The predicted mean fruit weight of their offspring is 44 grams.
To predict the mean fruit weight of the offspring, we can use the formula:
Offspring Mean = Mean Parent + (h² * (Mean Breeding - Mean Parent))
Mean Parent (original population) = 40 g
h² (heritability) = 0.4
Mean Breeding (selected plants) = 50 g
Let's substitute the values into the formula:
Offspring Mean = 40 g + (0.4 * (50 g - 40 g))
Offspring Mean = 40 g + (0.4 * 10 g)
Offspring Mean = 40 g + 4 g
Offspring Mean = 44 g
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Detail a method to isolate and separate E.coli ribosomal subunits and ribosomal proteins.
In which areas of ribosomes are proteins and RNA concentrated
How does the wobble in the genetic code arise and what are its potential advantages?
Explain in detail what is meant by tRNA charging? With examples, outline the mechanisms available which ensure the correct tRNA and amino acid are selected by the relevant aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.
Isolation and separation of E. coli ribosomal subunits and ribosomal proteins can be done using a process called sucrose gradient centrifugation.
The method includes a series of steps which are mentioned below: Preparation of cell-free extract A cell-free extract is prepared from the cells of E. coli by a method of grinding and ultracentrifugation. Extraction of ribosomes Ribosomes are extracted from the cell-free extract using high salt concentration and magnesium ions. This is done to make sure that the ribosomes do not come in contact with other cellular components.
Separation of ribosomal subunits The extracted ribosomes are treated with EDTA and magnesium ions. This causes them to disintegrate into subunits that are separated according to their sedimentation coefficients by ultracentrifugation on a sucrose gradient.
There are two mechanisms available to ensure that this happens: proofreading and editing. Proofreading is the process by which an aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase recognizes a mistake and releases the incorrect amino acid. Editing is the process by which an aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase recognizes a mistake and removes the incorrect amino acid before it is attached to the tRNA molecule.
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What
have been the impact of widespread destruction of California's
Tidal Marshes/Estuaries?
The widespread destruction of California's tidal marshes/estuaries has had significant ecological and socio-economic impacts.
The destruction of California's tidal marshes and estuaries has resulted in profound ecological consequences. These habitats serve as vital breeding, nesting, and feeding grounds for numerous species, including fish, birds, and mammals. With their destruction, the loss of critical habitat has led to declines in biodiversity, negatively impacting the overall health of ecosystems. Additionally, tidal marshes and estuaries play a crucial role in water filtration and nutrient cycling, helping to maintain water quality and support healthy fisheries. The destruction of these habitats disrupts these processes, leading to imbalances in the ecosystem.
The destruction of California's tidal marshes and estuaries also has socio-economic implications. These habitats provide essential services such as coastal protection by acting as natural buffers against storms and reducing the risk of coastal erosion. Without them, coastal communities are more vulnerable to the impacts of storms, leading to increased property damage and potential loss of life. Tidal marshes and estuaries also contribute to the economy through recreational activities like birdwatching, fishing, and boating, attracting tourists and supporting local businesses. Their destruction not only impacts the livelihoods of those directly dependent on these activities but also affects the broader coastal economy.
In conclusion, the widespread destruction of California's tidal marshes and estuaries has had far-reaching impacts on both ecological systems and human communities. Conservation and restoration efforts are crucial to mitigate these effects, protect biodiversity, and ensure the resilience and sustainability of California's coastal ecosystems.
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B.
• Briefly explain how the structure and chemical properties of each of the four biologically important molecules affects and influences their function.
C.
• Briefly explain how DNA stores and transmits information
• Describe three forms of RNA and list one function of each form
The structure and chemical properties of biologically important molecules play a crucial role in determining their functions. Lipids, with their hydrophobic nature, are involved in energy storage, insulation, and the formation of cell membranes.
Nucleic acids, specifically DNA, store and transmit genetic information through their unique double-stranded helical structure and the complementary base pairing of nucleotides.
DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) stores and transmits genetic information through its specific structure and chemical properties. The double-stranded helical structure of DNA allows for the stable storage of genetic information. The sequence of nucleotides along the DNA molecule contains the instructions for building and maintaining an organism. During DNA replication, the complementary base pairing of nucleotides allows for accurate transmission of genetic information from one generation to the next.
RNA (ribonucleic acid) has multiple forms, each with distinct functions. Messenger RNA (mRNA) carries the genetic information from DNA to the ribosomes, where it serves as a template for protein synthesis. Transfer RNA (tRNA) is responsible for delivering amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis. It recognizes specific codons on the mRNA and ensures the accurate assembly of amino acids into a polypeptide chain. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) is a major component of ribosomes, the cellular machinery responsible for protein synthesis. It provides the structural framework for the ribosome and catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds.
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Which of the following about Km is true? a. Km can equal 0. b. Km is the substrate needed to achieve 25% Vmax. c. Km can inform binding affinity. d. Km can inform maximal velocity.
The answer that is true regarding Km is that Km can inform binding affinity. Km is also known as the Michaelis-Menten constant. The constant describes the relationship between the enzyme and the substrate.
It is used to determine the binding affinity of the enzyme for its substrate. In the case of enzymes, the binding affinity of a substrate and an enzyme is the strength of the interaction between the substrate and the active site of the enzyme. The lower the value of Km, the higher the binding affinity of the enzyme. A low Km indicates that the substrate and the enzyme can interact and form the enzyme-substrate complex quickly.
A high Km indicates that the substrate and enzyme are less efficient at forming the enzyme-substrate complex. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is option C, Km can inform binding affinity.
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Different kinds of fatty acids could be metabolized by human cell, by using similar metabolic pathways. (a) (i) Upon complete oxidation of m vistic acid (14:0) , saturated fatty acid, calculate the number of ATP equivalents being generated in aerobic conditions. ( ∗∗∗ Show calculation step(s) clearly) [Assumption: the citric acid cycle is functioning and the mole ratio of ATPs produced by reoxidation of each NADH and FADH2 in the electron transport system are 3 and 2 respectively.] (6%)
Upon complete oxidation of myristic acid (14:0) in aerobic conditions, approximately 114 ATP equivalents would be generated.
To calculate the number of ATP equivalents generated upon complete oxidation of myristic acid (14:0), a saturated fatty acid, we need to consider the different metabolic pathways involved in its oxidation.
First, myristic acid undergoes beta-oxidation, a process that breaks down the fatty acid molecule into acetyl-CoA units. Since myristic acid has 14 carbons, it will undergo 6 rounds of beta-oxidation, producing 7 acetyl-CoA molecules.
Each round of beta-oxidation generates the following:
1 FADH2
1 NADH
1 acetyl-CoA
Now let's calculate the ATP equivalents generated from these products:
FADH2: According to the assumption given, each FADH2 can generate 2 ATP equivalents in the electron transport system (ETS). Since there are 6 rounds of beta-oxidation, we have 6 FADH2, resulting in 12 ATP equivalents (6 x 2).
NADH: Each NADH can generate 3 ATP equivalents in the ETS. With 6 rounds of beta-oxidation, we have 6 NADH, resulting in 18 ATP equivalents (6 x 3).
Acetyl-CoA: Each acetyl-CoA molecule enters the citric acid cycle (also known as the Krebs cycle or TCA cycle) and goes through a series of reactions, generating energy intermediates that can be used to produce ATP. One round of the citric acid cycle generates 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, and 1 GTP (which can be converted to ATP). Since we have 7 acetyl-CoA molecules, we will have 21 NADH, 7 FADH2, and 7 GTP (which is equivalent to ATP).
Calculating the ATP equivalents from acetyl-CoA:
NADH: 21 NADH x 3 ATP equivalents = 63 ATP equivalents
FADH2: 7 FADH2 x 2 ATP equivalents = 14 ATP equivalents
GTP (ATP): 7 ATP equivalents
Now we can sum up the ATP equivalents generated from FADH2, NADH, and acetyl-CoA:
FADH2: 12 ATP equivalents
NADH: 18 ATP equivalents
Acetyl-CoA: 63 ATP equivalents + 14 ATP equivalents + 7 ATP equivalents = 84 ATP equivalents
Finally, we add up the ATP equivalents from all sources:
12 ATP equivalents (FADH2) + 18 ATP equivalents (NADH) + 84 ATP equivalents (acetyl-CoA) = 114 ATP equivalents
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which of the following is/are likely to be fertile
a. allodiploids
b. allotetraploids
c. triplioids
d. all
e. none
Allotetraploids are likely to be fertile. Allotetraploids are organisms that have two complete sets of chromosomes derived from different species.
These organisms usually result from hybridization events between two different species followed by genome doubling. Due to having complete sets of chromosomes, allotetraploids often have balanced chromosomal composition, allowing for normal meiosis and fertility. On the other hand, allodiploids (a) and triploids (c) are less likely to be fertile. Allodiploids have two complete sets of chromosomes derived from different species, but they lack a complete set of chromosomes from either parent species. Triploids, on the other hand, have three complete sets of chromosomes, which can lead to problems during meiosis and reduced fertility.
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1. Semen travels through the male reproductive tract in this order: a. ejaculatory duct, vas deferens, epididymis, urethra b. epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra c. urethra, ejaculator
Semen is produced in the testicles and travels through the male reproductive system in the following order:
The testes produce sperm, which are stored and matured in the epididymis.
When sperm are needed, they travel through the vas deferens and into the ejaculatory duct.
Seminal fluid is added to the sperm in the seminal vesicles and prostate gland, which is then mixed and expelled through the urethra during ejaculation.
The correct order in which semen travels through the male reproductive tract is:
The epididymis is a long, coiled tube that sits on top of each testicle and serves as a site of sperm maturation and storage.
The vas deferens is a muscular tube that connects the epididymis to the urethra.
The ejaculatory duct is formed by the union of the vas deferens and seminal vesicles, and it passes through the prostate gland to empty into the urethra.
Understanding the anatomy and function of the male reproductive system is important for overall health and wellness.
Semen is composed of fluid and sperm.
It is ejaculated from the male reproductive system during orgasm.
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Humans can have type A blood, type B blood, type AB blood, or type o. Which of the following is a possible genotype for an individual with type B blood Answers A-D А ТА Br DAT
Among the given options, the possible genotype for an individual with type B blood is option B: B. This individual would have the genotype "BB" for the ABO blood group.
The ABO blood group system is determined by the presence or absence of specific antigens on the surface of red blood cells. In the case of type B blood, individuals have the B antigen present on their red blood cells.
The genotype for type B blood can be either homozygous (BB) or heterozygous (BO), as the B allele is responsible for producing the B antigen.
In this case, the genotype "BB" indicates that both alleles inherited by the individual are B alleles, resulting in the production of the B antigen on their red blood cells. This genotype is associated with type B blood.
To summarize, the possible genotype for an individual with type B blood is "BB."
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While shadowing doctors in the ER, a patient with a gun shot wound receives a blood transfusion. Surgeons take care of his wounds, but the blood transfusion was of the incorrect ABO type. Which of the following would not happen?
O a Type II hypersensitivity reaction
O significant production of complement anaphylotixins
O IgG mediated deposition of complement on the transfused RBCs
O the formation of MACS on the transfused RBCs
O Massive release of histamine
O The patient becomes very jaundice as transfused RBCs are lysed
In the case of an incorrect ABO blood transfusion, the most unlikely event is that the patient becomes very jaundiced as transfused RBCs are Lisdawati is blood? Blood is a specialized body fluid that delivers necessary substances.
The cells in the body steady a supply of oxygen for energy and the expulsion of carbon dioxide is essential. Blood provides a means for the transportation of these necessary substances, as well as cellular waste.
BO blood Groups: BO blood groups are the most important blood groups, which is determined by the presence of antigen A, B, or absence of antigen A and B on red blood cells, and antibodies in plasma (anti-A and anti-B).
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When you recognize the characteristics of living
things, do you recognize virus as living?
if yes why?
if not, why not?
(please in your own words)
Although viruses share some similarities with living organisms, such as the ability to evolve and adapt to their environment, they lack the basic properties and cellular organization of living things. Therefore, viruses are not typically regarded as living things.
When you recognize the characteristics of living things, you may not recognize a virus as living as it lacks several fundamental characteristics of living things. For example, viruses cannot reproduce on their own; they require a host cell to replicate. Additionally, they do not generate or utilize energy, which is a fundamental characteristic of all living things.Furthermore, viruses do not have cellular organization and are not composed of cells, which is another vital characteristic of all living things. They are simply a piece of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA, surrounded by a protein coat.Although viruses share some similarities with living organisms, such as the ability to evolve and adapt to their environment, they lack the basic properties and cellular organization of living things. Therefore, viruses are not typically regarded as living things.
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Which of the following is true of a mature mRNA in eukaryotes?
it contains a poly A tail it is translated in the nucleus all of the answer choices are correct it is comprised of introns spliced together
A mature mRNA in eukaryotes contains a poly A tail. The poly A tail is a sequence of adenine nucleotides that are added to the 3' end of the mRNA molecule, after transcription has been completed.
The poly A tail is important for the stability and export of the mRNA molecule from the nucleus to the cytoplasm, where it will be translated into protein.The other answer choices are incorrect:It is not translated in the nucleus. Translation, which is the process of protein synthesis, occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell after the mRNA molecule has been transported out of the nucleus.
It is not necessarily comprised of introns spliced together. Introns are non-coding regions of the DNA sequence that are removed from the pre-mRNA molecule during RNA splicing. The mature mRNA molecule that is transported to the cytoplasm does not contain introns.
option d is incorrect.All of the answer choices are not correct as option b and d are incorrect. option a is correct.
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Longer intestines relative to size are typical of rabbits, horses, and other herbivorous animals O carnivorous animals O lions and pythons O humans and other primates
Longer intestines relative to size are typical of herbivorous animals such as rabbits, horses, and other herbivores. This is because plant materials, which are rich in cellulose and other complex carbohydrates, require longer digestive processes to be broken down and metabolized.
Herbivores have evolved longer digestive tracts to allow for the prolonged digestion of plant materials. This is in contrast to carnivorous animals such as lions and pythons, which have shorter intestines relative to their size. This is because animal tissues are easier to digest and absorb, and require less time to break down. Finally, humans and other primates have relatively shorter intestines compared to herbivorous animals but longer compared to carnivorous animals. This is because humans are omnivorous and require a digestive system that can process both plant and animal materials. In summary, herbivorous animals have longer intestines compared to their body size to allow for the digestion of complex plant materials, while carnivorous animals have shorter intestines because they require less time to break down animal tissues.
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Write an introduction to Disease ecology in more than 300
words.
Disease ecology is a multidisciplinary field that explores the complex interactions between infectious diseases, their hosts, and the environment in which they exist.
It encompasses the study of how diseases emerge, spread, and persist in populations of humans, animals, and plants. By investigating the ecological factors that influence disease dynamics, such as host behavior, pathogen transmission, and environmental conditions, disease ecologists strive to better understand the underlying mechanisms that drive disease outbreaks. This knowledge is crucial for developing effective strategies for disease prevention, control, and management.
Disease ecology incorporates elements of epidemiology, microbiology, ecology, evolution, and environmental science, allowing researchers to analyze the intricate relationships between pathogens, hosts, and their shared ecosystems. By uncovering these connections, disease ecology provides valuable insights into the health of both humans and ecosystems as a whole.
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The correct question is:
Write an introduction to Disease ecology.
Which type of secretion occurs destroying the entire cell as it releases its product? a. endocrine secretion b. merocrine secretion c. apocrine secretion d. holocrine secretion
The correct answer is d. holocrine secretion, where the entire cell is destroyed during the release of its product.
Holocrine secretion is a type of secretion in which the entire cell is destroyed during the process of releasing its product. This occurs when the secretory cells accumulate and store their product within their cytoplasm until it reaches a certain level of maturity. Once the product reaches the desired level, the entire cell disintegrates, releasing the accumulated secretion along with the cell debris.
Examples of holocrine secretion can be found in certain glands of the body, such as the sebaceous glands in the skin. Sebaceous glands produce sebum, an oily substance that helps lubricate and protect the skin and hair. In the case of sebaceous glands, the secretory cells accumulate sebum within their cytoplasm until they burst, releasing the sebum and cell fragments onto the skin's surface.
In contrast, other types of secretion, such as endocrine secretion, merocrine secretion, and apocrine secretion, do not involve the destruction of the entire cell. Endocrine secretion refers to the release of hormones directly into the bloodstream, while merocrine secretion involves the release of secretory products through exocytosis without any cell damage. Apocrine secretion is characterized by the release of secretory products along with a portion of the cell membrane.
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Briefly describe how the 3 different types of neurotransmitters are synthesized and stored. Question 2 Briefly describe how neurotransmitters are released in response to an action potential.
Neurotransmitters are chemical messengers that transmit signals across synapses from one neuron to another, as well as from neurons to muscles or glands.
They are classified into three categories, each of which is synthesized and stored differently. These categories are:Acetylcholine, monoamines, and amino acidsAcetylcholine is synthesized by combining choline and acetyl CoA in nerve terminals using the enzyme choline acetyltransferase (ChAT). Once synthesized, acetylcholine is stored in vesicles in nerve terminals.Monoamines are synthesized from dietary amino acids, such as phenylalanine, tyrosine, and tryptophan. Monoamines are synthesized using enzymes present in neurons, such as tyrosine hydroxylase and dopamine β-hydroxylase. Once synthesized, monoamines are stored in vesicles in nerve terminals.Amino acids are synthesized by neurons themselves. GABA, for example, is synthesized from glutamate, while glutamate is synthesized from α-ketoglutarate.
Once synthesized, amino acids are stored in vesicles in nerve terminals. The release of neurotransmitters occurs when an action potential reaches the terminal of a presynaptic neuron. This causes the depolarization of the nerve terminal, which in turn triggers the influx of calcium ions into the terminal. The increase in calcium ion concentration causes synaptic vesicles containing neurotransmitters to fuse with the membrane, releasing their contents into the synaptic cleft. Neurotransmitters bind to receptors on the postsynaptic neuron and trigger a response that allows for the propagation of the signal.
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Question 24 (1 point) Chronically elevated cortisol may cause all of the following EXCEPT: O a) promotes insulin resistance and obesity Ob) increases muscle mass O c) promotes telomere shortening O d) weakens the immune response
Chronically elevated cortisol may cause all of the following except: increases muscle mass (option B).
What is the effect of elevated cortisol?Cortisol is a steroid hormone produced and released by the adrenal glands, the endocrine glands above the kidneys.
Cortisol is an essential hormone that affects almost every organ and tissue in the body, however, higher-than-normal or lower-than-normal cortisol levels can be harmful to one's health.
Effects of chronic elevated levels of cortisol includes the following;
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Cardiovascular dynamics deals with the 11 pt) ( Your answer: Repair of a fractured bone Mechanics of skeletal muscles Brain waves analysis Human Gait Analysis Mechanics of the heart and blood circulat
Cardiovascular dynamics specifically refers to the mechanics of the heart and blood circulation. It involves the study of the structure and function of the cardiovascular system, including the heart, blood vessels, and the flow of blood throughout the body.
Cardiovascular dynamics focuses on understanding the mechanics and functioning of the heart and the circulation of blood within the body. This field of study explores various aspects such as cardiac anatomy, cardiac physiology, hemodynamics (blood flow patterns and pressures), and the interactions between the heart, blood vessels, and other organs.
Researchers and healthcare professionals in the field of cardiovascular dynamics aim to understand the normal functioning of the cardiovascular system, as well as the abnormalities and disorders that can arise. This knowledge is crucial for diagnosing and managing cardiovascular diseases, including conditions such as hypertension, heart failure, coronary artery disease, and arrhythmias.
Through the study of cardiovascular dynamics, researchers can investigate factors that influence heart function, blood pressure regulation, blood flow distribution, and the interplay between the heart and other systems in the body. This understanding contributes to the development of effective treatment strategies and interventions to improve cardiovascular health and manage cardiovascular diseases.
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Lisa took a prescription medication that blocked her nicotinic receptors. i. Name the neurotransmitter that was blocked from binding. ii. Which ANS subdivision has been impacted? iii. Based on your an
i. The neurotransmitter that was blocked from binding is acetylcholine.
ii. The autonomic nervous system (ANS) subdivision that has been impacted is the parasympathetic nervous system.
iii. Based on the information provided, the blocking of nicotinic receptors by the medication is likely to result in decreased parasympathetic activity, leading to effects such as decreased salivation, decreased gastrointestinal motility, and increased heart rate.
i. The neurotransmitter that was blocked from binding is acetylcholine. Nicotinic receptors are a type of receptor in the nervous system that specifically bind to acetylcholine.
ii. The autonomic nervous system (ANS) is responsible for regulating involuntary bodily functions. It is divided into two subdivisions: the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system. In this case, since the medication blocked nicotinic receptors, which are predominantly found in the parasympathetic division, the parasympathetic subdivision of the ANS has been impacted.
iii. Blocking nicotinic receptors in the parasympathetic division of the ANS would result in decreased parasympathetic activity. The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for promoting rest and digestion. Its effects include increased salivation, increased gastrointestinal motility, and decreased heart rate. By blocking the nicotinic receptors, the medication would interfere with the binding of acetylcholine and subsequently decrease the parasympathetic response, leading to the opposite effects mentioned above, such as decreased salivation, decreased gastrointestinal motility, and increased heart rate.
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Which of the following statements is TRUE about transcription
initiation
complexes required by eukaryotic RNA Polymerase Il?
O a. TFIlD recognizes and binds multiple promoter elements
O b. Mediator ha
Eukaryotic RNA Polymerase II requires a transcription initiation complex to begin transcription. The transcription initiation complex is composed of transcription factors, RNA polymerase, and other proteins.
The complex is formed at the promoter region of the DNA strand, which is recognized by transcription factors. Transcription initiation complexes are essential for the proper functioning of RNA Polymerase II.The correct statement regarding transcription initiation complexes required by eukaryotic RNA Polymerase Il is a. TFIlD recognizes and binds multiple promoter elements. TFIlD, a general transcription factor, is responsible for recognizing and binding to the TATA box, an essential element of the promoter region. In addition to recognizing the TATA box, TFIlD also binds to other promoter elements, such as the initiator element and downstream promoter elements. This binding helps to stabilize the transcription initiation complex, allowing RNA polymerase to begin transcription. The mediator is another general transcription factor, but it does not bind directly to the promoter region.
Instead, it interacts with transcription factors and RNA Polymerase II to help regulate transcription and ensure that it proceeds correctly.In summary, the transcription initiation complex is essential for the initiation of transcription by RNA Polymerase II. TFIlD recognizes and binds to multiple promoter elements, while the mediator interacts with other transcription factors and RNA Polymerase II to help regulate the process.
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Transcribe and translate your original DNA.
Review those terms and write a short definition
Transcription:
Translation:
When the protein is completed, write the sequence of amino acids shown (there are 11). Hint: click on the "stop" button to make the model stop jiggling.
Click on the edit DNA, you will now see the original sequence used to make the protein.
ATG CCG GGC GGC GAG AGC TTG CTA ATT GGC TTA TAA
Edit the DNA by changing all the first codon to "AAA."
Check the new protein created by your new DNA. Describe how this changed the protein.
Return the codon to its original state (ATG). Now place an additional A after the G, your strand will read ATGA.
Check the new protein created by your new DNA. Describe how this changed the protein.
Return the mRNA to its original state (ATG). Now change the second codon from CCA to CCC. Check the new protein created by your new DNA. Describe how this changed the protein.
6. Return the codon to its original state (ATG). Now place an additional A after the G, your strand will read ATGA. Check the new protein created by your new DNA. Describe how this changed the protein.
7. Return the mRNA to its original state (ATG). Now change the second codon from CCA to CCC. Check the new protein created by your new DNA. Describe how this changed the protein.
Transcription: Transcription is the process of converting DNA into RNA by the enzyme RNA polymerase. The RNA molecule is complementary to one strand of the DNA molecule, the template strand.Translation: Translation is the process of converting the mRNA molecule into a protein molecule with the help of ribosomes and transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules.
The original DNA sequence is ATG CCG GGC GGC GAG AGC TTG CTA ATT GGC TTA TAA. The process of transcription of DNA results in the formation of mRNA, which is translated into a protein sequence. The process of translation of mRNA into a protein sequence involves three stages, namely initiation, elongation, and termination.The sequence of amino acids shown when the protein is completed is Met-Pro-Gly-Gly-Glu-Ser-Leu-Leu-Trp-Leu-Stop. The new DNA sequence created by changing all the first codon to "AAA" is AAA CCG GGC GGC GAG AGC TTG CTA ATT GGC TTA TAA. The protein sequence changes to Lys-Pro-Gly-Gly-Glu-Ser-Leu-Leu-Trp-Leu-Stop due to this change.
The new DNA sequence created by placing an additional A after the G in the original DNA sequence is ATGA CCG GGC GGC GAG AGC TTG CTA ATT GGC TTA TAA. The protein sequence changes to Met-Pro-Gly-Gly-Glu-Ser-Leu-Leu-Trp-Leu-Stop due to this change.The new DNA sequence created by changing the second codon from CCA to CCC is ATG CCC GGC GGC GAG AGC TTG CTA ATT GGC TTA TAA. The protein sequence changes to Met-Pro-Gly-Gly-Glu-Ser-Leu-Leu-Trp-Leu-Stop due to this change.
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Question 16 1 pts Which one of the following statements about fluid input and removal from the digestive system is correct? Most fluid in the digestive tract is absorbed in the large intestine The amo
Most fluid in the digestive tract is absorbed in the small intestine is correct about fluid input and removal from the digestive system.
The correct statement about fluid input and removal from the digestive system is: Most fluid in the digestive tract is absorbed in the small intestine. The digestive system is responsible for the digestion and absorption of food, water, and other nutrients from the diet. It's also responsible for eliminating waste products and excess fluids from the body. Most fluid in the digestive tract is absorbed in the small intestine. Fluid input and removal from the digestive system: Fluid input and removal from the digestive system refers to the absorption of water and other nutrients from the digestive tract.
The fluid input and output from the digestive system are regulated by various mechanisms to ensure adequate hydration and removal of excess fluids from the body. The small intestine is responsible for the absorption of most of the nutrients and fluid from the food. The large intestine mainly absorbs water and electrolytes from the undigested food. However, most fluid in the digestive tract is absorbed in the small intestine, not the large intestine.
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If you completely burn your dinner to ashes, what would be the
nutritional composition of those ashes
The remains would be primarily inorganic substances like carbonates, oxides, and trace minerals.
If you completely burn your dinner to ashes, the nutritional composition of those ashes would be minimal or non-existent. Burning food to ashes typically results in the complete combustion of organic matter, leaving behind mostly inorganic compounds and minerals.The term "organic matter," "organic material," or "natural organic matter" describes the significant source of carbon-based substances present in both naturally occurring and artificially created terrestrial and aquatic settings. It is material made up of organic components that were once part of plants, animals, and other living things.
The nutritional components of food, such as carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and most minerals, would be destroyed during the combustion process. What remains would be primarily inorganic substances like carbonates, oxides, and trace minerals. These ashes would not provide any significant nutritional value or sustenance.
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Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidney? A. Excretion of metabolic wastes. B. Secretion of hormones. C. Maintenance of acid-base balance. D. Excretion of solid and liquid wastes. E. Maintenance of water-salt balance. 2. Which of the following substances causes nitrogen to be released as ammonia? A. alpha ketoglutarate D. uric acid B. amino acids E. glucose C. urea 3. Which one of the following is a part of the circulatory system? A. distal tubules D. proximal tubules E. glomerulus B. Bowman's capsule C. collecting duct 4. Glomerular filtrate is identical to plasma, except in respect to the concentration of: A. water. D. glucose B. proteins. E. urea. C. sodium.
Excretion of solid and liquid wastes is not a function of the kidney. The kidney is responsible for filtering the blood, removing metabolic wastes and excess water, salts, and minerals to form urine, which is excreted from the body.
Additionally, the kidney also helps maintain acid-base balance and secretes hormones.2. B. Amino acids are the substances that cause nitrogen to be released as ammonia.
Amino acids contain nitrogen, and when they are broken down in the liver, the nitrogen is removed and converted into ammonia, which is then excreted by the body.
Urea, another nitrogenous waste product, is formed in the liver from ammonia.3. The heart is a part of the circulatory system, responsible for pumping blood throughout the body.
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This is a 5 part question.
In humans, not having albinism (A) is dominant to having albinism (a). Consider a
cross between two carriers: ax Aa. What is the probability that the first child will
not have albinism (A_)?
In humans, the presence of albinism (a) is a recessive trait while the absence of albinism (A) is dominant. Therefore, we can write Aa for individuals who are carriers of the albinism trait. Let us consider a cross between two carriers; ax Aa.
A Punnett square can be used to determine the probability of offspring phenotypes.
Ax A aAa aa Phenotypic Ratio:3:1
The above Punnett square represents the cross between two carriers. The possible gametes that can be produced by the mother and father are represented along the top and left of the table, respectively.
The phenotypes are listed along the left and top of the table as well. The inside of the table contains the possible genotype combinations of the offspring.
The probability of the first child not having albinism (A_) can be determined by adding the probability of the child having the genotype Aa or AA. Since the absence of albinism (A) is dominant, an individual with the genotype AA will not have albinism.
The probability of a child having an Aa genotype is 2/4, which can be calculated by adding the probabilities of the first two squares in the Punnett square. The probability of a child having an AA genotype is 1/4, which can be calculated by looking at the bottom left square of the Punnett square.
Therefore, the probability of the first child not having albinism is (2/4 + 1/4) = 3/4.
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which of the following microorganism inhibit adherence with
phagocytes because of the presence of m proteins
1. mycobacterium tuberculosis steptococcus pyogenes leishmania
klesiella pneumoniae
The microorganism that inhibits adherence with phagocytes because of the presence of m proteins is Steptococcus pyogenes.
What are m proteins?
M proteins are the fibrous surface proteins found on Streptococcus pyogenes bacteria.
M proteins are important virulence factors of the bacteria, and they play a role in the development of rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis.
They can also be used to classify Streptococcus pyogenes bacteria into different strains.
They are capable of masking the bacteria's surface antigens, rendering them immune to phagocytosis.
The Streptococcus pyogenes bacterium has m proteins on its surface.
These proteins help the bacterium avoid being detected by immune cells and phagocytes.
As a result, the bacterium is able to evade the immune system and spread throughout the body, causing a variety of infections.
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Initiation of transcription in eukaryotes is almost always dependant on:
a. DNA being condensed within heterochromatin
b. Nonspecific DNA binding of RNA polymerases
c. The activity of histone deacetylases
d. The action of multiple activator proteins
In eukaryotes, the initiation of transcription is almost always dependent on the action of multiple activator proteins. Transcription factors that are specific to while chromatin remodeling complexes and histone modifiers may also be necessary.
In eukaryotes, transcription of protein-encoding genes is directed by RNA polymerase II. The initiation of transcription is a complicated and regulated process that involves multiple proteins, including transcription factors and chromatin regulators. In order for RNA polymerase II to bind to DNA and initiate transcription, multiple activator proteins must first bind to the promoter region of the gene.
These activator proteins can recruit other transcription factors and chromatin-modifying enzymes to the promoter, which can then help to recruit RNA polymerase II to the correct position on the DNA for transcription to begin. Additionally, chromatin remodeling complexes may be necessary to help make the DNA more accessible to RNA polymerase II by modifying the position or structure of nucleosomes. Therefore, the initiation of transcription in eukaryotes is almost always dependent on the action of multiple activator proteins.
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BIOCHEM
Which of these peptide hormones signals satiety?
A.
adiponectin
B.
ghrelin
C.
.PYY3-36
D.
NPY
Peptide hormones are the substances that act as signaling molecules and are secreted by endocrine cells. They act on the target organs and tissues to bring out a specific response. They are involved in the regulation of various processes such as growth, metabolism, stress response, and satiety.
Satiety is the feeling of fullness that follows a meal. It is regulated by the complex interactions between various hormones and neurotransmitters. One of the peptide hormones that signals satiety is PYY3-36.PYY3-36 (Peptide YY 3-36) is a peptide hormone secreted by the intestinal L-cells in response to food intake.
It acts on the hypothalamus to decrease appetite and increase satiety. It is known to inhibit the secretion of ghrelin, a hormone that stimulates appetite. PYY3-36 is also involved in the regulation of glucose metabolism, insulin secretion, and gut motility. Other peptide hormones involved in the regulation of appetite and satiety are adiponectin, ghrelin, and NPY (Neuropeptide Y).
Adiponectin is produced by adipose tissue and has anti-inflammatory and insulin-sensitizing effects. Ghrelin is produced by the stomach and stimulates appetite. NPY is produced by the hypothalamus and stimulates appetite.
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which of the following contain unusual eukaryotes which are
without microtubules and mitochondria
microsporidia
archaezoa
rhizopoda
apicomplexan
Archaezoa and Microsporidia are eukaryotes that are without microtubules and mitochondria.
Archaezoa and Microsporidia are two groups of eukaryotic organisms that lack microtubules and mitochondria.
1. Archaezoa: Archaezoa are a group of unicellular eukaryotes that were once classified as a kingdom within the domain Eukarya.
They are known for their unique characteristics, including the absence of typical eukaryotic organelles such as mitochondria and microtubules.
Instead of mitochondria, Archaezoa possess hydrogenosomes, which are specialized organelles involved in energy metabolism. These organisms exhibit diverse modes of nutrition, including both parasitic and free-living forms.
2. Microsporidia: Microsporidia are a group of intracellular parasitic eukaryotes. They are characterized by their small size and the absence of typical eukaryotic organelles like mitochondria and microtubules.
Instead, they possess unique structures called polar tubes, which are used to infect host cells.
Microsporidia rely on host cells for energy production and other essential cellular functions, as they lack the ability to generate ATP through oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria.
Rhizopoda and Apicomplexa, on the other hand, do contain microtubules and mitochondria and are not classified as unusual eukaryotes in terms of these organelles.
Rhizopoda, also known as amoebas, are characterized by their ability to form temporary extensions of the cell membrane called pseudopodia, which aid in movement and feeding.
Apicomplexa are a diverse group of parasitic protozoa, including well-known parasites such as Plasmodium, the causative agent of malaria.
They possess a unique apical complex involved in host cell invasion and are known to have both microtubules and mitochondria.
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A collection of motor fibers exclusively A collection of axons in the peripheral nervous system A collection of nerve cell bodies A collection of axons in the central nervous system None of the included answers is correct The nervous system exhibits all these major functions EXCEPT: Modifying response All of the included answers are exhibited Integrating impulses Effecting responses Sensing the internal and external environment Projections from the cell body of a neuron include: Motor and sensory neurons None of the included answers is correct Neurons and neuroglia Axons and dendritesi Bipolar and multipolar neurons
Projections from the cell body of a neuron include: Axons and dendrites.
The cell body of a neuron gives rise to two main types of projections: axons and dendrites. Axons are long, slender extensions that transmit signals away from the cell body, while dendrites are shorter, branching extensions that receive signals from other neurons and relay them to the cell body. These projections play a crucial role in the communication and transmission of electrical signals within the nervous system. Axons conduct nerve impulses over long distances to transmit information to other neurons or target tissues, while dendrites receive incoming signals from other neurons to initiate electrical activity within the cell body.
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2. State whether decreasing the amount of oxygen (02) in inhaled air increased, reduced or did not change arterial carbon dioxide partial pressure from ordinary. 3. State whether decreasing the amount of O, in inhaled air increased, decreased or did not change plasma pH from normal.
Decreasing the amount of oxygen in inhaled air increases the arterial carbon dioxide partial pressure from ordinary. While decreasing the amount of oxygen in inhaled air decreases the plasma pH from normal. Arterial carbon dioxide partial pressure refers to the measure of the carbon dioxide concentration in the blood plasma of arteries.
The normal range for arterial carbon dioxide partial pressure is 35-45 mm Hg (millimeters of mercury). However, in the case of a decrease in oxygen inhalation, the arterial carbon dioxide partial pressure will increase. Why does this happen? It's because when oxygen levels are low, the body tends to retain carbon dioxide rather than expel it.What is plasma pH?The pH level of the plasma is referred to as plasma pH.
The normal range for plasma pH is between 7.35 and 7.45. When there is a decrease in the amount of oxygen inhalation, plasma pH decreases as well. This is because carbon dioxide is retained, which creates an acidic environment in the plasma.
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