the phenotype. This frequently happens because the DNA sequence of a non-coding section of the DNA, such as a region between genes or an intron region, changes,  they do not alter the amino acids in the proteins they encode, they are neutral. Numerous other mutations are fixed before protein synthesis takes place, therefore they have no impact on the organism. Cells contain a variety of DNA repair methods to correct mutations.

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grasslands that contain some trees, occur in regions where a relatively cool, dry season is followed by a hot, rainy season are known as

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Grasslands that contain some trees, occur in regions where a relatively cool, dry season is followed by a hot, rainy season are known as Savannas.

A savanna, also known as a savannah, is a mixed woodland-grassland ecosystem distinguished by trees that are sufficiently spaced so that the canopy does not close. The open canopy allows enough light to reach the ground to support an unbroken herbaceous layer dominated by grasses.

Savannas are a transitional biome, not quite a forest or a desert, but somewhere in between. This habitat is home to many different species of plants and animals all over the world, including Africa's largest land mammal, the African elephant.

Savanna is grassland with a few scattered trees. Savannas of one kind or another cover nearly half of Africa (about five million square miles, mostly in central Africa) as well as large areas of Australia, South America, and India.

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Students are comparing the functions of carbohydrates and lipids. Which cellular function would be shared between carbohydrates and lipids?.

Answers

The cellular function that would be shared among carbohydrates and lipids is energy storage. The correct answer is a

Since both carbohydrates and lipids are made up of long chains of monomers, vast amounts of energy are stored between the bonds of the monomers that make them up.

Both carbohydrates and fats are used by the body to store energy. When the monomer chains that make up carbohydrates and lipids are cleaved, energy is released in the form of ATP, which the cell uses to carry out its basic functions.

Although a part of your question is missing, you might be referring to this question:

Students are comparing the functions of carbohydrates and lipids. Which cellular function would be shared between carbohydrates and lipids?

a) energy storage

b) protein formation

c) energy consumption

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which extinction period results in the evolution of the first mammals and dinosaurs appearing and forests of conifers and cycades dominate the land?

Answers

It was a life changing event. Around 66 million years ago, at the end of the Cretaceous period, an asteroid struck Earth, triggering a mass extinction that wiped out the dinosaurs and around 75% of all species.

Dinosaurs roamed the Earth in the Mesozoic Era, which is divided into the Triassic, Jurassic, and Cretaceous periods. They first arose during the Triassic period about 245 million years ago. Dinosaurs first appeared in the Middle Triassic and became the dominant terrestrial vertebrate in the Late Triassic or Early Jurassic, occupying this position for about 150 to 135 million years until their demise at the end of the Cretaceous. This era is popularly known as the "Age of Reptiles" and for good reason: reptiles, and particularly dinosaurs, were the dominant terrestrial vertebrate animals at the time. The PT extinction was the most severe in Earth's history, and was likely driven by intense volcanic eruptions and associated rapid climate change. This extinction decimated many early groups of reptiles and amphibians, and may have created environmental space for dinosaurs and other new groups to evolve.

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upon closer inspection of the leaves of flower of stone, one can observe tiny, cone-like structures. each cone-like structure emits spores of two different sizes. consequently, flower of stone should be expected to possess which other characteristics?

Answers

Flower of stone should be expected to posses other characteristics like - It is heterosporous, It is a lycophyte and It has separate male and female gametophytes.

Heterosporous are plants which produce different types of spores that are different in size, structure and function. They produce two kinds of spores, smaller microspores and larger megaspore. Lycophytes are seedless and vascular plants with sporophytes. Sporophytes have microphylls and branch dichotomously. Leaves are called microphylls, this is a type of plantleaf with one single, unbranched leaf vein. Some lycophytes are homosporous while some are heterosporous. Flower of stone has seperate male and female gametophyte.

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Complete question- Upon closer inspection of the leaves of flower of stone, one can observe tiny, cone-like structures. Each cone-like structure emits spores of two different sizes. Further investigation also reveals that the roots of flower of stone branch only at the growing tip of the root, forming a Y-shaped structure. Based on these additional observations which of the following can be properly inferred about "flower of stones?

Select all of the correct statements. (Choose all that apply) Complementary strands in a DNA molecule are held together by hydrogen bonds. Complementary strands in a DNA molecule are held together by covalent bonds. Nucleotides of a single DNA strand are held together by covalent bonds. Nucleotides of a single DNA strand are held together by hydrogen bonds.

Answers

The complementary strands in a DNA molecule are held together by hydrogen bonds is true statement.

The higher strand of DNA is the "mRNA-like" strand. The decrease strand is the strand this is complementary to the mRNA.You can decide the series of a complementary strand in case you are given the series of the template strand.

These strands are complementary, with every base in a single sticking to its companion at the other. The A-T pairs are related with the aid of using hydrogen bonds, at the same time as the G-C pairs are related with the aid of using 3 hydrogen bonds.

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In most eukaryotes, only about 1. 5% of the genome codes for proteins. What types of sequences make up the rest of the genome?.

Answers

The  most eukaryotes, only about 1. 5% of the genome codes for proteins Repetitive DNA Abstract types of sequences make up the rest of the genome.

Only approximately 1 percentage of DNA is made of protein-coding genes; the opposite ninety nine percentage is noncoding. Noncoding DNA does now no longer offer commands for making proteins. Scientists as soon as notion noncoding DNA was “junk,” without a recognized purpose.

Repetitive DNA--collection motifs repeated loads or heaps of instances withinside the genome--makes up the predominant share of all of the nuclear DNA in maximum eukaryotic genomes. About 1.5% of the genome includes the ≈20,000 protein-coding sequences which might be interspersed through the non coding introns, making up approximately 26%.Only approximately 1 percentage of DNA is made of protein-coding genes; the opposite ninety nine percentage is noncoding.

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2:8=12:_____________ Given the diagram below, if Z is the incenter of WXY, WYX =86, and WXZ=33. Find each measure. find the present value of an annuity of $8000 paid at the end of each 6-month period for 2 years if the interest rate is 7%, compounded semiannually. (round your answer to the nearest cent.) What part of a neuron functions as the integrating center, where the membrane potential reflects the summed effect of all epsps and ipsps?. Write this number in word form 84,052 if you expect a financial asset to increase in value you are considered bullish on that asset. which of the following statements are bullish positions? i. buying a call ii. buying a put iii. selling a call iv. selling a put if a vim user wants to use a command that is similar to the windows copy command, what command should they use? an automobile sounds its horn while passing an observer at 25.5 m/s. the actual horn frequency is 405 hz. assume the speed of sound is 345 m/s. find its frequency heard by the observer while the car is approaching. All of the following statements are true. Which one statement describes the biggest impact that sickle-cell disease has over the organs and organ systems of the body?Mutated hemoglobin molecules result in misshapen red blood cells that cannot function to transport oxygen in the body. Why is the Declaration of Independence considered a Declaration of War 3. A sample of water has the following concentration of ions (and the pH is near neutral): (a) (1 pt) Calculation all concentration in mg/L as CaCO3 Cations (b) (0.5 pt) What is the total hardness (TH)? Ca2+ (c) (0.5 pt) What is the carbonate hardness (CH)? Mg2+ (d) (0.5 pt) What is the noncarbonate hardness (NCH)? (e) (0.5 pt) What is the total dissolved solids concentration? (f) (2 pt) Draw an ion concentration bar graph. mg/L 95.0 26.0 15.0 Anions HCO3 SOX Cl- mg/L 160.0 135.0 73.0 Na + The characters in the excerpt are an example of in this decision point activity, you began to explore game theory: specifically, how your outcomes are dependent not just on your own choices, but also on the reactions of competitors. use what you learned from this decision point, and information from the chapter to answer the following question. suppose nike and adidas are considering whether to develop new advertising campaigns. for each pair of strategies, the blue triangle shows nike's payoff and the yellow triangle shows adidas's payoff, in billions. use this information to complete the sentences. Analyze the influence of laws on the health-related issue of teen tobacco use, and explain how this issue is related to disease prevention. Which quote best describes Gatsby's American Dream?answer choices"Of course she might have loved him, just for a minute,when they were first marriedand loved me more eventhen, do you see?"(Fitzgerald 162)"He wanted nothing less of Daisy than that she should go to Tom and say: I never loved you. After she had obliterated three years with that sentence they could decide upon the more practical measures to be taken. One of them wasthat, after she was free, they were to go back to Louisvilleand be married from her housejust as if it were five yearsago."(Fitzgerald 118)"Now hes dead, I said after a moment. You were hisclosest friend, so I know youll want to come to his funeralthis afternoon." (Fitzgerald 183)"However glorious might be his future as Jay Gatsby, he was at present a penniless young man without a past, and at any moment the invisible cloak of his uniform mightslip from his shoulders."(Fitzgerald 159) Rememberto estimate firstby rounding and multiplyingto find where the first digitgoes in the quotient.1. 1,593/13 what two groups were battling for power in the chinese revolution? who gained eventual control of mainland china? what happened to the other group Progress in meeting air quality standards has been slow because ___________________. Involves the use of e-mail, instant messaging, &camera cell phones to harass people whom the person knows as well as online strangers. Cyberbulling Bullying Annoying maxim has already spent $28,300 to manufacture a hamster food product called green health. maxim currently has 10,000 bags of green health on hand that can be sold for $90,640. alternatively, maxim can process it further into a different product, premium green, at an additional cost of $6,050. if maxim processes further, the premium green can be sold for $98,700. the incremental income to process further is: