On a Cartesian coordinate plane, points $(2,1)$ and $(3, 4)$ are adjacent points on a square. What is the area of the square?

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve for x we use sine

sin ∅ = opposite / hypotenuse

From the question

38 is the hypotenuse

20 is the opposite

So we have

sin x = 20/38

sin x = 10/19

x = sin-¹ 10/19

x = 31.75

Hope this helps you

Answer:

The time spent studying is the response variable.

Step-by-step explanation:

The response variable, also known as the dependent variable is the main question which the experiment wants to provide an answer for. Usually, the predictors determine or affect the response variable.  In the study where Teresa investigates the effect of grade level on time spent studying, the response variable is the time spent studying, while the predictor which is the grade level provides an explanation as to the time spent studying.

The changes or variations on time spent studying depends on the grade level. This means that the grade level provides an explanation of the length of time dedicated to studying.

Answer:

x=½

y=5

Step-by-step explanation:

(8x+7y=39)2

16x+14y=78

4x-14y=-68 add the two equations

20x=10.

divide both sides by 20

x=½

8x+7y=39

4+7y=39

7y=39-4

7y=35

y=5

The value of x and y in the system of equation using elimination method is 1 / 2and 5 respectively.

8x + 7y = 39

4x – 14y = –68

Multiply by 2

16x + 14y = 78

-14y + 14y = 0

4x + 16x = 20x

-68 + 78 = 10

20x = 10

x = 1 / 2

8(1 / 2) + 7y = 39

4 + 7y = 39

7y  = 35

y = 35 / 7

y = 5

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Answer:

a. 0.48

b. 0.14

c. 0.47

Step-by-step explanation:

Data provided in the question

0 - 2        0.48

3 - 5        0.26

6 - 8        0.12

9- 11        0.09

12- 14       0.05

Based on the above information

a. The probability for fewer than three phobias is

= P( x < 3)

= 0.48

b.  The probability for more than eight phobias is

= P( x >8)

= 0.09 + 0.05  

= 0.14

c. Probability between 3 and 11 phobias is  

= P(3 < x < 11)

= 0.26 + 0.12  + 0.09

= 0.47

Answer:

-3

Step-by-step explanation:

I'm not sure what the 0s are all about, but I can help with the equation;

To do this, we can do substitution. By equaling x-4 to 3x+2, we get

x-4=3x+2

By isolating the x, we get

-2x=6

x=-3

Hope this helped!

4. 12 cent

5. $2.06

6. $1.56

7. $1.30

8. 86 cent

Answer:

75%

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 3 numbers that fit this rule, 3, 5, and 6. There is a 3/4 chance spinning one or a 75% chance.

Answer:

75%

Step-by-step explanation:

The numbers 6 or odd are 3, 5, and 6.

3 numbers out of a total of 4 numbers.

3/4 = 0.75

Convert to percentage.

0.75 × 100 = 75

P(6 or odd) = 75%

Step-by-step explanation:

The given sequences are;

2,7,12,17......

difference =5

by using formula,

we get,

tn=a+(n-1)d

tn= 2+(n-1)5

Therefore, tn is 5n-3 is required formula for this arithmetic sequences.

Hope it helps....

Answer:

The solution to this expression is 61,224.74

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve we initially have to convert the percentage to a decimal:

[tex]1.8\% = \frac{1.8}{100} = 0.018[/tex]

So

56000*(1+1.8%)^5 = 56000(1+0.018)^5 = 56000(1.018)^5 = 61,224.74

The solution to this expression is 61,224.74

Answer:

4.9 hours = 4 hours 54 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

speed = distance/time

time * speed = distance

time = distance/speed

time = (284 miles)/(58 mph) = 4.9 hours

4.9 hours - 4 hours = 0.9 hours

0.9 hours * (60 minutes)/(1 hour) = 54 minutes

4.9 hours = 4 hours 54 minutes

Answer:

-2

Step-by-step explanation:

The slope of a line is

m = (y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

   = (-2 -4)/(-1 - -4)

   = -6/ ( -1 +4)

   = -6 /3

    =-2

Answer:

[tex]= - 2 \\ [/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]( - 4 \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: 4) = > (x1 \: \: \: \: \: \: y1) \\ ( - 1 \: \: \: \: - 2) = > (x2 \: \: \: \: \: \: y2)[/tex]

Now let's find the slope

[tex]slope = \frac{y1 - y2}{x1 - x2} \\ = \frac{4 - ( - 2)}{ - 4 - ( - 1)} \\ = \frac{4 + 2}{ - 4 + 1} \\ = \frac{6}{ - 3} \\ = - 2[/tex]

hope this helps you.

brainliest appreciated

good luck! have a nice day!

Answer:pete

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex] {9}^{1} = 9 \\ {3}^{1} = 3 \\ {1}^{3} = 1[/tex]

Answer:

solution,

Volume of cylinder=304 cm^3

height=10 cm

Radius=?

Now,

[tex]volume = \pi {r}^{2} h \\ or \: 304 = 3.14 \times {r}^{2} \times 10 \\ or \: 304 = 31.4 \times {r}^{2} \\ or \: {r}^{2} = \frac{304}{31.4} \\ or \: {r}^{2} = 9.68 \\ or \: r = \sqrt{9.68} \\ or \: r = \sqrt{ {(3.11)}^{2} } \\ r = 3.11 \: cm[/tex]

Hope this helps..

Good luck on your assignment..

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

30/3x=10

-2

0

2

Answered on edge

Answer:

-2, 0, 2

Step-by-step explanation:

edge 2020

Step-by-step explanation:

Q1. 1,075÷12.5 =8

So Therefore 1g of medicine cost 8 naira

Q2.645÷42=15.3

so therefore 1 hour cost 15.3 naira

The cost of 1g of medicine is 86 naira and the total pay for someone who works 42 hours  is 27090 naira.

A division is a process of splitting a specific amount into equal parts.

Given that 12.5g of medicine cost 1,075 naira.

We have to find the cost of 1g of medicine.

12.5g=1075 naira

1g=1075/12.5

1g=86 naira.

the total pay for someone who works 42 hours and gets 645 naira per hour

The cost for 42 hours

42×645

27090 naira

Hence,  the cost of 1g of medicine is 86 naira and the total pay for someone who works 42 hours  is 27090 naira.

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Answer:

1) We have to multiply both sides by  1/(de)

2) c=ab/(cd)

Step-by-step explanation:

We have to achieve the right side expression be c only.  To do that we have to multiply cde by   1/(de) .  However we have to multiply the left side by

1/(de) as well.

So the resulting left side expression is:

ab *1/(de)=ab/(de)

So c= ab/(de)

Given equation in the question is,

ab = cde

To solve the given equation for the value of c, follow the algebraic rules,

1). Multiply both the sides of the equation with [tex]\frac{1}{de}[/tex],

   [tex]ab\times \frac{1}{de} = \frac{cde}{de}[/tex]

   [tex]\frac{ab}{de}= \frac{cde}{de}[/tex]

   [tex]\frac{ab}{de}=c[/tex]

Therefore, resulting equation for c will be,

[tex]c=\frac{ab}{de}[/tex]

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Answer:

21564 ÷ 2 = 10782

40565 ÷ 5 = 8113

6365 ÷ 8 = 795.625

1436 ÷ 7 = 205.142857143

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

First you need to find the slope of the line that contains those 2 points.

[tex]m=\frac{0-8}{0-(-4)}=\frac{-8}{4}=-2[/tex]

So the slope is -2. Now we can pick one of those points and sub it into the point-slope formula to find the equation:

y - 0 = -2(x - 0) gives us an equation of

y = -2x

Answer:

Option (1)

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the length of arc YZ = 12 units

m∠YXZ = one third of the full circle = [tex]\frac{360}{3}[/tex] = 120°

From the formula of arc length,

Length of arc = [tex]\frac{\theta}{360}(2\pi r)[/tex]

Where θ = Central angle subtended by the arc

r = radius of the circle

By substituting these values in the formula,

12 = [tex]\frac{120}{360}(2\pi r)[/tex]

12 = [tex]\frac{2}{3}\pi r[/tex]

[tex]18=\pi r[/tex]

r = [tex]\frac{18}{\pi }[/tex]

r = 5.73

r ≈ 6 units

Therefore, Option (1) will be the answer.

Answer:

  m less-than-or-equal-to 28

Step-by-step explanation:

Xander's charge for m miles will be (3 +1.50m). He wants this to be no more than $45, so ...

  3 +1.50m ≤ 45

  1.50m ≤ 42 . . . . . . subtract 3

  m ≤ 28 . . . . . . . . . .divide by 1.5

Answer: M is less than or equal to 28 or C

Step-by-step explanation:

GOT RIGHT ON E D G

Answer:

a) Check Explanation

b) Probability that 11 out of the 17 randomly selected flights are on time = P(X = 11) = 0.0680

c) Probability that fewer than 11 out of the 17 randomly selected flights are on time

= P(X < 11) = 0.0377

d) Probability that at least 11 out of the 17 randomly selected flights are on time

= P(X ≥ 11) = 0.9623

e) Probability that between 9 and 11 flights, inclusive, out of the randomly selected 17 are on time = P(9 ≤ X ≤ 11) = 0.1031

Step-by-step explanation:

a) How to know a binomial experiment

1) A binomial experiment is one in which the probability of success doesn't change with every run or number of trials. (Probability of each flight being on time is 80%)

2) It usually consists of a number of runs/trials with only two possible outcomes, a success or a failure. (It's either the flights are on time or not).

3) The outcome of each trial/run of a binomial experiment is independent of one another.

All true for this experiment.

b) Probability that exactly 11 flights are on time.

Let X be the random variable that represents the number of flights that are on time out of the randomly selected 17.

Binomial distribution function is represented by

P(X = x) = ⁿCₓ pˣ qⁿ⁻ˣ

n = total number of sample spaces = 17 randomly selected flights

x = Number of successes required = number of flights required to be on time

p = probability of success = Probability of a flight being on time = 80% = 0.80

q = probability of failure = Probability of a flight NOT being on time = 1 - p = 1 - 0.80 = 0.20

P(X = 11) = ¹⁷C₁₁ (0.80)¹¹ (0.20)¹⁷⁻¹¹ = 0.06803777953 = 0.0680

c) Probability that fewer than 11 flights are on time

This is also computed using binomial formula

It is the probability that the number of flights on time are less than 11

P(X < 11) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 5) + P(X = 6) + P(X = 7) + P(X = 8) + P(X = 9) + P(X = 10) = 0.0376634429 = 0.0377

d) Probability that at least 11 out of the 17 randomly selected flights are on time

This is the probability of the number of flights on time being 11 or more.

P(X ≥ 11) = P(X = 11) + P(X = 12) + P(X = 13) + P(X = 14) + P(X = 15) + P(X = 16) + P(X = 17)

= 1 - P(X < 11)

= 1 - 0.0376634429

= 0.9623365571 = 0.9623

e) Probability that between 9 and 11 flights, inclusive, are on time = P(9 ≤ X ≤ 11)

This is the probability that exactly 9, 10 or 11 flights are on time.

P(9 ≤ X ≤ 11) = P(X = 9) + P(X = 10) + P(X = 11)

= 0.0083528524 + 0.02672912767 + 0.06803777953

= 0.1031197592 = 0.1031

Hope this Helps!!!

Answer:

$15

Step-by-step explanation:

Each cup is 50 cents which is basically $0.50

Multiply $0.50 by 120= $60

Because you and your three friends equal 4 total people,

divide 60 by 4 to get your own profit:

60/4=15

Answer:

2400

Step-by-step explanation:

You have to follow PEMDAS (Parentheses, Exponent, Multiplication, Division, Addition, Subtraction).  Based off of this, you have to do the multiplication first, and then add.

263 × 24 - 164 × 24 + 24

6312 - 3936 + 24

2376 + 24

2400

The value of the expression 263 · 24 − 164 · 24 + 24 will be 2400.

When the relevant components and basic processes of a numerical method are given values, the expression's result is the result of the computation it depicts.

The acronym PEMDAS stands for Parenthesis, Exponent, Multiplication, Division, Addition, and Subtraction. This rule is used to answer the problem correctly and precisely.

The expression is given below.

⇒ 263 · 24 − 164 · 24 + 24

Simplify the expression, then the value of the expression is given as,

⇒ 263 · 24 − 164 · 24 + 24

⇒ 6312 − 3936 + 24

⇒ 6336 − 3936

⇒ 2400

The value of the expression 263 · 24 − 164 · 24 + 24 will be 2400.

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Answer:

Ending inventory cost= $56,700

Step-by-step explanation:

Giving the following information:

Production costs (19,900 units):

Direct materials $172,700

Direct labor 221,400

Variable factory overhead 265,400

Fixed factory overhead 92,800

Total= $752,300

The absorption costing method includes all costs related to production, both fixed and variable. The unit product cost is calculated using direct material, direct labor, and total unitary manufacturing overhead.

Total unitary production cost= 752,300/19,900= $37.80

Units in ending inventory= 1,500

Ending inventory cost= 1,500*37.8

Ending inventory cost= $56,700

Answer:

b. not all the children can be above average

d. half the children must be below average

Step-by-step explanation:

In theory, all women could be strong and all men could be good looking, however, since the average is calculated based on the town children, it is not possible for all children to be above average.

Assuming a normal distribution, half the children must be at or below average, while the other half must be at or above the average.

Therefore, the correct answers are:

b. not all the children can be above average

d. half the children must be below average

Answer:

Second and last options are correct choices.

Step-by-step explanation:

If all the children are above average, then the average should not include the average of the children. Because it is impossible for a data set to be have values greater than it's average.

Best Regards!

Answer:

(-1, 6)

(0, 7)

Step-by-step explanation:

Easiest and fastest way to do this is to graph both equations and analyze the graph for when they intersect each other.

Answer:

1.79% probability that the number of times that the coin lands tails will be less than 40

Step-by-step explanation:

Binomial probability distribution

Probability of exactly x sucesses on n repeated trials, with p probability.

Can be approximated to a normal distribution, using the expected value and the standard deviation.

The expected value of the binomial distribution is:

[tex]E(X) = np[/tex]

The standard deviation of the binomial distribution is:

[tex]\sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)}[/tex]

Normal probability distribution

Problems of normally distributed samples can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the zscore of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

When we are approximating a binomial distribution to a normal one, we have that [tex]\mu = E(X)[/tex], [tex]\sigma = \sqrt{V(X)}[/tex].

Fair coin:

Equally as likely to be heads or tails, so [tex]p = 0.5[/tex]

100 times

[tex]n = 100[/tex]

Then

[tex]\mu = E(X) = np = 100*0.5 = 50[/tex]

[tex]\sigma = \sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)} = \sqrt{100*0.5*0.5} = 5[/tex]

What is the probability that the number of times that the coin lands tails will be less than 40

Using continuity correction, this is [tex]P(X < 40 - 0.5) = P(X < 39.5)[/tex], which is the pvalue of Z when X = 39.5.

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{39.5 - 50}{5}[/tex]

[tex]Z = -2.1[/tex]

[tex]Z = -2.1[/tex] has a pvalue of 0.0179

1.79% probability that the number of times that the coin lands tails will be less than 40