The correct options are duplications and deletions. Both these chromosomal rearrangements are types where total number of nucleotides get changed.
Chromosome rearrangements involve missing, duplicated (additional copies), or rearranged sections of chromosomes. The results differ. They rely on the chromosomes involved and the manner of their rearrangement. Some have little impact, some can't coexist with life, while others fall somewhere in the middle. In the context of genomics, duplication is a form of mutation in which one or more copies of a DNA segment are created. This DNA segment might be as tiny as a few bases or as large as a significant chromosomal region. All creatures experience duplications. When a chromosome breaks, some genetic material is lost, which is known as a deletion. Anywhere along a chromosome, deletions can be tiny or massive. Duplications. When a portion of a chromosome is improperly copied, duplications happen (duplicated).
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Amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling allow for ________ and ________ of the fetus so that it can be tested for abnormalities.
Amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling allow for genetic abnormalities and sex of the child of the fetus so that it can be tested for abnormalities.
What is Amniocentesis?Prenatal testing using amniocentesis is often carried out in the second or third trimester of pregnancy.
It can identify some genetic and chromosomal disorders, including Down syndrome (such as cystic fibrosis). Your healthcare practitioner will do an amniocentesis during which they will take a small sample of amniotic fluid from the sac around the fetus. The fluid sample is then examined in a lab.
The fetus develops inside the amniotic sac throughout pregnancy. The fetus is encased and shielded by amniotic fluid inside the amniotic sac. Additionally, some of the fetus' cells are present.
Therefore, Amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling allow for genetic abnormalities and sex of the child of the fetus so that it can be tested for abnormalities.
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Which postulate of natural selection is deliberately enforced by dog breeders using artificial selection?.
Reproduction and survival are not decided by chance.
Is dog breeding artificial or natural?In dogs, reproduction can either be purposeful as part of a breeding scheme or unintentional. In either case, the majority of matings are fruitful and give birth to strong puppies. When natural breeding fails, artificial techniques must be used to breed some dogs.
What distinguishes artificial breeding from natural selection?Natural selection is any form of selection that arises as a result of an organism's capacity for environmental adaptation. On the other hand, artificial selection is selective breeding that is enforced by an outside force, typically humans, in order to increase the frequency of desirable traits.
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the parents of a child with hyper-igm syndrome used preimplantation genetic diagnosis (pgd) to produce a second child to serve as a cord blood donor to cure the sick child. not only did they have to make sure the donor child did not have hyper-igm, but also they had to be sure the child had compatible:
The expecting parents had to make sure that the unborn child's tissue matched that of their child who had hyper-igm syndrome.
Why does high IgM syndrome occur?Rare, one-in-a-million, and possibly fatal genetic mutations that severely compromise the immune system and render a person incapable of producing antibodies are the root cause of hyper IgM syndromes. Patients with hyper IgM are significantly more likely to develop recurrent and opportunistic infections.
Patients who suffer from HIGM syndrome are unable to switch from producing IgM antibodies to IgG, IgA, or IgE antibodies. Patients with this condition consequently have low amounts of IgG and IgA but normal or high levels of IgM in their blood. These several antibody subtypes each serve a different purpose in the fight against pathogens. Normally, B-lymphocytes can make IgM antibodies on their own, but in order to switch from IgM to IgG, IgA, or IgE, they need interactive assistance from T-lymphocytes. Numerous genetic flaws that impair this interaction between T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocytes cause HIGM.
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which organ is responsible for metabolizing and detoxifying foreign chemicals in the blood, including drugs? liver kidneys gallbladder spleen stomach
The option (a) is correct is liver.
What is metabolizing ?
The alterations in a cell's or an organism's internal chemistry. These modifications create the energy and raw resources that support cell growth, reproduction, and organism health. Getting rid of harmful compounds is assisted by metabolism.
What is detoxifying ?
A method wherein the liver uses one of two main enzyme routes to transform a harmful molecule—such as an anticancer medication—into a less toxic compound that is simpler for the body to eliminate.
Most chemical levels in the blood are controlled by the liver, which also excretes a substance called bile. This aids in the liver's waste product removal. The liver filters every drop of blood that leaves the intestines and stomach.
Therefore, the option (a) is correct is liver.
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antidiuretic hormone is: question 3 options: 1) a hormone produced by the adrenal cortex that regulates na+ reabsorption and k+ secretion by the kidneys. 2) hormone produced by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary. it stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb more water, reducing urine volume. 3) a hormone released by certain cells of the frontal lobe that reduces blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting nearly all events that promote vasoconstriction and na+ and water retention. 4) a hormone released by certain cells of the heart atria that reduces blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting nearly all events that promote vasoconstriction and na+ and water retention.
Option 2 is the correct one , Antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is produced in the hypothalamus and transported to and released from the posterior pituitary gland, is a polypeptide hormone. ADH's main function is to control how much water is expelled by the kidneys.
ADH, sometimes referred to as vasopressin, enables the kidney tubules to directly reabsorb water, which concentrates salts and wastes in the urine that hypothalamus will eventually be expelled. Either through controlling blood volume or the amount of water in the circulation, the hypothalamus regulates the processes of ADH production. A rise in osmolarity exceeding 300 mOsm/L due to dehydration or physiological stress can increase ADH production and water retention, which in turn elevates blood pressure.
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which of the following is true of eutrophication in marine systems? group of answer choices it provides needed limiting nutrients. it can aid corals by killing parasites. it can lead to algal blooms and red tides that kill fish. it is rare and occurs only in bad weather. it does not occur.
True statement are A. It can aid corals by providing their symbiotic algae with nutrients.
The response of a marine ecosystem to an excessive availability of a limiting nutrient is known as marine eutrophication. The idea of a "limiting nutrient" suggests that the amount of primary production in an ecosystem depends on the availability of the limiting nutrient.
What causes eutrophication in the ocean?
The primary cause of eutrophication and subsequent ecosystem degradation in coastal ecosystems worldwide during the 20th century was an increase in anthropogenic inputs of nitrogen (N) and phosphorus (P) via river discharge to coastal ecosystems (Rabalais et al., 2000).
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ronald myers and roger sperry transected both the optic chiasm and corpus callosum in a group of research cats, and then put a patch on one eye. this had the effect of
Ronald Myers and Roger Sperry transected both the optic chiasm and corpus callosum in a group of research cats, and then put a patch on one eye. this had the effect of a split brain.
The optic chiasm and corpus callosum of each cat in their main experimental group were both removed by Myers and Sperry because there are two ways for visual information to travel from one eye to the contralateral hemisphere.
The cerebral cortex, which is found in folded form, is a part of the brain's gray matter. Fissures are formed by the grooves between the folds. The largest fissure in the cerebral cortex, which divides the brain into two hemispheres, is called the longitudinal fissure. White matter is what makes up the corpus callosum. The corpus callosum serves as an intrinsic link between the two brain hemispheres. Roger Sperry removed part of the corpus callosum while conducting studies on epilepsy treatment.
Your right side of the brain controls the LVF only sends visual information to the right hemisphere, while RVF only sends visual information to the left. Two writing instruments are needed. As soon as you see the images, try to draw both of them at once, one on each piece of paper. The left half of the body. Your left brain directs the activities of your right body. The right visual field and the left visual field are separate parts of each eye this shows the effect of a split-brain.
The complete question is:
Ronald Myers and Roger Sperry transected both the optic chiasm and corpus callosum in a group of research cats, and then put a patch on one eye. this had the effect of ___________.
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what kinds of substitutions or insertions or deletions can occur? are there other types of mutations at larger scale?
Types of Substitutions: Transitions (substitute purine with purine)
Transversions (substitute pu w/ py)
Substitution mutations may have positive, negative, or no effects. Silent, missense, and nonsense mutations are three types of point mutations that they specifically induce. A silent mutation is one in which the protein's functionality is unaffected. The incorrect protein is coded for by a missense mutation.
An insertion in genetics is the addition of one or more base pair nucleotides to the DNA sequence. Because the DNA polymerase frequently slips in microsatellite regions, this frequently occurs.
Types of Insertions:
Frameshift mutations (insertion or deletion that alters the reading frame of the gene)
In-frame insertions and deletions ( deletion or insertion of a multiple of 3 nucleotides which do not Alter the reading frame)
Expanding nucleotide repeats: Increase in the number of a copies of a set of nucleotides( repeated sequence of a set of nucleotides in which the number of copies of the sequence increases)
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How could an activator influence gene expression at a promoter far away from the place that it binds dna?.
An activator could influence gene expression at a promoter far away from the place that it binds dna as a Mediator protein is stimulated by the bound activator, and then the Mediator stimulates transcription.
What is a mediator?The Mediator is described as a multiprotein complex that functions as a transcriptional coactivator in all eukaryotes that was discovered in 1990 in the lab of Roger D. Kornberg, recipient of the 2006 Nobel Prize in Chemistry.
The activator directly binds to RNA polymerase, which then skips over a large region of DNA to start transcription will not influence gene expression at a promoter far away from the place that it binds dna.
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Hairston and colleagues argued that terrestrial ecosystems have a _______ proportion of autotroph biomass consumption compared to aquatic ecosystems because _______ is stronger in terrestrial ecosystems.
lower; predation
The term "land plants," sometimes known as "autotrophs," refers to organisms that synthesize new organic compounds, such as sugars, by photosynthesis. Terrestrial habitats have substantially higher concentrations of decomposers.
Which ecosystems—those on land or those in water—perform better?Because there are more ectotherms and producers like algae that lack lign, aquatic ecosystems typically have higher efficiency compared to land ecosystems.
Which ecosystems—those on land or those in water—perform better?Because there are more ectotherms and producers like algae that lack lign, aquatic ecosystems typically have higher efficiency compared to land ecosystems. An ecosystem is a place where several types of living things coexist to create a bubble of life, including plants, animals, and other species.
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pasteurization, irradiation, canning, and the use of food additives are all techniques used to preserve food and reduce the risk of foodborne illness for consumers. choose the correct statements about food preservation. select all that apply. view available hint(s)for part c pasteurization, irradiation, canning, and the use of food additives are all techniques used to preserve food and reduce the risk of foodborne illness for consumers. choose the correct statements about food preservation. select all that apply. sulfites help prevent oxidation and browning in some foods. salt and sugar can be used to preserve foods. pasteurization is only used for milk. irradiated foods can become radioactive. an individual can contract botulism if food is canned improperly.
Pasteurization, irradiation, canning, and the use of food additives are all techniques used to preserve food and reduce the risk of foodborne illness for consumers.
Food irradiation (the use of ionizing radiation on food) is a technology that increases food safety and shelf life by reducing or eliminating microorganisms and insects. Irradiation, like pasteurising milk and canning fruits and vegetables, can make food safer for consumers.The source of the energy used to destroy the microbes is the fundamental difference between food irradiation and pasteurisation. While traditional pasteurization uses heat, irradiation uses the energy of ionizing radiation. Ionising radiation, such as x-rays, or radioactive sources, such as radioactive iodine seeds, are examples of irradiation.
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9. why did you measure the distance each protein traveled into the gel from the top of the resolving gel and not the bottom of the well?
Gel electrophoresis is normally set up with the negative electrode at the top of the gel and the positive electrode at the bottom of the gel. The DNA products are loaded at the top of the gel, and then a current is applied to separate them then DNA molecules will run toward the bottom.
The positive electrode is often placed at the bottom of the gel, and the negative electrode is typically placed at the top. At the top of the gel, the DNA products are added, and a current is then used to separate them. Due to the negative charge of DNA, when an electric current is supplied to the gel, DNA will move in the opposite direction, toward the positively charged electrode. The DNA fragments are ordered in order because shorter DNA strands pass through the gel more quickly than longer ones do.
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a 45-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of fever (t max-103.5°f), chills, anorexia, diarrhea, and a non-productive cough. on general examination, vitals are as follows: pulse- 98/min, rr- 24/min, bp-120/60mm hg, and t- 103.5 °f. there are coarse basal crepitations and scattered rhonchi on examination of the lungs. other systems exam are normal. chest x-ray (cxr) shows patchy alveolar infiltrates with consolidation in the lower lobe. complete blood count reveals leukocytosis; sputum gram stain reveals only a few polymorphonuclear (pmn) leukocytes and no predominant pathogens. question: what is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Pneumonia
Explanation:
according to recent finding on human mutation rates based on genome sequencing, what is the most common type of mutation in humans?
In actuality, the G-T mutation is the one that occurs most frequently in human DNA. It happens once every 10,000 to 100,000 base pairs, which doesn't sound like much until you remember that the human genome has about three billion base pairs.
Viruses, which can have either RNA or DNA genomes, have the greatest per base pair per generation mutation rates. The mutation rates of DNA viruses range from 106 to 108 mutations per base each generation, while those of RNA viruses range from 103 to 105 mutations per base per generation.
Cystic fibrosis, hemophilia, and sickle cell disease are examples of hereditary mutations. Throughout a person's life, other mutations may occur on their own. Spontaneous, sporadic, or new mutations are the terms used to describe them. Only a few cells are affected.
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the tails are added to the 3' end of the pre-mrna for its transport and stabilization from nucleus to cytoplasm. a. poly(u) b. poly(a) c. poly(c) d. poly(g)
The poly(a) tails are added to the 3' end of the pre-mRNA for its transport and stabilization from the nucleus to the cytoplasm. So, option B is the correct answer.
The poly(a) tail is added to the messenger RNA molecule during RNA processing to increase the stability of the molecule. It is a long chain of adenine nucleotides.
The 3' end of the transcript is cleaved to free a 3' hydroxyl and then an enzyme called poly-A polymerase adds adenine nucleotides to the RNA. This poly(a) tail prevents degradation and thus, makes the RNA more stable. It then sends the said molecule from the nucleus to get translated into a protein by ribosomes in the cytoplasm. So, option B is the answer.
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consider a hypothetical insect population of 100 individuals. two equally represented alleles (a and a) exist for a particular gene. which scenario is an example of microevolution in this population?
A number of insects move to a new place. The populace is left with 80 bugs, yet the two alleles are still similarly addressed is an example of microevolution in this population.
Microevolution: The majority of evolutionary changes are minor and do not result in the emergence of new species. Microevolution is the process by which populations undergo gradual but subtle changes over time. Changes within a species are the result of microevolution.
There are five causes of microevolution, including:
Mutation.Gene flow.Non-random mating,Genetic drift.Selection.A population's allele frequency shifts over time as a result of genetic drift. This adjustment of the recurrence of the allele or quality variety should happen haphazardly for the hereditary float to happen.
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Trisha pushed Eddie, who has a mass of 62.8 kg, with a force of 896.6 N. How fast did Eddie accelerate?
Answer:
dam why did Trisha push Eddie dawg .
what significant characteristics related to emphysema and heart failure would you expect to observe in mr. c.y.? .
by observation the hypoxia induced by emphysema could indeed lead to pulmonary vasoconstriction, where it creates opposition to the right ventricle and inability, likely to result in the patient exhibiting symptoms of CHF.
His breathing will be hampered by both of these issues; if blood does not reach the lungs and air does not enter the lungs, the problem is exacerbated. However, hypoxia is most commonly caused by human-caused factors, particularly nutrient pollution (also known as eutrophication). Agricultural runoff, fossil-fuel combustion, and wastewater treatment effluent are all sources of nutrient pollution, specifically nitrogen and phosphorus nutrients. Emphysema is a lung illness that affects the terminal bronchioles (tiny air sacs). The alveolar walls are responsible for the exchange of oxygen and carbon
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what is the name of the triangularly shaped structures in the medulla of a kidney that contain the nephrons?
The medulla is the inner region of the parenchyma of the kidney. The medulla consists of multiple pyramidal tissue masses, called renal pyramids.
The kidney's parenchyma's interior section is called the medulla.
The renal pyramids, which are triangle-shaped structures with a dense network of nephrons within them, are a collection of several pyramidal tissue masses that make up the medulla.
The Bowman's capsule, which is shaped like a cup and is located in the cortex of the kidney, is at one end of each nephron. The glomerulus, a group of capillaries that conducts blood from the renal arteries into the nephron where plasma is filtered via the capsule, is encircled by it.
The filtered fluid exits the capsule and travels via the collecting ducts and distal convoluted tubule before exiting the body through the ureter. It then travels down the proximal convoluted tubule to the loop of Henle. The complicated management of water and ion concentrations in the body is made possible by the numerous components of the nephrons, each of which is selectively permeable to distinct molecules.
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dna, which is negatively charged, can adsorb onto the surface of citrate-capped au nanoparticles. explain why such a system would exhibit a langmuir adsorption isotherm.
Single-stranded DNA is adsorbed onto citrate-capped gold nanoparticles (AuNPs), which improves the stability of AuNPs and is the basis for many biochemical and analytical applications, but the basics of this adsorption reaction are interactions remain unknown.
In this study, we measured the kinetics, capacity and isotherms of DNA adsorption and showed that the adsorption process is governed by electrostatic forces. Charge repulsion between DNA strands and between DNA and AuNPs can be reduced by adding salt, lowering the pH, or using uncharged peptide nucleic acids (PNAs). A Langmuir adsorption isotherm is obtained, showing that there is both adsorption and desorption of DNA from the AuNPs. Higher salt concentrations promote DNA adsorption, but higher salt concentrations also increase the rate of desorption due to DNA compaction. DNA adsorption capacity is determined by the length of DNA oligomers, DNA concentration, and salinity. Previous studies have shown faster adsorption of short DNA oligomers by AuNPs. We find that AuNPs are more effectively protected from aggregation when longer DNA is adsorbed. DNA adsorption is also facilitated by the use of low pH buffers and high alcohol concentrations. A model based on electrostatic repulsion of AuNPs has been proposed to explain the adsorption/desorption behavior of DNA.
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which describes the updated revision of vitamins, minerals, proteins, and total calories that are thought to meet the needs of about 98% of a particular group?
The process that describes needs of 98% of particular groups are Recommended Daily Allowance.
Recommended Daily Allowance is the outline of vitamins had to meet the wishes of approximately ninety eight% of a group.
The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) is the common day by day nutritional consumption degree this is enough to fulfill the nutrient requirement of almost all (ninety seven to ninety eight percent) healthful people in a specific gender and existence degree group (existence degree considers age and, while applicable, being pregnant or lactation).
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Which theory describes the arrangement and movement of particles in solids, liquids and gases?.
A model that represents the organization, motion, and energy of particles in a substance is known as the kinetic particle theory of matter.
What order are solids, liquids, and gases in?Solids have a regular row-by-row arrangement and can only vibrate in predetermined locations. The surrounding particles must be touched for liquids to travel freely in any direction. Gases are randomly arranged and have the ability to move in any direction.
In particle theory, what is diffusion?When chemicals combine without being moved, diffusion is considered to have taken place. It is the process by which a region with a lot of particles moves randomly to a region with less particles in liquids or gases.
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the genome found in the nucleus of eukaryotic species is usually organized in what way? multiple choice question.
Most eukaryotic organisms' nuclear genomes are composed of shaped sets of chromosomes.
What kind of DNA sequence is seen most frequently in eukaryotic genomes?Abstract. The majority of the nuclear DNA in most eukaryotic genomes is composed of repetitive DNA, which are sequence motifs repeated hundreds or thousands of times throughout the genome.
How are prokaryotic and eukaryotic genomes structured?A single circular chromosome makes up the majority of bacterial genomes. One or two sets of linear chromosomes that are contained to the nucleus make up the eukaryotic genome. A gene is a section of DNA that is translated into an RNA molecule that has biological function. Many eukaryote genes are interrupted by introns.
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some reflexes are initiated with a painful stimulus, followed by signal processing in the central nervous system and subsequent contraction of a muscle. what is the proper sequence of neurons used in this pathway?
The correct sequence of the components in a reflex is the Receptor → Sensory neuron → Spinal cord → Motor neuron → Muscle.
So, in this order, the reflex arc comprises of sensor, sensory neuron, control center, motor neuron, and muscle
The spinal cord serves as the primary control center for reflex actions. The spinal cord serves as the junction point for thousands of reflex arcs. Any involuntary and spontaneous reaction is a reflex, and the neurological system mediates the response.
A sensory neuron delivers electrical signals to a relay neuron in the CNS's spinal cord. Sensory neurons are linked to motor neurons through relay neurons. A motor neuron transmits electrical signals.
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Biologists divide the biosphere into ______, which are the major types of ecosystems on earth.
Biomes, which are the primary divisions of ecosystems on Earth, are the biosphere. An ecosystem is a place where living organisms interact with one another and their surroundings as a functional and structural unit of ecology.
What possible relevance does the biosphere of Quizlet have?The biosphere is the highest level of ecological order. It encompasses every type of life and biome on the earth. The hydrology (water cycle), soil health, and atmospheric composition are all regulated by the biosphere, which also functions as the planet's life support system.
Which ecology can be found in the biosphere?The biosphere is sometimes thought of as one massive ecosystem, a complex community of living and nonliving items acting as a single organism.
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Iron is an important micronutrient, especially during pregnancy.Maternal iron-deficiency anemia during pregnancy results from (Check all that apply.)a)insufficient iron intake for the increased requirements during pregnancyb)fetal demand for iron in the third trimester to store in the liverc)menstruationd)the fetus taking what it needs from the mother’s iron stores
Maternal iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy results from a)insufficient iron intake for the increased requirements during pregnancy. b)fetal demand for iron in third trimester to store in the liver.
Because their iron stores must serve both their own increasing blood volume and as a source of hemoglobin for the developing child, many pregnant women develop iron deficiency anemia without iron supplements. Anemia in pregnancy is most frequently caused by an iron shortage. Anemia due to a lack of folate. The vitamin folate is naturally present in some foods, such as green leafy vegetables. The body need folate, a kind of B vitamin, to create new cells, including healthy red blood cells. Red blood cells include the protein hemoglobin, which transports oxygen to other bodily cells. Many women don't get enough iron to last through the second and third trimesters. Premature birth, defined as delivery before 37 full weeks of pregnancy, is more likely among women who have severe iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy. Low birth weight and postpartum depression are also linked to iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy.
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g assume an aneurysm has widened a blood vessel from a diameter of 1 cm to a diameter of 4 cm. what is the velocity v1 of blood flow in the region of the aneurysm relative to the velocity v0 in the healthy portion of the blood vessel.
"Familial aneurysms" are defined as two or more aneurysms in first-degree relatives (parent, child, or sibling). These families may have members who are more likely to experience aneurysms than the general population.
An abdominal aortic Familial aneurysms (AAA) is a persistent focal dilatation that is 50% larger than the healthy, neighboring aorta's typical diameter (figure 1). True arterial aneurysms most frequently occur in the abdominal aorta, especially in the infrarenal aorta, which is the portion of the aorta below the renal arteries. The presence of previous major artery aneurysms, atherosclerosis, male sex, White ethnicity, advanced age, and male sex are all well-defined risk factors for the development of AAA. Other risk factors include smoking and being a smoker. during the last 20 years, while diminishing.
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Use the diagram to complete the following statements to describe the three types of survivorship curves. Not all choices will be us births humans age type 1 type 111 deaths Oysters type 1 hydras survivorship CLUSE 1,000 by Life tables can be used to construct plotting the number of survivors per 1,000 against 100 Curve A depicts a[n) curve, which is typical of Dall sheep and Here, survival is high until old age when it decreases due to illness No. of Survivors 10 B Curve B depicts an) curve, typical of Here, Survival is equally likely in all age groups С Curve C depicts a(n) curve, typical of Here, survival is low even at a young age 0 100 50 Percent of life span
Life tables list the birth and death rates of organisms at various life phases. A survivorship curve displays the percentage of the initial group that is still alive at each subsequent age.
Which best sums up Type 3 survival?In contrast, the Type III curve, which is typical of small mammals, fish, and invertebrates, represents creatures with a high death rate (or low survival rate) right after birth.
Is Type 3 Survivance K or R?R-selected species typically have Type III survivorship curves. Type II survivorship curves show relatively constant survivorship and mortality throughout various age groups; as a result, they are neither r-selected nor K-selected, but rather lie somewhere in the middle of the spectrum between the two.
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TRUE/FALSE. establishing a family history of osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, or ankylosing spondylitis is important because of its known genetic component.
TRUE if the genetic component of a family history of osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, or ankylosing spondylitis is significant.
What are rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, and osteoarthritis?Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) and rheumatoid arthritis (RA) are two of the most prevalent rheumatic illnesses. The joint degradation and decline in physical fitness are caused by these chronic progressive inflammatory disorders. [1] Their symptomatology and etiology differ despite being closely related.
What aspects of a patient's condition might point to a higher risk of osteoarthritis?Age: As people get older, their chance of having OA rises. Gender—After the age of 50, women are more likely than males to acquire OA. Obesity—Extra weight increases the strain on joints, especially those that bear the body's weight, including the hips and knees.
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population of beetles, what traits are positively selected for?
Answer:
beetle population:
beetle color is controlled by many genes and varies in a spectrum from light to dark green.
Stabilizing selection. In stabilizing selection, intermediate phenotypes are more fit than extreme ones. For example, medium-green beetles might be the best camouflaged, and thus survive best, on a forest floor covered by medium-green plants. Stabilizing selection tends to narrow the curve.Directional selection. One extreme phenotype is more fit than all the other phenotypes. For example, if the beetle population moves into a new environment with dark soil and vegetation, the dark green beetles might be better hidden and survive better than medium or light beetles. Directional selection shifts the curve towards the favorable phenotype.Disruptive selection. Both extreme phenotypes are more fit than those in the middle. For example, if the beetles move into a new environment with patches of light-green moss and dark-green shrubs, both light and dark beetles might be better hidden (and survive better) than medium-green beetles. Diversifying selection makes multiple peaks in the curve.