Rank the steps of transcription of DNA to synthesize mRNA.
1. DNA double helix unwinds to expose the nucleotide bases
2. RNA polymerase identifies the start sequence
3. RNA polymerase adds bases that are complementary to the DNA template
4. RNA polymerase identifies the termination sequence
5. mRNA strand and RNA polymerase are released
Transcription is the process by which the DNA sequence of a gene is replicated (transcribed) to produce an RNA molecule.The primary transcription enzyme is RNA polymerase.When RNA polymerase binds to a promoter sequence near the start of a gene, transcription begins.RNA polymerase uses one of the DNA strands (the template strand) as a template to create a new, complementary RNA molecule.Termination is the process by which transcription comes to an end. Termination is dependent on RNA sequences that signal that the transcript is complete.Learn more about transcription to visit this link
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Compare antibacterial spectrum of amoxicillin (Amoxil) to amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin). Adding a beta-lactamase inhibitor, like clavulanate, increases coverage against:A. Gram negative and anaerobic pathogensB. Gram positive pathogensC. MRSA
Augmentin (amoxicillin / clavulanate) is an antibiotic that contains both amoxicillin and potassium clavulanate. It is used to treat several bacterial illnesses. Amoxil (amoxicillin) is a penicillin antibiotic that is used to treat a wide range of bacterial infections.
Augmentin can cure the same germs as amoxicillin, but it is also effective against other more difficult-to-treat diseases, such as: Infections of the sinuses. Infections of the ears. Bacterial infections linked to COPD.
Broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as doxycycline, azithromycin, amoxicillin and clavulanic acid, mupirocin, and fluoroquinolones, target a broad range of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, whereas narrow-spectrum antibiotics, such as vancomycin, fidaxomicin, and sarecycline, target a narrow range of clinically important bacteria.
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about 12,000 years ago climate conditions were changing and humans spent more time fishing and collecting plant foods. the big game animals were less numerous and hunting became more a solitary activity. this new way of life marks the beginning of the:
Hunting and other new ways of life mark the mesolithic age.
Give a brief description of the mesolithic age.
Between the Upper Paleolithic and the Neolithic is the Old World archaeological period known as the Mesolithic or Middle Stone Age. Particularly outside of northern Europe and for the equivalent time in the Levant and Caucasus, the word "Epipaleolithic" is frequently used synonymously.
Smaller chipped stone tools replaced larger chipped stone stools as the preferred seating option (microliths). Hunting big herds of animals in packs gave way to a more hunter-gatherer way of life. As the Mesolithic Age came to a conclusion, people started cultivating crops and engaging in animal husbandry, which is the controlled raising of domestic animals for food and other purposes. The Mesolithic Age saw the production of a variety of pottery in some parts of the world. The dogs were domesticated during the Mesolithic Age.
Hence, the answer is the mesolithic age.
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Chemoreceptors located in the aortic and carotid bodies stimulate the respiratory control center in the brain when the blood __________ decreases.
Chemoreceptors located in the carotid bodies are responsible for detecting variations in blood oxygen levels. The chemoreceptors react when oxygen levels fall.
What kind of thing does the body's chemoreceptors measure and react to?Arteriovenous chemoreceptors, which monitor and react to changes in the partial pressure of oxygen and carbon dioxide in arterial blood, and central chemoreceptors in the brain, which react to changes in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in their immediate environment, are the two different types of respiratory chemoreceptors.
What chemoreceptors detect CO2 and pH?ASICs are specific chemoreceptors that measure blood carbon dioxide levels. To achieve this, they keep an eye on the amount of hydrogen ions, which lower blood's pH.
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a new strand of dna is made. write the name of the process and the main enzyme involved. process is called : enzyme that adds new nucleotides is called:
Replication is the process by which a double-stranded DNA molecule is copied to produce two identical DNA molecules. DNA replication involves DNA polymerase enzyme to add new nucleotides.
Our genome contains approximately 333 billion base pairs of DNA, all of which must be precisely duplicated each time one of your trillions of cells divides.
Semiconservatism applies to DNA replication. The double helix's individual strands serve as templates for the creation of new, complimentary strands. DNA polymerases, which require a template and a primer (beginning) and synthesis DNA in the 5' to 3' orientation, are the enzymes responsible for creating new DNA. One new strand of DNA is created as a single continuous unit during DNA replication. The other is composed of tiny fragments. DNA primase, DNA helicase, DNA ligase, and topoisomerase are other enzymes necessary for DNA replication in addition to DNA polymerase.
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Students are comparing the functions of carbohydrates and lipids. Which cellular function would be shared between carbohydrates and lipids?.
A cellular function that is shared between carbohydrates and lipids is energy production.
Carbohydrates like glucose will be oxidized to pyruvic acid in glycolysis which gets transported to mitochondria where it gets converted to acetyl co-a. Acetyl co-a then enters Kreb's cycle in which Nadh and Fadh molecules are formed these molecules are oxidized in the electron transport chain to form ATP which is an energy currency of a cell. Lipids are oxidized through the beta-oxidation pathway to form acetyl co-a which enters the Krebs cycle to form Nadh and Fadh molecules which are oxidized in the electron transport chain to form ATP. This explains how carbohydrates and lipids share the same function which is energy production.
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In relation to their position in a food chain, what do plants and photosynthetic algae have in common?.
Plants and photosynthetic algae both are producers in relation to their position in a food chain.
Producers also termed as autotrophs, they make their own food. They are on the first position of every food chain. Plants and photosynthetic algae are the organism that can produce their own food by using the materials from organic sources, like- sunlight, carbon dioxide etc. Therefore, they can be called as producers or autotrophs in relation to their position in a food chain. They formed the base of an energy pyramid of ecosystem.
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when using the crispr-cas9 system to make a mutation in a cell, the guide rna will contain which sequences (or complementary versions of the sequence):
While using the crispr-cas9 system to make a mutation the sequence required is 20 bases sequence.
In an ordinary CRISPR study, an sgRNA is designed to have a manual collection domain (specific as gRNA in our study) on the 5′ end, that is complementary to the goal collection.
The rationally designed sgRNA is then used to manual the Cas9 protein to precise webweb sites withinside the genome for centered cleavage.Better concentrated on of CRISPR-Cas9In maximum instances the manual RNA includes a particular collection of 20 bases. These are complementary to the goal collection withinside the gene to be edited. However, now no longer all 20 bases want to suit for the manual RNA as a way to bind.
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osteocytes are surrounded by a dense, bony matrix. how do they get the nutrients they need to survive?
Osteocytes can enter blood vessels and deliver nutrients to the bone. On the other hand, osteoclasts degrade the matrix and release the resulting products into the blood.
Osteocytes receive nutrients through their dendrites, which are tentacle-like structures that extend through tiny structures called canaliculi. Because they make up 95% of the cells in adult bones and aid in the formation of bone, osteoclasts require nutrients.
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jessie has elevated levels of triacylglycerides and fatty acids and normal levels of cholesterol. however, there is no evidence of ketone body formation. which statement best explains jessie's test results?
The statement which best explains Jessie's test results is b)She has elevated levels of triglycerides and fatty acids, because she recently ate a large meal. So, option b is correct.
A fatty substance (TG, triacylglycerol, TAG, or triacylglyceride) is an ester gotten from glycerol and three unsaturated fats (from tri-and glyceride).[1] Fatty oils are the fundamental constituents of muscle versus fat in people and different vertebrates, as well as vegetable fat. They are likewise present in the blood to empower the bidirectional transaction of fat and blood glucose from the liver, and are a significant part of human skin oils.
Many kinds of fatty substances exist. One explicit grouping centers around soaked and unsaturated sorts. Immersed fats have no C=C gatherings; unsaturated fats highlight at least one C=C gatherings. Unsaturated fats will generally have a lower melting point than immersed analogs; subsequently, they are in many cases fluid at room temperature.
Hence, option b is correct.
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(Complete question) is:
Jessie has elevated levels of triacylglycerides and fatty acids and normal levels of cholesterol. However, there is no evidence of ketone body formation. Which statement best explains Jessie's test results?
a)She has elevated levels of triglycerides and fatty acids, because she is obese.
b) She has elevated levels of triglycerides and fatty acids, because she recently ate a large meal.
c)She does not produce ketone bodies due to her athleticism
d)She does not produce ketone bodies because of her vegan diet.
e) She does not produce ketone bodies due to a metabolic impairment. MacBook Air
Who is Gregor Mendel
Answer:
Explanation:
the architect of genetic experimental and statistical analysis, the acknowledged father of genetics, Mendel developed three principles of inheritance that described the transmission of genetic traits.
Answer: Gregor Mendel is the Father of Genetics. He is well-known for his work with breeding and cultivating pea plants, using them to gather data about dominant and recessive genes.
Explanation: Hope this was helpful
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which term best matches the type of stimulation of a muscle may receive which does not produce noticeable contraction?
Stimulation is the promotion of growth or, more broadly, the cause of activity.As an illustration, "The press stimulates political conversation."Regardless of how it affects the senses physically, an interesting or enjoyable activity can be referred to as "stimulating".
Which two kind of stimulation are there?Stimuli might be internal or external.One example of an external stimulus is how a drug impacts your body.Changes in your vital signs brought on by a shift in your body is an example of an internal stimulus.
What are the four stimuli for the touch sense?The four fundamental sensations of pressure, heat, cold, and pain are reacted to by various combinations of the many nerve endings that are implanted in our skin.Only pressure, however, has unique receptors of its own.Our capacity to perceive the locations and motions of various body parts is known as proprioception.
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quasars emit significant amounts of radiation from the lyman-alpha transition. when the spectrum is observed on earth, it is found that the lyman-alpha line is accompanied by many absorption lines, called the lyman-alpha forest. what is the origin of these lines?
The Lyman-alpha absorption strains withinside the quasar spectra end result from intergalactic gas by which the galaxy or quasar's mild has traveled.
Infalling gas found, star-forming galaxies probable number one electricity supply of Lyman-alpha radiation emitted from big H₂ gas blobs. Billions of lightyears away, big clouds of hydrogen gas produce a unique sort of radiation, a form of ultraviolet mild referred to as Lyman-alpha emissions. The Lyman-alpha absorption strains withinside the quasar spectra end result from intergalactic gas by which the galaxy or quasar's mild has traveled.
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Most repressor proteins are allosteric. Which of the following binds with the repressor to alter its conformation?
A) inducer
B) promoter
C) RNA polymerase
D) transcription factor
E) cAMP
Inducer binds with the repressor to alter its conformation.
What is a Repressor?
In genomics, a repressor is a protein that inhibits the expression of one or more genes. The repressor protein inhibits messenger RNA production by binding to the promoter region of the gene(s) (mRNA). Repressor proteins are required for gene expression regulation in cells.
Repressors are proteins that inhibit or reduce gene expression, as evidenced by decreased messenger RNA production from the affected gene. Repressor proteins typically work by binding to and blocking critical DNA sequences in the gene, such as the promoter, which initiates mRNA transcription. In bacteria, repressors and activators of gene expression are distinct.
However, in higher eukaryotic cells, a DNA binding protein can act as an activator or repressor of gene expression, depending on its interactions with other proteins in the cell or other cellular context. Other molecules, such as non-coding RNA, may also act as repressors.
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if glycolysis occurs in the cytosol and the citric acid cycle occurs in the mitochondrial matrix, how do the products of glycolysis get inside the mitochondrial matrix?
Pyruvate is created in the cytoplasm via glycolysis, but it is oxidized in the mitochondrial matrix (in eukaryotes).
Pyruvate must enter the mitochondrion, penetrate its inner membrane, and reach the matrix before the chemical processes can commence.
The citric acid cycle occurs within the mitochondrion in the mitochondrial matrix, and oxidative metabolism happens at the internal folded mitochondrial membranes (cristae).
The citric acid cycle liberates stored energy by increasing acetyl-CoA oxidation. For eukaryotes, the process occurs within the mitochondrial matrix, while for prokaryotes, it occurs in the cytosol. The citric acid cycle generates three products: 1ATP, decreased FADH2 and NADH, and two molecules of CO2.
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Which of the following occurs during anaphase?
chromosomes condense and become visible
cell membrane divides
chromatids pull towards opposite poles of the cell
nuclear membrane forms
EX 1. In a village, a campaign against snakes was launched in which about all the snakes were killed. The farmers of that region were troubled by rats that year. Explain.
vesicle formation is driven by the binding of clathrin or cop proteins. select an answer and submit. for keyboard navigation, use the up/down arrow keys to select an answer. a true b false
It is true that vesicle formation is driven by the binding of clathrin or COP proteins.
Vesicle formation is used to recycle membrane components and allow extracellular substances to enter the cell. Thus, endocytosis and a variety of cellular functions are linked to vesicle formation.
The majority of transport vesicles originate in specialized, membrane-coated regions. They emerge as coated vesicles with a distinct cytosolic surface cage of proteins.
Coated vesicles can be broken down into three distinct categories based on the coat proteins they contain:clathrin-covered, COPI-covered, and COPII-covered vesicles. In the cell, different transport steps rely on each type.
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which of the choices below determines the direction of gases moving across the respiratory membrane? group of answer choices the temperature partial pressure gradient molecular weight and size of the gas molecule solubility in water
Partial pressure determines the direction of gases moving across the respiratory membrane.
A gas will circulate from a place in which its partial strain is better to a place in which its partial strain is lower. In addition, the extra the partial strain distinction among the 2 areas, the greater speedy is the motion of gases.
There are also other factors such as membrane thickness, membrane surface areas, diffusion coefficient and many others.
Out of the given options, partial pressure is the correct choice as it determines the direction of gases.
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the frequency of a recessive allele in a population is 50%. what is the frequency of the dominant allele?
The frequency of a dominant allele in a population is 0.75. If the frequency of a recessive allele in a population is 50%.
Given
Frequency of recessive allele in percent q² = 50%
q = 0.5
From Hardy Weinberg principle
if no unfavorable factors exist, genetic variation in a population will remain stable from one generation to the next.
p + q = 1
p = 1-0.5
p = 0.5
Frequency of dominant allele
p² + 2pq =
(0.5)2 +2 x 0.5 x 0.5 = 0.75
Hence, frequency of dominant allele is 0.75.
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jim was in a car accident and suffered damage to the posterior ramus of several spinal nerves in his lumbar region. what problems might he experience as a result?
sufferes both posterior ramus of several spinal nerves in his lumbar region
Anesthetists must have a thorough understanding of the anatomy of the posterior ramus of the spinal nerve (PRSN) in order to efficiently and securely administer a facet joint block. The lateral branch and medial branch are the PRSN's two primary beginning branches, according to the major anatomy textbooks. 1–4 However, the explanation of PRSN anatomy can be a bit hazy in some textbooks. 5–11 This lack of interest reflects the conventional anatomical belief that these nerves are of no clinical importance. These nerves have, however, received more clinical attention over the past 30 years, both in the diagnosis and treatment of low back pain as well as in the comprehension of disability following spinal surgery. Textbooks on anatomy have not evolved to reflect this interest.
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Thermogenesis has been studied the plants in the genus Arum, including skunk cabbage and the corpse flower. In these plants, what hypotheses have been provided to explain the reason behind thermogenesis? Select ALL that apply
a) protection from frost damage
b) leaf production and photosynthesis.
c) seed germination.
d) heat source for pollinators
c) pollinator attraction.
Answer:
a,b,c
Explanation:
Protection from frost damage, leaf production and photosynthesis along with seed germination explain the reason behind thermogenesis.
What is thermogenesis?
The process through which organisms produce heat is known as thermogenesis. All warm-blooded creatures experience it, and a few thermogenic plant species including the Eastern skunk cabbage, the Voodoo lily, and the huge water lilies of the genus Victoria also experience it.
One of the primary purposes of transpiration, which serves as the upper terminal mover of the water circulation in plant systems, is thermoregulation. It establishes a constant water flow from the plant's root system to its leaves and other vegetative organs, uniting them into one whole.
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would you expect a plant living in a very dry environment (desert) to have leaves with a high surface area to volume ratio or a low surface area to volume ratio? to retain heat would an organisms more likely have a high surface area to volume ratio or a low surface area to volume ratio? how about for respiration?
Low surface area to volume ratio in a dry atmosphere . Low surface area to volume ratio to retain heat for respiration, organisms with a high surface area to volume ratio are more likely.
Photosynthesis benefits heterotrophs in a number of ways. They rely on the process for producing oxygen, which is created as a byproduct of photosynthesis. Furthermore, photosynthesis supports the autotrophs on which heterotrophs rely for survival.
Because many species have comparable genes regardless of the habitat they are in, gene flow among populations decreases the opportunity for local adaptation within each group.
The plant's large surface area allows it to absorb as much sunlight as possible, which is essential for photosynthesis to produce food for the plant.
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How does genetic evidence support the idea of evolution?
Answer:
DNA sequence comparisons can show how different species are related.
Explanation:
What structures did you note at the caudal end of your pig specimen?.
How could you increase the rate of cyclosis in
plant cells?
Answer: By adding growth hormone.
Explanation: Cyclosis also known as protoplasm streaming. By the help of this movement cells are enable to get oxygen and nutrients. Cyclosis is regulated by various factors including, temperature, pH, oxygen concentration, light, cellular injury, cellular shock etc.
Addition of growth hormone 'Auxin' increases the cyclosis i.e. rate of the movement of protoplasm.
What is the difference between a musculoskeletal disease and a musculoskeletal disorder.
Answer:
A disease is an illness that is suddenly acquired, and a disorder is present at birth.
Explanation:
Musculoskeletal discomfort has a wide range of reasons. The wear and tear of daily activities can cause muscle tissue injury.
Musculoskeletal discomfort can also be caused by trauma to a region.
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a defective na /k atpase pump is isolated from a plasma membrane and studied. careful measurements in the laboratory determine that the pump is able to hydrolyze atp and transports 3 na ions across the plasma membrane. the pump is also able to bind 2 k with high affinity. however, the pump is unable to shuttle k ions across the plasma membrane. based on these observations, what is the most likely cause of the defect in this pump?
It is impossible for the damaged Na+/K+ ATPase to dephosphorylate itself.
The phosphorylated form of the Na+/K+ ATPase has a high affinity for K+ ions and a low affinity for Na+ ions, and it is one of the two forms that the Na+/K+ ATPase pump alternates between. The pump releases the bound 3 Na+ ions outside the cell and binds to the 2 K+ ions from the surroundings as a result of the release of phosphate from ATP and phosphorylation of Na+/K+ ATPase. K+ ions are released inside the cell as a result of the Na+/K+ ATPase's decreased affinity for K+ ions as a result of dephosphorylation.
To attain its dephosphorylated form, a faulty Na+/K+ ATPase must be able to select and bind K+ ions but not transport them across the membrane. If phosphate were not released, the pump's affinity for K+ ions would not be lowered and it would not be able to release them to the other side of the membrane.
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PLEASE HELP ME 65 POINTS
Biodiesel can be used as a pure fuel, or blended with petroleum-derived diesel (petrodiesel) in any percentage. Such blends are referred to as BXX wherein XX stands for the percentage by volume of biodiesel in the blend.
B20—a blend of 20% by volume ____________: 80% by volume ________________— has demonstrated significant environmental benefits (fewer harmful emissions) with a minimum increase in cost.
A renewable substitute for diesel fuel made from petroleum is biodiesel.
Describe biodiesel ?A renewable substitute for diesel fuel made from petroleum is biodiesel (hereafter referred to as "petrodiesel").A lye catalyst, methyl or ethyl alcohol, and the feedstock oil (often soybean oil in the United States) are combined to create biodiesel (sodium hydroxide or potassium hydroxide).The glycerin is separated from the fatty acid molecules of the feedstock oil during the transesterification process, and each fatty acid molecule then joins an alcohol molecule.Biodiesel is a domestic, renewable fuel for diesel engines that complies with ASTM D 6751 specifications and is made from natural oils like soybean oil.To ensure proper performance, fuel-grade biodiesel must be produced in accordance with ASTM D6751, which is a strict industry standard.To learn more about biodiesel refer to:
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quizlet you cross a true-breeding, red-flowered snapdragon with a true-breeding, white-flowered one. all of the f1 are pink. what does this say about the parental traits?
what does this say about the parenting style . Red displays partial dominance over white.
In genetics, dominance refers to a gene's (allele's) greater impact over another gene that affects the same inherited trait. The T allele (and the attribute of tallness) is said to be entirely dominant if a pea plant with the alleles T and t (T = tallness, t = shortness) is the same height as a TT person. It is said that T is partially or incompletely dominant if the T t individual is shorter than the T T but still taller than the t t individual. This means that T has a greater influence than t but does not completely mask t, which is said to be recessive.
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