Patti starts out on day 1 with $0.01 and doubles her money each day to create a sequence of $0.01, $0.02, $0.04, $0.08 and so on. How much money should she have on day 12 ?
A. $9.60
B. $10.24
C. $20.48
D. $40.96

Answer:

15 heads out of 30

Step-by-step explanation:

The total number of possible sequences of coin flips can be determined by raising the number of outcomes, which is 2 for any coin (heads or tails), to the power of the number of times the coin is flipped, given by the question as 30. Therefore,  230  is the total number of different sequences for 30 coin flips.

We can use combinatorial math to find the number of sequences with exactly 15 heads, which is 30 choose 15 or  (3015) . The probability we are looking for will be the number of sequences with 15 heads divided by the total possible sequences.

Now we can express the whole probability in math notation, and calculate an answer (rounded to 4 decimal places):

(3015)230=1551175201073741824≈0.1445≈14.45%

15 heads out of 30 is the most likely outcome when flipping 30 coins, if you run the same calculation with 14 or 16 heads you will get two equal, but smaller probabilities, same with 13 and 17 heads, and so on. If you graphed all of the outcomes, you will find it follows a normal distribution, or Bell curve, with the outcome of 15 heads, located at the peak.

If the coin is tossed 30 times then the expected value of the tails to appear is 15 which means tails will appear 15 times.

Binomial distributions consist of n independent Bernoulli trials.

Bernoulli trials are those trials that end up randomly either on success (with probability p) or on failures( with probability 1- p = q (say))

Suppose we have random variable X pertaining to a binomial distribution with parameters n and p, then it is written as

[tex]X \sim B(n,p)[/tex]

The probability that out of n trials, there'd be x successes is given by

[tex]P(X =x) = \: ^nC_xp^x(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

The expected value and variance of X are:

[tex]E(X) = np\\[/tex]

You flip a coin 30 times then the expected value will be

The probability of getting tails is 0.5 then the expected value will be

[tex]E(X) = 0.5 \times 30\\\\E(X) = 15\\[/tex]

Learn more about binomial distribution here:

https://brainly.com/question/13609688

Tank A has a greater volume.

Answer:

- 3.4(21) = - 71.4

(- 2.3)(- 7.9) = 18.17

9.24 ÷ - 7 = -1.32

(- 8.5) ÷ (- 3.4) = 2.5

- 6.85 ÷ 0.5 = - 13.7

Answer:

B

A=2

B=6

Step-by-step explanation:

The expression that shows how much farther Adam can see to the horizon should be considered as the d = 400 - 256 and d = 256 - 400.

Since

Pam's eye–level height is 256 feet above sea level and Adam's eye–level height is 400 feet above sea level.

So here the expression be like The expression that shows how much farther Adam can see to the horizon should be considered as the d = 400 - 256 and d = 256 - 400.

Learn more about an expression here: https://brainly.com/question/4700495

Answer: x=0

Step-by-step explanation: This is number 9

12=-4(-6x-3)

-4(-6x-3)=12

-4(-6x-3)/-4=12/-4

-6x-3=-3

-6x-3+3=-3+3

-6x/-6=0/-6

x=0

Answer: 12

Step-by-step explanation: 96-84=12

I dont really know how i did it I just did.

Answer: [tex]2\sqrt{34}[/tex] or, as a decimal, 11.7.

Step-by-Step Explanation:

1. Use the distance formula and substitute the values of the two ordered pairs.

[tex]\sqrt{(2-(-4))^{2}+(2-(-8))^{2}}[/tex]...

2. Multiply -1 by -4.

[tex]\sqrt{(2+4)^2+(2-(-8))^2\\}[/tex] ...

3. Add 2 and 4.

4. Raise 6 to the power of 2.

[tex]\sqrt{36+(2-(-8))^2}[/tex]...

5. Multiply -1 by -8.

6. Add 2 and 8.

7. Raise 10 to the power of 2.

[tex]\sqrt{36+100}[/tex] ...

8. Add 100 and 36.

9. Rewrite 136 as 2² · 34.

10. After factoring 4 out of 136 and rewriting as ...  [tex]\sqrt{2^{2}(34)}[/tex], pull out terms from under the radical. It should look like this now: [tex]2\sqrt{34}[/tex]. That is your final answer!!

Hope that helps! Note: the unrounded decimal is 11.66190378.

(P.S. Can I have Brainliest please? Once someone else answers, of course...)

Answer:

15.4 I did this on delta math

It would take approximately 15.4 years, to the nearest tenth of a year, for the value of the account to reach $700 with continuous compounding.

The formula for calculating the future value (FV) of an investment with continuous compounding is:

[tex]FV = Pe^{rt}[/tex]

Where P is the initial principal, r is the annual interest rate (expressed as a decimal), t is the time period (in years), and e is the mathematical constant e (approximately 2.71828).

In this case, we have P = $350, r = 4.5% = 0.045, and we want to find the time t when the FV is $700. Substituting these values into the formula, we get:

[tex]700 = 350e^{0.045t}[/tex]

Dividing both sides by $350, we get:

[tex]2 = e^{0.045t}[/tex]

Taking the natural logarithm of both sides, we get:

[tex]ln(2) = ln\times e^{0.045t}[/tex]

Using the properties of logarithms, we can simplify this to:

ln(2) = 0.045t ln(e)

Since ln(e) = 1, we can simplify further to:

ln(2) = 0.045t

Finally, solving for t, we get:

t = ln(2) / 0.045 ≈ 15.4

Therefore, it would take approximately 15.4 years, to the nearest tenth of a year, for the value of the account to reach $700 with continuous compounding.

To know more about continuous compounding follow

https://brainly.com/question/14303868

#SPJ2

Answer:

[tex]-y\sqrt{3}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Under the radical there is a perfect square, one can take the perfect square out, and write it by its square root. The result of taking the principal square root is always positive, but it is given that the perfect square factor is negative, thus, one must multiply the square root by the negative sign to ensure that the result is positive.

Answer:

[tex]-y\sqrt{3}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

D.) 1 - (4 * 2)

Step-by-step explanation:

Given :

Product of 4 and 2 is written as : 4 * 2

Subtracting 1 from the product above : 1 - (4 *2)

Hence, the fractional form of the question above is simply written as :

1 - (4 * 2)

Answer:

√(684×684)=√684²=±684

Answer:

D. (5,0) and (5,10)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A gotchu Just took the test got 100

Step-by-step explanation:

B

Answer:

The answer is B

Step-by-step explanation:

As it is very close to one because all the points are close together

Answer:

1. 51

2. 30

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Slope = 3

Y intercept = 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Slope intercept form is

y = mx+b where m is the slope and b is the y intercept.

So in your question

-3x+y=1

add 3x to each side to get

y = 3x+1

3 is m

1 is b

so the slope is 3

the y intecept is 1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

let width=x

length=x+7

x(x+7)=30

x²+7x-30=0

x²+10x-3x-30=0

x(x+10)-3(x+10)=0

(x+10)(x-3)=0

either x=-10 (rejected being negative)

or x=3

width=3 cm

length=3+7=10 cm

Perimeter=2(10+3)=2×13=26 cm

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

300t=280(t+2)

300t=280t+560

20t=560

t=28

Answer:

They are all acute triangles or iscoles triangles

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

26

Step-by-step explanation:

Solve 9x-1 = 41-5x

9x-1 = 41-5x

   +1   +1

9x = 42-5x

+5x      +5x

14x = 42

/14     /14

x = 3

Plug in X for EF

41-5(3)

41-15

=26

Answer:

30

Step-by-step explanation:

12×5=60 60÷1/2=30

srry if I was wrong

12×5=60 60÷1/2=30 i hope it's right!! :)

Answer:

C, D and E are the correct statement

Answer:

[tex] 11.25\: {in}^{3} [/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Since, box contains two layers of cubes and each layer has 15 cubes.

So, length = 15*1/2 in = 7.5 in,

width = 3*1/2 in = 1.5 in

height = (1/2 + 1/2) = 1 inch

Volume of box = lbh

= 7.5* 1.5 *1

= 11.25 cubic inches

Answer:

rotation, then translation

Step-by-step explanation:

The transformation that map triangle MNQ onto triangle PQN is rotation, then translation.

The given triangles;

A translation of a triangle occurs when the triangle shifts up, or down,  of left or right on the coordinate plane.

The reflection of a triangle occurs when the vertices of the triangle is flipped over the opposite side.

Since the triangle MNQ is rotated then shifted to the left to form the new triangle PQN, we can conclude that the transformation that map triangle MNQ onto triangle PQN is rotation, then translation.

Learn more about rotation and translation of triangles here: https://brainly.com/question/1616371

Answer:

2(b+6)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

d

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the triangle is equilateral then the 3 sides are congruent, then

2x = 6 ( divide both sides by 2 )

x = 3

and

3y = 6 ( divide both sides by 3 )

y = 2

Thus x = 3 and y = 2 → d

Answer: 1 1/2, 3/2, or 1.5

Step-by-step explanation: Convert expression into unproper fractions, 13/6, and 9/2. Then by changing 13/6 into a denominator with 2, you multiply and it equals 1 1/2.

Answer:

Blank 1: y=3x+10

Blank 2: y= 40

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the cost of gift wrap be y and the number of gifts be x.

Department

An upfront fee of $10 means that Mr Bentley needs to pay $10 first, and this $10 is only paid once on top of the cost of wrapping each gift.

y= 3x +10

Niece

A flat fee of $40 means that no matter how many gifts the niece wraps, Mr Bentley only pays $40.

y= 40

To find out when the two plans cost the same, equate the two equations together. Then, solve for x.

3x +10= 40

3x= 40 -10 (-10 on both sides)

3x= 30

x= 30 ÷3

x= 10

Thus when Mr Bentley has 10 gifts to be wrapped, the 2 plans costs the same.

Answer:

link to answer

https://visualfractions.com/calculator/divide-fractions/what-is-1-12-divided-by-36-36/

Answer:

This is 0.002 but I think you mean

36 divided by 1/12=

3