Muscles of the axial skeleton might have an origin or insertion on any of the following except option 2 humerus, femur.
The axial skeleton is comprised of the 80 bones that form your body's central core. This includes your skull, neck, back, and chest bones. Your brain, spinal cord, and organs are all protected and cushioned by your axial skeleton. The skull, laryngeal skeleton, vertebral column, and thoracic cage are all part of the axial skeleton. The humerus and femur are the bones that correspond to the arms and legs, respectively. While their parts are similar in general, their structures have been modified to serve different purposes. The humeral head is nearly hemispherical, while the femoral head is roughly two-thirds of a sphere.
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if the cutouts represented moths, what moth coloration is best adapted for a dark (newspaper) background?
Dark moths are best adapted, so they survived and reproduced.
How do moths survive?
Most adult moths have a short life span. They live for a few days to a few weeks which depend on the species. Moths that hibernate through the winter, however, live for months.
Moths feed on nectar, much like butterflies. But some short-lived species of moths do not feed at all.
The larvae of moth look much like small branches. The larvae can hide well from predators by having a body that looks like a stick. The larvae even have the ability to adjust their color from brown to green. This is to best match the branches they are feeding on..
These moths play a very important role in food webs and are also an important food item for songbirds, mammals, and other insects.
Therefore, dark moths are best adapted, so they survived and reproduced.
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foods that are moderate-to-high on the glycemic index increase muscle glycogen more quickly than foods low on the glycemic index. true false
Sympathetic nervous system increasesA. Heart beatB. Secretion of salivaC. Secretion of digestive juicesD.All the above
Sympathetic nervous system increases the rate of Heart beat.
explain about sympathetic nervous system ?
The parasympathetic nervous system and the enteric nervous system are the other two components of the autonomic nervous system, together with the sympathetic nervous system (SANS or SYNS). Sometimes the enteric nervous system is seen as a component of the autonomic nervous system, while other times it is regarded as a separate system.
Heart rate is regulated by two areas in the brain's medulla: the cardiac accelerator centre and cardiac inhibitory centre. Sensory nerves enter the SA node coming from the accelerator centre. The sympathetic nervous system's stimulation of these nerves results in an increase in heart rate.
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for protein synthesis on the ribosomes. which three statements correctly describe the processing that takes place before a mature mrna exits the nucleus?
Beginning, extending, and ending are its three stages. Pre-mRNA processing is made up of (a) 5′-end capping, (b) splicing, and (c) 3′-end polyadenylation.
The beginning, elongation, and termination phases of an mRNA molecule's translation by the ribosome occur sequentially. The small ribosomal subunit binds to the first sequence of the mRNA during initiation. Two closely related stages are involved in the attachment of a polyA tail to the 3′ end of mRNA. The first step is endonucleolytic cleavage of the pre-mRNA to produce a free 3′ hydroxyl that serves as the substrate for the next step, the insertion of adenosines without using a template (polyadenylation). The genetic code found in mRNA is read and utilised to create a protein during translation. The fundamental tenet of molecular biology summarizes these two processes as follows
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which of the following scenarios would lead to a negative membrane potential? assume for each case that the appropriate leaky channel is present in the cell's membrane (select all that apply). group of answer choices k concentration outside cell > inside k concentration inside cell > outside cl- concentration outside cell > inside cl- concentration inside cell > outside
K+ concentration inside cell > outside
Cl= concentration outside cell > inside
The membrane's uneven distribution of positive ions causes the resting potential to be negative; 3 Na+ are pumped out of the cell for every 2 K+ that enter, making the inside of the cell less positive than the exterior.
K+ channels shut down. Na+ channels go from being inactive to being closed. K + concentration inside cell > outside In both the central and peripheral nervous systems, the leak K+ channels generate background K+ currents that control cell excitability.
Ion channels that are non-gated are constantly open. These channels are also known as "leak" channels because they do not impose any resistance on the ions as they pass through them.
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adult rats are fed a complete diet for a number of months, their total levels of stored triacylglycerol do not change. when their diets are subsequently changed to one containing 14c-labeled glucose, there is still no change in the total level of stored triacylglycerol but the stored lipid is now radioactive. explain how this occurs.
The stored lipid is radioactive because it contains the radioactive components from the ingested 14C-labeled glucose.
Glycogenesis is the process by which the excess glucose present in the body is converted into a storage form called glycogen. This process helps to store glucose and is used to supply immediate glucose when required. When the glycogen storage cells are filled, then the glucose will be converted to fatty acids, fat, or lipids and stored in fat cells by a process called lipogenesis.
So when we subsequently supply 14C-labeled glucose, it will be converted first to glycogen. But once that is done, excess glucose will be converted to fat. This storage fat will acquire the 14C-labeled carbon within its structure and be radioactive.
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what did chargaff discover about dna diversity and the relative amounts of nucleotides in dna strands?
Chargaff found that the proportion of T to A in DNA from any source was equal. C also had the same value as G. Although he might have believed that these ratios implied that T and C were always physically coupled or connected to one another and to G, he did not make this claim.
The first thing Chargaff noted was that DNA, whether it was taken from a plant or an animal, had the same amounts of adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine. These similarities gave us information on the chemical combinations that make up the double helix.
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once t helper cells are activated, they secrete which substance that activates and influences nearly all of the other cells of the immune system?
Helper T cells secrete cytokines to activate and regulate B cells, cytotoxic T cells, natural killer (NK) cells, macrophages, and other immune cells.
Helper T cells are a type of immune cell. When it senses an infection, it activates other immune cells to fight it. They can activate cytotoxic T cells or B cells that produce antibodies. Helper T cells are one of the most important cell types involved in adaptive immune responses. Helper T cells are perhaps the most important cells in adaptive immunity, as they are required for nearly all adaptive immune responses. Not only does it activate B cells to secrete antibodies and help macrophages destroy ingested microbes, but it also activates cytotoxic T cells to help kill infected target cells. are of three main types. Cytotoxicity, helper, regulation. Each of them has a different role in the immune response
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a junk yard located across from a subdivision would cause: select one: a. functional obsolescence b. environmental obsolescence c. physical obsolescence d. non-conforming obsolescence
The answer is environmental obsolescence.
Environmental obsolescence is a type of depreciation that results from factors outside of the actual asset, such as the environment, society, or economy. An example would be a nearby landfill for trash. By spending money on repairs, the homeowner cannot turn around this value decline. Things that were once novel and ground-breaking are becoming obsolete as technology develops. VHS tapes, one-hour photo labs, and phone booths are just a few items that have virtually disappeared over the past 20 years.
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synthetic biologists are trying to create cells from raw material. one step in the process is encapsulating genetic material into a compartment. researchers of the origin of life think that the earliest cells on earth may have used rna as their genetic material instead of dna. as biologists consider which genetic material to use in creating their synthetic cells, which of the following characteristics of a single-stranded rna genome should they keep in mind?
The characteristic of a single-stranded RNA genome that should be kept in mind is b) a newly synthesized RNA strand is not identical to the template strand.
RNA can be described as a nucleic acid molecule that is made up of a single strand. On the other hand, DNA can be described as a nucleic acid molecule made up of two strands.
Synthetic biologists, when considering single-stranded RNA genomes should keep in mind that a newly synthesized RNA strand cannot act as a template strand for forming another nucleotide strand. This is because the information on the RNA strand will be decoded only by the formation of amino acids. Hence, the RNA molecule will not be able to serve as genetic material for synthetic biologists.
Although a part of your question is missing, you might be referring to this question:
Synthetic biologists are trying to create cells from raw materials. one step in the process is encapsulating genetic material into a compartment. researchers of the origin of life think that the earliest cells on earth may have used RNA as their genetic material instead of DNA. as biologists consider which genetic material to use in creating their synthetic cells, which of the following characteristics of a single-stranded RNA genome should they keep in mind?
a) RNA genome will be unstable
b) a newly synthesized RNA strand is not identical to the template strand
c) RNA genome will become double-stranded
d) RNA genome will not be transferred
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why might an investigator conduct laboratory tests on unburned control material collected from a fire scene? what instrument is most often used to detect and characterize recovered flammable residues?
An investigator conduct laboratory tests on unburned control material collected from a fire scene to analyze the breakdown products A gas chromatograph is most often used to detect and characterize recovered flammable residues.
Laboratory tests, Analyses of the breakdown products produced by the material's exposure to intense heat during the fire can be performed in the laboratory on unburned control material. Analytical chemistry commonly employs gas chromatography for the separation and analysis of compounds that can be vaporized without decomposition.
The gas chromatograph is the most delicate and solid instrument for distinguishing and portraying combustible buildups. Accelerants like gasoline and kerosene are what start the majority of arsons.
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circulating naive t cells gain access to lymph nodes through high endothelial venules (hevs), which are located where?
Circulating naive t cells gain access to lymph nodes through high endothelial venules (hevs), are located in Cortex .
What is Cortex?
The cortex, also referred to as the cerebral cortex, is the region of the mammalian brain closest to the outside of the cerebrum. The anatomical term "cortex" refers to the body's outer layer. In reality, the frontal portion of the cortex, which is where higher cognitive functions are located, is where the majority of our intellect actually resides. Additionally, it is the final area of the brain to grow both developmentally and evolutionarily. The heart is the only organ in the human body without a "cortex," since others like the kidneys and ovaries also have an outer layer.
In anatomy, the outside portion or layer of a certain internal organ or tissue is often referred to as the cortex. The cerebral cortex serves as one example. The outermost layer of a vertebrate's cerebrum is called the cerebral cortex. The renal cortex is another another. The kidney's periphery is known as the renal cortex. The cortex in botany refers to the stem and root tissue that extends outward toward the vascular tissues. In some plants, it could be situated halfway between the vascular tissues and the epidermis. The cortex is found in woody plants sandwiched between the periderm and vascular tissue, particularly phloem. Therefore, the cortex is a part of the bark of the tree.
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One hundred each of three different trypes of trees are laced in a desert biome. Species A has the gighest transpitation rate, Species B has a moderate transpiration rate, and species C has a very slow transpitation rate. If the total amount of trees stays at 300 over a period of 10 years, predict what will happen to the species diversity over that time? Be sure to address each species in your answer.
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answer
the species c will be abundant in the 300 trees since the loss of water is very slow the species B will be at a neutral number they might have entreated or decreases at some point and species A will have a lower population since the fast rate of transpiration will lead to lesser amounts of glucose to be produced killing of the species
aiden's bloodwork indicates his fasting plasma glucose level is 117 mg/dl, which indicates that aiden:
If Aiden's fasting blood plasma glucose is 117 mg/dl that indicates that Aiden is prediabetic.
A fasting blood glucose test is conducted by taking blood from individuals. Individuals should not eat anything (except water) eight hours prior to the test. This test is a way to find diabetes in a person. If the blood glucose level is between 70 and 100 mg/dl then the individual is normal. If it is between 100 mg/dl and 125 mg/dl then the individual is prediabetic hence maintaining their lifestyle and monitoring blood glucose level is important to prevent diabetes. If the level is more than 125 mg/dl then the person is diabetic. If the level is below 70 mg/dl it is called hypoglycemia.
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k-selected species typically follow a type i or type ii curve and r-selected species typically follow a type iii curve. which of the above survivorship curves best applies to wild turkeys? justify your answer with evidence and reasoning.
On type-1, wild turkey curves are applicable .this type is in k-selected species.
The population of K-selected species grows slowly until it approaches the carrying capacity (K) of the land due to their low intrinsic growth rates. They often have huge species, mature relatively late, have few, large offspring, and give their children a lot of parental care. Once established, their population dynamics have a tendency to stabilize and stay close to the land's carrying capacity. The populations of r-selected species, on the other hand, frequently face enormous overshoots in carrying capacity followed by massive die-offs due to their high intrinsic growth rates. They often have few, tiny offspring, are little organisms, and give little to no parental care.
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TRUE/FALSE. the uti membrane test utilizes proprietary chemicals to produce a color reaction to aid in identification of a gram-positive urinary tract infection.
This is TRUE when the uti membrane test uses specialized chemicals to generate a color reaction that helps identify a gram-positive urinary tract infection.
A UTI may self-resolve.
Although some infections are different from others, he adds, "Yes, a UTI could go away on its own." Additionally, it might last longer if untreated. Uncomplicated UTIs, commonly known as cystitis, and complicated UTIs, which may be catheter-related or occur during pregnancy, are the two main kinds.
What treatment for urinary tract infection is most effective?The first line of defense against urinary tract infections is typically antibiotics. Which medication is prescribed and for how long depends on your health and the type of bacteria discovered in your urine.
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which hormone does not play a direct role in triggering the adolescent musculoskeletal growth spurt? g
Answer: thyroid hormone
Explanation: The role of thyroid hormone during the later stages of growth and development is mediated by its effects on X metabolism, release, and receptor formation.
Predict whether a strawberry placed in concentrated saltwater will gain or lose water due to osmosis. Defend your prediction.
Answer:
i need points
Explanation:
Primordial germ cells in zebrafish follow a migratory path that is directed by which of the following? Pick the best answer.
a. Estrogen and fibronectin
b. Steel factor and estrogen receptor
c. SDF-1 and CXCR4
d. Testosterone and androgen receptor
Primordial germ cells in zebrafish follow a migratory path that is directed by SDF-1 and CXCR4.
In zebrafish, primordial germ cells migrate along a path directed by SDF-1.
SDF-1 is another name for stromal cell-derived factor-1. It also promotes the mobilization and migration of hematopoietic cells in many mammals. However, in the zebrafish, SDF-1 guides primordial germ cell migration, which results in the formation of bleb-like protrusions via cytoplasmic flow.
The axis is linked to MSC migration and homing in vivo. MSCs transplanted into the body migrate to wounded tissues and focus on promoting tissue regeneration. SDF-1 regulates repair activity as well as the migration and homing of CXCR4-positive MSCs to damaged tissues.
Primordial germ cells are particularly specialized cells that serve as the progenitor cells for gametes, which progress after meiosis as haploid sperm and eggs that fertilize to produce new organisms.
They pass on genetic and epigenetic data from generation to generation, ensuring species survival.
In mammals, it is induced by BMP signals from the surrounding tissue in a subset of cells in the peri-implant epiblast.
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Please help! a horticulturalist wants to produce geraniums with specific characteristics. she knows that the trait of red flowers is governed by the allele r(rr and rr) and the trait of white flowers is governed by the allele r(rr).
the horticulturalist plans to cross a geranium that is heterozygous for red flowers with a geranium that is true-breeding for white flowers. which punnett square best describes this cross?
A.R | r |
R |RR|Rr
r |Rr|re
B. r|r
R|Rr|Rr
r|rr| rr
C. R|r
R|RR|Rr
R| RR|Rr
The horticulturalist plans to cross a geranium that is heterozygous for red flowers with a geranium that is true-breeding for white flowers. Option B Punnett square best describes this cross.
What is Punnett square?Punnett square is defined as an illustration in the shape of a square that is used to forecast the genotypes of a certain cross or breeding experiment. A square that has been divided into four quadrants is the Punnett square.
Knowing that the red flower must possess at least one dominant allele in order to be red, we may infer that it could either be Rr or RR. All progeny with the genotype Rr would be red if the white geranium (rr) and RR were crossed. On the other hand, if the flower is Rr and it is crossed with rr, the resultant plants will have a split floral coloration, with half having red blooms and the other half having white flowers.
Thus, the horticulturalist plans to cross a geranium that is heterozygous for red flowers with a geranium that is true-breeding for white flowers. Option B Punnett square best describes this cross.
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which activated monosaccharide donor substrate is used in the reaction that directly forms lactose in the mammary gland?
The mammary gland has the unique ability to synthesize lactose through an enzyme called lactose synthase. Lactose synthetase joins two monosaccharides (monosaccharides), glucose and galactose, through beta 1-4 linkages to form the disaccharide lactose.
A glandular organ in the chest. The mammary glands are made up of tissue containing connective tissue, fat, and glands that can produce milk. Also called chest. The main function of the organ is lactation. It is present in both sexes, but is well developed in females and rudimentary in males. It is also an important accessory organ of the female reproductive system. The mammary glands, located above the large pectoral muscles of the chest, are present in both males and females, but are usually only functional in females. Externally, each breast has a raised nipple, surrounded by a circular, pigmented area called the areola. These glands have several parts that work together to produce and secrete milk.
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from which component of the light-dependent reactions does nadph form most directly? group of answer choices photosystem ii photosystem i cytochrome complex atp synthase
The most direct formation of NADPH occurs in the photosystem I component of light-dependent processes.
what is light dependent reactions?
The energy store molecule ATP and the reduced electron carrier NADPH are two molecules produced by the light-dependent processes that are required for the next phase of photosynthesis. The light processes are crucially influenced by photosystems, sizable protein and pigment (light-absorbing molecule) complexes that are designed to capture light. The two different kinds of photosystems are the PSI and the PSII.
In other words, the electron transfers between PSII and PSI and between PSI and NADPH are only energetically "downhill" (energy-releasing, and hence spontaneous) because the electrons in P680 and P700 are given a boost to extremely high energy levels by the absorption of energy from light.When a photon from PSII strikes PSI and ignites it, NADP (oxidised adenosine diphosphate phosphate) will reduce to NADPH. The most traditional method of NADPH has to be PSI.
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Parkinson disease (PD) is a neurodegenerative disease that has been associated with a significant number of different genes, therefore showing it to be genetically heterogenic. One recent study in 278 families found evidence of two such possible loci. Evidence for linkage to chromosome 18q11 was presented by Gao et al. in 2009. Which of the following would be considered reputable evidence for this?
analysis of all other possible SNPs with no such association to chromosome 18
finding the locus to be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium in the population
finding the Lod score for association between the chromosomal location and PD to be 4.1
use of persons from multiple ethnic and geographic backgrounds in the study
lack of quantitative difference for the occurrence of both in individuals
The correct answer D) finding the Lod score for association between the chromosomal location and PD to be 4.1.
Parkinson's disease is a progressive neurological disorder that affects the nervous system and nerve-controlled parts of the body. The symptoms emerge in stages. A slight tremor in only one hand could be the first symptom. Tremors are common, but the disorder can also cause stiffness or slow movement.
In the early stages of Parkinson's disease, your face may be expressionless. When you walk, your arms may not swing. Your speech may become slurred or soft. Parkinson's disease symptoms worsen as the disease progresses.
Although Parkinson's disease cannot be cured, medications can help you feel better. Occasionally, your doctor may recommend surgery to control certain areas of your brain and alleviate your symptoms.
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Full question
Parkinson disease (PD) is a neurodegenerative disease that has been associated with a significant number of different genes, therefore showing it to be genetically heterogenic. One recent study in 278 families found evidence of two such possible loci. Evidence for linkage to chromosome 18q11 was presented by Gao et al. in 2009. Which of the following would be considered reputable evidence for this?
A) lack of quantitative difference for the occurrence of both in individuals
B) use of persons from multiple ethnic and geographic backgrounds in the study
C) finding the locus to be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium in the population
D) finding the Lod score for association between the chromosomal location and PD to be 4.1
E) analysis of all other possible SNPs with no such association to chromosome 18
the hydrophobic effect: a. does not occur in biological membranes. b. only occurs with amphipathic molecules. c. results from attractive forces between hydrophobic molecules. d. is driven by an increase in entropy of water molecules.
Answer: d. is driven by an increase in entropy of water molecules.
When these hydrophobic surfaces coalesce and exclude water (as the protein folds), the ordered water molecules become disordered and return to the bulk solvent. The resulting increase in the water molecules' entropy is the thermodynamic driving force behind the hydrophobic effect.
During fermentation, most of the pyruvate produced during glycolysis is used to convert nadh to.
To create acetaldehyde, pyruvate is first decarboxylated (CO2 exits). Then, acetaldehyde is transformed into ethanol with the aid of hydrogen atoms from NADH + H+.
What function does NADH, a byproduct of glycolysis, serve?NADH helps with the oxidation of glucose by contributing to oxidation in cell processes like glycolysis. The TCA cycle, which occurs during aerobic cellular respiration, provides the energy stored in this reduced form of the coenzyme NADH, which fuels the electron transport function in the membranes of mitochondria.
What and where does pyruvate get transformed to?A multi-enzyme complex transforms pyruvate into acetyl CoA once it enters the mitochondrial matrix. One molecule of NADH is created at the same time that carbon dioxide is released.
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What 3 things can be found in a scientific argument? in geology on mars
PLEASE HELP I NEED TO SUBMIT SOON
Answer:
Explanation:
The confirmation that liquid water once flowed on Mars, the existence of nutrients, and the previous discovery of a past magnetic field that protected the planet from cosmic and solar radiation, together strongly suggest that Mars could have had the environmental factors to support life.
Match the historical selection pressure with the secondary evolutionary outcome that resulted.
-A mutation that provides resistance to malaria
-A mutation that provides some resistance to tuberculosis
-A CCR-5 cell receptor mutation that provides resistance to small pox
The sickle-cell allele is well-known as a mutation that causes red blood cells to deform into a sickle shape when deoxygenated in AS heterozygotes, where A represents the non-mutant version of the -globin gene, and also confers malaria resistance in AS heterozygotes.
MDR-TB refers to TB bacteria that are resistant to two of the most significant TB medications, isoniazid (INH) and rifampicin (R).
Extensively drug-resistant tuberculosis (XDR-TB) occurs when an individual develops MDR-TB that is resistant to additional medications such as fluoroquinolones and injectables.
The CCR5-delta 32 mutation effectively closes "the door," preventing HIV from entering the cell. Only 1% of Northern Europeans, notably Swedes, are resistant to HIV infection.
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Chemoreceptors located in the aortic and carotid bodies stimulate the respiratory control center in the brain when the blood __________ decreases.
When the blood pH drops, chemoreceptors in the aorta and carotid bodies activate the brain's respiratory control center.
What are the measurements made by chemosensors present in the circulatory system and body?Chemoreceptors monitor the amounts of hydrogen ions in the blood to determine the quantities of carbon dioxide there.
What circumstance would the respiratory centers encourage more ventilation in?Peripheral chemoreceptors that detect falling or more acidic pH levels trigger increased ventilation to accelerate the removal of carbon dioxide from the blood. The body's medulla, which houses the body's respiratory center, is typically stimulated by an increase in carbon dioxide concentration and, to a lesser extent, by a decrease in oxygen levels in arterial blood.
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how do the different types of proteins in plasma membranes play a role in the different forms of transport of materials into and out of the cell g
Membrane proteins are involved in a variety of biological processes, including cell adhesion, energy transduction, signalling, cell recognition, and transport.
Hydrophilic molecules can pass through the cell membrane thanks to membrane proteins. Some transport membrane proteins require energy to change shape and actively move molecules and other substances across the cell membrane. They accomplish this by releasing ATP as an energy source. The proteins allow a cell to choose which compound will be transported, meeting the cell's needs while excluding anything else.
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The nematode c. Elegans has approximately 19,000 genes, while humans have 25,000. Although the number of genes is similar, humans can make more than 4x as many proteins as c. Elegans. What is the most plausible explanation for this phenomenon?.
The majority of nematodes eat bacteria, fungus, or other tiny organisms as food. As a result, they play a significant role in soil and sediment ecosystems.
What is nematodes?Caenorhabditis elegans, a species that consumes soil bacteria, has become well-known as a study model: three experts on the worm's biology were awarded the 2002 Nobel Prize in medicine.
Only a small portion of all nematode species are parasites of people, animals, or crops. These have therefore gotten the most consideration from nematology researchers.
Pinworms, hookworms, trichina, and dog heartworm are well-known animal parasites that can have an adverse effect on health and the economy.
Therefore, The majority of nematodes eat bacteria, fungus, or other tiny organisms as food. As a result, they play a significant role in soil and sediment ecosystems.
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