Meiosis I is described as reductional division because it results in two daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes.
Meiosis is a part of the sexual process because gametes (sperm and eggs) have one-half the number of chromosomes as diploid (2N) individuals. Meiosis has two divisions; the first is meiosis I, in which the number of cells doubles but the number of chromosomes does not. As a result, each cell has half as many chromosomes. Meiosis is also known as "reduction division" because it reduces the number of chromosomes to half the normal number so that when sperm and egg fusion occurs, the baby has the correct number.
Sister chromatids within the two daughter cells separate during meiosis II, resulting in the formation of four new haploid gametes. Meiosis II mechanics are similar to mitosis, with the exception that each dividing cell has only one set of homologous chromosomes. Meiosis II is the second division of meiosis in which each chromosome's chromatids are segregated equally into daughter cells. During the interphase that precedes meiosis II, no DNA replication occurs. Prophase II is the initial stage of meiosis II.
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what is the relationship between recombination frequency and the actual physical distance on a chromosome?
As physical distance increases, the recombination frequency first increases in a linear fashion, but gradually levels off to a frequency of 0.5.
What is the relationship between recombination frequency and the physical distance between genes on a chromosome?
Recombination frequency is inversely proportional to the distance between the genes present on a chromosome.
Does recombination increase with distance?
As the distance between two genes increases, so does the number of crossover events between them, but recombination is only seen if the number of crossovers is odd. So for distant genes the probability of an odd or even number of crossovers becomes 50%, meaning this is the maximum recombination frequency.
What is recombination frequency?
Recombination frequency (θ) is the frequency with which a single chromosomal crossover will take place between two genes during meiosis. A centimorgan (cM) is a unit that describes a recombination frequency of 1%.
Thus, recombination frequency is inversely proportional to physical distance.
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Consider an enzymatic reaction in which the initial concentration of substrate is low. If the amount of enzyme is held constant, but the amount of substrate is increased, the rate of an enzyme catalyzed reaction will
a. stay the same
b. decrease at first, then increase in a linear fashion.
c. be inhibited by the higher concentrations of substrate.
d. increase at first in a linear fashion, then remain at a constant high rate.
e. increase in an exponential fashion.
If the amount of enzyme is held constant, the rate of an enzyme catalyzed reaction will e. increase in an exponential fashion.
An enzyme-catalyzed reaction involving two substrates The two substrates are brought together in the correct direction and location to react with one another using the template provided by the enzyme.
By changing the structure of their substrates to resemble that of the transition state, enzymes help speed up processes. The lock-and-key paradigm, in which the substrate perfectly fits into the active site, is the most basic explanation of how an enzyme interacts with a substrate.
However, substrate binding frequently modifies the configurations of both the enzyme and substrate, a process known as induced fit. In these situations, the substrate's conformation is changed to more closely approximate that of the transition state.
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A researcher isolates the blood of an individual who is sick. The blood is filtered through a porous material that will prevent all cells from passing through. The filtered serum of the blood is then injected into a healthy patient. This patient shows signs of the illness within days of the inoculation. What is the most likely causal agent of the disease based on this information?.
Answer: a virus
Explanation:
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Cell division is the process of taking a parent cell and splitting it into 2 new genetically identical daughter cells. All organisms go through the process of cell division. What do bacteria use cell division for and how?.
However, in the case of a bacterium, cell division serves purposes other than simply producing more cells for the organism. Instead, it is how bacteria multiply, or increase the number of bacteria in a population.
What does cell division entail and why is it important?When people talk about "cell division," they typically mean mitosis, which is the process of creating new cells for the body. The cell division process known as meiosis is what produces egg and sperm cells. A vital process for life is mitosis.
How do bacteria divide their cells?In bacteria, cell division takes place when the membrane and peptidoglycan (PG) cell wall of the envelope layers infiltrate to form a septum that divides the cell into two compartments. Later on, the septal PG is hydrolyzed.
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question mode multiple choice question hypovolemia and dehydration are both examples of fluid deficiency. how do they differ? multiple choice question. in hypovolemia only water is lost, and in dehydration both water and electrolytes are lost. in dehydration water is lost, and in hypovolemia both water and electrolytes are lost. they differ only in the amount of fluid lost. in dehydration only water is lost, and in hypovolemia only electrolytes are lost.
In dehydration, water is lost, and in hypovolemia both water and electrolytes are lost.
What is fluid deficiency?
Dehydration occurs when you use or lose more fluid than you take in, and your body doesn't have enough water and other fluids to carry out its normal functions.
Which are types of fluid deficiency?
Deficient fluid volume (also referred to as hypovolemia or dehydration) occurs when the loss of fluid is greater than the fluid input. Common causes of deficient fluid volume are diarrhea, vomiting, excessive sweating, fever, and poor oral fluid intake.
What happens during hypovolemia?
Hypovolemic shock is an emergency condition in which severe blood or other fluid loss makes the heart unable to pump enough blood to the body. This type of shock can cause many organs to stop working.
Thus, water is lost in dehydration, and water and electrolytes are lost in hypovolemia.
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cancerous growths are clonal in origin because cancer cells . multiple choice question. can invade healthy tissues originate from a single cell that has accumulated genetic changes during cell division can migrate to other areas of the body and form secondary tumors at the new sites can form a tumor that is localized only at one site
Cancerous growths are clonal in origin because of cancer cells originate from a single cell that has accumulated genetic changes during cell division.
The human body contains several billion cells. Cells are the teeny, tiny building blocks of our tissues and organs. Every one of us was once a single cell. That cell divided into two new cells after internal replication.
Cells become abnormal when the DNA, which holds the instructions needed for cells to operate, is damaged. The cells they make after that will not be similar to healthy ones. Along with having a variety of appearances, they might also possess different traits. The medical word for this kind of abnormal cell proliferation in body tissue, including skin, is dysplasia. As long as there aren't many abnormal cells and our immune system controls them, we won't get sick from them.
Sometimes these cells can vanish on their own. Only when these cells continue to change and start to divide erratically, leading to lumps or growths, does one of the more than 200 diseases recognized as cancer become apparent. These kinds of growths are tumors.
The complete question is:
Cancerous growths are clonal in origin because of cancer cells __________.
multiple choice questions.
(A). can invade healthy tissues originating from a single cell that has accumulated genetic changes during cell division
(B) can migrate to other areas of the body and form secondary tumors at the new sites
(C) can form a tumor that is localized only at one site
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Before the development of molecular techniques, scientists classified animals based on shared morphological and embryological characters. Complete the sentences discussing the bases for traditional animal classification. Animals possess specialized ____________ . The division of animals as radial or bilateral is based on each group's body ____________ . The Bilateria are, in turn, divided into three major classifications based upon the structure of the ____________ . This feature is important because it allows for organs to be cushioned by ____________ that is relatively incompressible. Lastly, animals can be classified by the way their zygotes subsequently divide to form a multicellular individual; the embryological pathway can proceed by either ____________ cleavage. cartilage complete or incomplete fluid mitotic or meiotic nucleic acids organs radial or spiral tissues symmetry DNA BODY CAVITY FLUID BONE
Animals possess specialized tissues. The division of animals as radial or bilateral is based on each group's body symmetry. The Bilateria are, in turn, divided into three major classifications based upon the structure of the body cavity. This feature is important because it allows for organs to be cushioned by fluids that is relatively incompressible. Lastly, animals can be classified by the way their zygotes subsequently divide to form a multicellular individual; the embryological pathway can proceed by either radial or spiral cleavage.
The classification of animals is seen based on the symmetry of their bodies. Symmetry is the similarity of parts in various areas and directions of the body, concerning being cut by several axes or planes. Based on the symmetry of their bodies, animals can be classified as follows:
Asymmetrical animals, cannot be divided into equal parts by any plane. For example, a sponge.Bilateral symmetrical animal, its body can be divided into 2 equal parts if it is cut by only 1 plane. For example, the phylum Chordata.Biradial symmetry animal, its body can be divided into 2 equal parts if it is cut by 2 planes. For example, sea anemones.Radial symmetry animals, their bodies can be divided into equal parts if cut with various planes. For example, hydra sp and Echinodermata.Learn more about the classification of animals' body symmetry at https://brainly.com/question/238772
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where would you find a kelp forest? group of answer choices in a salt marsh in a silty coastal area in an estuary along a continental shelf in a coral reef
Answer:
Cool, shallow waters closer to shore
Explanation:
ronald myers and roger sperry transected both the optic chiasm and corpus callosum in a group of research cats, and then put a patch on one eye. this had the effect of
Ronald Myers and Roger Sperry transected both the optic chiasm and corpus callosum in a group of research cats, and then put a patch on one eye. this had the effect of a split brain.
Because there are two routes for visual information to pass from one eye to the contralateral hemisphere, Myers and Sperry excised the corpus callosum and the optic chiasm from each cat in their main experimental group.
The folded cerebral cortex is a component of the gray matter of the brain. The grooves between the folds create fissures. The longitudinal fissure is the greatest fissure in the cerebral cortex that separates the brain's two hemispheres. The corpus callosum is made up of white matter. The corpus callosum acts as a natural connection between the two hemispheres of the brain. Roger Sperry excised a portion of the corpus callosum while researching ways to treat epilepsy. The LVF, which is controlled by the right side of the brain, only transmits visual information to the right hemisphere, whereas RVF only transmits visual information to the left. There are two writing implements required. Try to sketch both of the images at once, one on each piece of paper, as soon as you see them. the body's left side. The actions of your right body are controlled by your left brain. The left and right visual fields of each eye are separate regions; this illustrates the impact of a split brain.
The complete question is:
Ronald Myers and Roger Sperry transected both the optic chiasm and corpus callosum in a group of research cats, and then put a patch on one eye. this had the effect of ___________.
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ivory coast and china are two developing nations. china has a much larger per capita ecological footprint than ivory coast. this is most likely due to
China has a much larger per capita ecological footprint than ivory coast due to III) Ivory Coast's dependence on small scale and subsistence agriculture.
Ivory Coast is well known for its religious and ethnic harmony, as well as its well-developed economy. This Western African country was hailed as a model of stability.
China's rapid economic growth is due to two main reasons that are large-scale capital investment financed by large domestic savings also foreign investment and rapid productivity growth. China is the world's largest manufacturing economy and exporter of goods. They are world's fastest-growing consumer market and second-largest importer of goods.
The above question is incomplete
Ivory Coast and China are two developing nations. China has a much larger per capita ecological footprint than Ivory Coast. This is most likely due to:
I. China's larger population.
II. China's growing dependence on fossil fuels to drive their economy.
III. Ivory Coast's dependence on small scale and subsistence agriculture.
IV. Ivory Coast's much smaller GDP.
Hence ,III is the correct option
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Which type of biotechnology is used by scientists when they alter the dna of a plant to make it grow faster?.
Answer:
Recombinant DNA and biotechnology both have been resourced to produce the efficiency of plant growth by increasing the efficiency of the plant's ability to fix nitrogen.
Explanation:
researchers use a technique called rna interference to significantly decrease, but not completely remove, expression of the bcl2 gene in the amygdala of lab animals. what would be the effect of this change?
researchers use a technique called RNA interference to significantly decrease, An increase in apoptosis would be the effect of this change. RNA interference (RNAi) is a preserved physiological response to double-stranded RNA
RNA interference (RNAi) is a preserved physiological response to double-stranded RNA which helps facilitate barrier to both endogenous parasitic and exogenous pathogenic nucleic acids as well as transcriptional regulation of nutrient genome. Increased apoptosis is seen in AIDS, neurodegenerative diseases like Alzheimer's, Parkinson's, and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, ischaemic injury after a heart attack, stroke, or reperfusion, and autoimmune diseases like hepatitis and graft versus host disease.
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How would you expect the rate of speciation of an allopatric case to compare to the rate of speciation of a sympatric case involving formation of allopolyploid offspring?.
An allopatric case to compare to the rate of speciation of a sympatric case involving formation of allopolyploid offspring by the speciation differences.
Among the quickest prices in allopatric and sympatric species pairs, sympatric prices are approximately 2 to five instances quicker than allopatric prices. Even amongst those prices, variant is predicted due to the fact species pairs might also additionally range particularly evolutionary dynamics, populace sizes, and genetic variability. The allopatric case might arise at a miles slower charge than the sympatric case concerning allopolyploid offspring.
The number one distinction among the 2 forms of speciation is that allopatric speciation takes place in geographically separated populations even as sympatric speciation takes place in populations that might percentage a geographical place in the variety of the ancestral populace.
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How could an activator influence gene expression at a promoter far away from the place that it binds dna?.
this amino acid sequence is found in a tripeptide: met-trp-his. give a possible nucleotide sequences on the template strand of dna that can encode this tripeptide. please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. answer choices 5'-tacaccgta-3' 5'-auguggcau-3' 3'-auguggcau-5' 5'-tacacagta-3'
5'-AUGUGGCAU-3'. The codon table may be used to identify the probable mRNA nucleotide sequences encoding for the tripeptide Met-Trp-His.
We can see from the table that the amino acid this has two possible codons, whereas Met and Trp each have one codon. As a result, the tripeptide might be encoded by two distinct mRNA nucleotide sequences. The template and non-template DNA strands can be produced from these prospective mRNA sequences after the nucleotide sequences for the potential mRNA have been identified.
Dual mRNAs codons
5'-AUGUGGCAU-3'Non-template for DNA:
5'-ATGTGGCAT-3'
DNA template
3'-TACACCGTA-5'
5'-AUGUGGCAC-3'
Non-template for DNA:
5'-ATGTGGCAC-3'
Template for DNA:
3'-TACACCGTG-5'.
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(5 pts.) woodrats are medium sized rodents with lots of interesting behaviors. you may know of them as packrats. let's assume that the trait of bringing home shiny objects (h) is dominant to the trait of carrying home only dull objects (h). suppose two heterozygous individuals are crossed a: hh 1 b: hh 2 c: hh 1 what will be the genotypic ratio of the offspring?
Answer:
the genotypic ratio of the offspring will be 3:1 for bringing home shiny objects versus dull objects respectively.
Explanation:
Denoting:
H as dominant trait
h as recessive trait
Heterozygous means that the alleles are different on the gene for a specific trait. In this case, both parents have the traits of bringing home both shiny and dull objects but since bringing home shiny objects is the dominant trait, it is the only trait that they would act on.
parental phenotype: shiny objects 》 shiny objects
parental genotype: Hh 》 Hh
Parental gametes: (H) (h) 》 (H) (h)
random fertilization: punnet square
H h
H HH Hh
h Hh hh
F1 generation phenotype: shiny objects 》dull objects
F1 generation genotype: HH, Hh, Hh 》 hh
offspring ratio: 3 : 1
percentage: 75% shiny objects 》 25% dull objects
State what form of energy an impala would be
for the lion before he eats it and after he eats it.
Answer: That energy to maintain body temperature and perform other metabolic functions.
Explanation:
Explain the different impacts that fossil fuels and biofuels have on the climate change
The use of biofuels, which are fuels made from renewable organic material, in place of fossil fuels has negative effects on fossil fuel carbon dioxide, a greenhouse gas.
What are fossil fuels and biofuels?The use of biofuels, which are fuels made from renewable organic material, in place of fossil fuels has the potential to effect.
Negative effects of fossil fuel carbon dioxide, a greenhouse gas, are released into the atmosphere in massive quantities when fossil fuels are burnt.
Therefore, global warming is caused by greenhouse gases, which trap heat in our atmosphere.
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what is the term for the type of resistance provided against a pathogen months after infection by that same pathogen?
in the united states, disinfection of drinking water with chlorine or other methods is done to remove: group of answer choices sand and gravel. pathogenic microorganisms. none of the choices bad smells. particles suspended in water.
In the United States, disinfection of drinking water is primarily done to remove pathogenic microorganisms. Correct option is B.
Chlorine and other disinfection methods are used to kill or inactivate harmful bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens present in the water to make it safe for consumption. Disinfection is a crucial step in water treatment to protect public health by reducing the risk of waterborne diseases caused by these microorganisms.
While water treatment processes may involve removing particles suspended in water, including sand and gravel through filtration, and can also help address bad smells, the primary purpose of disinfection is to ensure the water is free from harmful pathogens.
Water Disinfection:
Water disinfection is a crucial step in the process of treating drinking water to make it safe for consumption. The main objective of disinfection is to eliminate or inactivate harmful microorganisms, such as bacteria, viruses, and parasites, that may be present in the water. These microorganisms can cause waterborne diseases and pose serious health risks to the population if not properly removed.
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class b mutants have sepals in whorls 1 and 2 and carpels in whorls 3 and 4. genes in class b control the development of which whorls?
petals (whorl 2), stamens (whorl 3), petals and stamens (whorls 2 and 3), stamens and carpels (whorls 3 and 4) and sepals and carpels (whorls 1 and 4).
A flower's male reproductive organ is represented by stamens. The production of the stamen with distinct anther tissues, followed by anther dehiscence and pollination, are all steps in the complex biological process by which the male reproductive system develops. The flower's reproductive organ that produces pollen is the stamen. The androecium is made up of all the stamens.
The fourth whorl of the flower, located in the centre, is the carpel. Style, stigma, and ovary the female elements of a flower make up the majority of it. There may be one or multiple carpels in a single bloom. carpel, a seed-bearing structure that is part of the innermost whorl of a flower and resembles a leaf. The pistil might have just one carpel or many.
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the presence of a gene in the genome does not indicate the expression of that gene. which of the following elements can control gene expression? (mark all that apply) non-coding rna (ncrna) protein such as transcription factors dna enhancer sequences dna topological domains
All responses must be marked (all apply) Gene discovery by sequence analysis. Because genes are not a random collection of nucleotides, but rather contain distinguishing characteristics, sequence examination may be used to find them.
These characteristics indicate whether a sequence is a gene or not, and hence non-coding DNA lacks them by definition.
Temperature, diet, light, pollutants, pathogenic agents, age, and gender/sex are all factors to consider.
Gene expression is often measured by measuring amounts of the gene product, which is frequently a protein. Western blotting and enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay, or ELISA, are two commonly used protein quantification procedures.
When a gene is activated, transcription occurs, and the protein is produced through translation.
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Full Question;
The presence of a gene in the genome does not indicate the expression of that gene. Which of the following elements can control gene expression? (Mark all that apply)
A-Protein such as transcription factors
B-DNA topological domains
C-DNA enhancer sequences
D-Non-coding RNA (ncRNA)
how does the cell use the charge differences that bulid up across the inner mitochondrial membrane during cellular resperation
The cell use the charge differences that bulid up across the inner mitochondrial membrane during cellular respiration is to provide ATP.
Within the internal membrane of the mitochondrion, proteins cast off electrons from NADH and FADH2 molecules and by skip them alongside the electron delivery chain, extracting power at every step. The internal mitochondrial membrane carries enzymes referred to as ATP synthases.
The price distinction throughout the membrane forces H+ ions thru channels in those enzymes, truly inflicting the ATP synthases to spin. With every rotation, the enzyme grabs an ADP molecule and attaches a phosphate group, generating ATP. The cell makes use of a procedure referred to as chemiosmosis to provide ATP.
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Expression of the GAL, lac and trp structural genes all involve coordinated regulation in response to cellular metabolic needs. Answer the following T/F regarding how this coordinated regulation is achieved.
The binding of galactose to GAL3 prevents GAL3 from associating with GAL80. This is a false statement.
The binding of Gal3 to the Gal80 monomer competes with Gal80 self-association. The Gal80 protein inhibits Gal4p-mediated transcription activation. So GAl3-GAL80 complex is formed not to prevent GAL4p. So the statement is false. The binding of tryptophan to the repressor trpR allows the repressor to bind the operator. This is a true statement. Trp binds to its repressor so that it can bind to the operator. So the statement is true. The binding of cAMP to CAP when glucose is absent allows cAMP-CAP to bind the lac operon promoter and recruit RNA polymerase. This statement is true. In the absence of glucose, cAMP binds to the CAP so that CAP can bind to DNA. DNA-bound CAP helps RNA polymerase attach to the lac operon promoter. So the statement is true.
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consider a hypothetical couple, john and jennifer, both of whom had brothers who died of a disease caused by a recessive lethal disorder (aa). what is the genotype of their parents?
The genotype of an organism is the make-up of its DNA, which results in the phenotype, or the traits that can be seen in an organism. Each nucleic acid in a DNA molecule that codes for a specific attribute makes up a genotype.
The interplay of proteins produced by the DNA determines the external appearance, or phenotype. Finding the DNA regions that are responsible for different phenotypes is now simpler because to advancements in DNA analysis tools.
Recessive lethal inheritance refers to an inheritance pattern where an allele is solely fatal in the homozygous form and where the heterozygote may be normal or have some altered non-lethal trait.
Only wild-type homozygotes and heterozygotes would be seen in crosses between heterozygous individuals carrying a recessive lethal allele that results in death before delivery when homozygous.
In other cases, the dominant (but non-lethal) phenotype of the recessive deadly allele could also be present in the heterozygote.
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explain the three steps that were used in this lab to determine the sickle cell genotype for individuals of the ryan family
The three steps that were used in this lab to determine the sickle cell genotype for individuals in the ryan family were blood collection, DNA amplification, and PCR. Tests for sickle cell anemia are used to diagnose sickle cell anemia and identify sickle cell trait carriers. Sickle cell anemia is an inherited disorder that causes the production of an abnormal hemoglobin called hemoglobin S. Hemoglobin is a protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen from the lungs throughout the body.
What is the cause of sickle cell anemia?Sickle cell anemia is caused by a genetic mutation, responsible for the deformity of red blood cells. To be a carrier of the disease, the altered gene must be transmitted by the father and mother.
Sickle cell anemia is a hereditary disease (passed from parents to children) characterized by alteration of red blood cells, making them look like a sickle, hence the name sickle cell. These cells have their membrane altered and rupture more easily, causing anemia.
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A mutation in human ATPase 6 (which corresponds to E. coli subunit a) from leucine to arginine at position 156 may allow the movement of protons across the membrane, but not the rotation of the ring of c subunits. How might this possible mechanism affect the function of ATP synthase? Choose two answers.1. There would be an uncoupling of proton translocation and ATP synthesis.2. ATP hydrolysis coupled to proton transport out of the matrix would increase.3. There would be no net effect on the overall function of ATP synthase.4. ATP synthase would remain sensitive to F0 proton conduction inhibitors.5. The c subunits would not fold correctly.6. Proton binding to subunit c would be impaired.
1. There would be an uncoupling of proton translocation and ATP synthesis. 2. ATP synthase would remain sensitive to Fo proton conduction inhibitors.
Adenosine di phosphate (ADP) and inorganic phosphate are used to create the energy storage molecule adenosine triphosphate (ATP) by a protein called ATP synthase (Pi). It is categorized as a ligase since it modifies ADP by forming a P-O link (phosphodiester bond).
A molecular device called ATP synthase. Energy-wise, the production of ATP from ADP and Pi is undesirable, and the process would typically go the other way.
A proton (H+) concentration gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane in eukaryotes or the plasma membrane in bacteria drives this reaction forward by coupling ATP synthesis during cellular respiration to the gradient.
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suppose the extracellular fluid (ecf) osmolality becomes too high. what hormone would most likely be released to correct this situation?
Dehydration or physiological stress can cause an increase in osmolarity above 300 mOsm/L, which in turn increases ADH secretion and water retention, causing an increase in blood pressure. ADH travels in the bloodstream to the kidneys.
vasopressin, also called antidiuretic hormone, a hormone that plays a key role in maintaining osmolality (the concentration of dissolved particles, such as salts and glucose, in the serum) and therefore in maintaining the volume of water in the extracellular fluid (the liquid space that surrounds cells). B (Hypotonic hydration. Hypotonic hydration occurs when extracellular fluid becomes so hypotonic (dilute) that water enters cells. Excess water is present in cells, intracellular compartments, and extracellular compartments.) The main factors that stimulate the production and release of aldosterone by the zona glomerulosa are angiotensin II and the serum potassium concentration. If a disturbance causes the osmolarity of the extracellular fluid to increase, water will flow out of the cell into the extracellular space to balance the osmotic gradient; however, the total body osmolarity will remain higher than normal and the cell will shrink.
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a plant cell has a concentration of 0.5mm nacl and is placed in flasks with varying nacl concentrations. identify if the solutions are isotonic, hypertonic, or hypotonic, and then predict what will happen to the plant cells (cytolysis, shrivel, plasmolysis, turgor pressure increases/decreases or nothing).
the solution is hypotonic, (just a little salt) then water will move into the cell. a plant cell just expands until the membrane is in full contact with the cell wall.
Hypotonic solutions have low solute concentrations in them. Hypotonic in terms of the cell is a solution with 0.5% salt. A cell experiences a net inflow of water when it is placed in a hypotonic environment. As a result, the cell expands. When kept in a hypotonic environment, cells absorb water from the surrounding medium and swell. Plant cells have a cell membrane that exerts pressure against the cell wall, which in turn applies pressure to the swelling cell but prevents it from bursting. Rigid cell walls contain plant cells. Osmosis occurs when it is submerged in a hypotonic solution, or a solution with a lower solute concentration than the cell. Plasmolysis, a process, causes a cell placed in a hypertonic solution to shrivel and die.This will result in an increase in cell turgor pressure.
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a man has a large inversion on one of his chromosomes. how might this impact his offspring? no impact because all genetic information is retained severe phenotypic abnormalities caused by unbalanced chromatids fewer autosomes because normal synapsis during meiosis does not occur minor genetic abnormalities due to minimal deficiency in genetic material
The remaining one-fourth will have chromosomes 4 and 12 in their normal positions. Three-fourths will have at least one translocated chromosome.
An individual's whole chromosomal set is known as their karyotype. A laboratory-created representation of a person's chromosomes separated from a man or woman cell and put in numerical order is also referred to by this word. To check for irregularities in chromosomal range or structure, a karyotype may be utilised.Your doctor can discover whether there are any abnormalities or structural issues with the chromosomes by analysing them using karyotyping. There are chromosomes in almost every cell in your body. They consist of the genetic make-up you inherited from your parents.
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