Imagine that an object is thrown in the air with 100 miles per hour with 30 degrees of angle. Calculate the size of the displacement associated with the object in the horizontal direction when it was done on a large size spherical star with the gravitational acceleration is 25 miles per hour

Answers

Answer 1

On a large spherical star with a gravitational acceleration of 25 miles per hour, an object thrown at a 30-degree angle with an initial velocity of 100 miles per hour will have a calculated horizontal displacement.

Resolve the initial velocity:

Given the initial velocity of the object is 100 miles per hour and it is launched at an angle of 30 degrees, we need to find its horizontal component. The horizontal component can be calculated using the formula: Vx = V * cos(θ), where V is the initial velocity and θ is the launch angle.

Vx = 100 * cos(30°) = 100 * √3/2 = 50√3 miles per hour.

Calculate the time of flight:

To determine the horizontal displacement, we first need to calculate the time it takes for the object to reach the ground. The time of flight can be determined using the formula: t = 2 * Vy / g, where Vy is the vertical component of the initial velocity and g is the gravitational acceleration.

Since the object is thrown vertically upwards, Vy = V * sin(θ) = 100 * sin(30°) = 100 * 1/2 = 50 miles per hour.

t = 2 * 50 / 25 = 4 hours.

Calculate the horizontal displacement:

With the time of flight determined, we can now find the horizontal displacement using the formula: Dx = Vx * t, where Dx is the horizontal displacement, Vx is the horizontal component of the initial velocity, and t is the time of flight.

Dx = 50√3 * 4 = 200√3 miles.

Therefore, the size of the displacement associated with the object in the horizontal direction, when thrown at an angle of 30 degrees and a speed of 100 miles per hour, on a large spherical star with a gravitational acceleration of 25 miles per hour, would be approximately 100 miles.

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Related Questions

"A 4-cm high object is in front of a thin lens. The lens forms a
virtual image 12 cm high. If the object’s distance from the lens is
6 cm, the image’s distance from the lens is:

Answers

If the object’s distance from the lens is 6 cm, the image's distance from the lens is 18 cm in front of the lens.

To find the image's distance from the lens, we can use the lens formula, which states:

1/f = 1/v - 1/u

where:

f is the focal length of the lens,

v is the image distance from the lens,

u is the object distance from the lens.

Height of the object (h₁) = 4 cm (positive, as it is above the principal axis)

Height of the virtual image (h₂) = 12 cm (positive, as it is above the principal axis)

Object distance (u) = 6 cm (positive, as the object is in front of the lens)

Since the image formed is virtual, the height of the image will be positive.

We can use the magnification formula to relate the object and image heights:

magnification (m) = h₂/h₁

= -v/u

Rearranging the magnification formula, we have:

v = -(h₂/h₁) * u

Substituting the given values, we get:

v = -(12/4) * 6

v = -3 * 6

v = -18 cm

The negative sign indicates that the image is formed on the same side of the lens as the object.

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The cornea of the eye has a radius of curvature of approximately 0.58 cm, and the aqueous humor behind it has an index of refraction of 1.35. The thickness of the comes itself is small enough that we shall neglect it. The depth of a typical human eye is around 25.0 mm .
A. distant mountain on the retina, which is at the back of the eye opposite the cornea? Express your answer in millimeters.
B. if the cornea focused the mountain correctly on the rotina as described in part A. would also focus the text from a computer screen on the rotina if that screen were 250 cm in front of the eye? C. Given that the cornea has a radius of curvature of about 5.00 mm, where does it actually focus the mountain?

Answers

A. The distant mountain on the retina, which is at the back of the eye opposite the cornea is 3.54 mm.

A human eye is around 25.0 mm in depth.

Given that the radius of curvature of the cornea of the eye is 0.58 cm, the distance from the cornea to the retina is around 2 cm, and the index of refraction of the aqueous humor behind the cornea is 1.35. Using the thin lens formula, we can calculate the position of the image.

1/f = (n - 1) [1/r1 - 1/r2] The distance from the cornea to the retina is negative because the image is formed behind the cornea.

Rearranging the thin lens formula to solve for the image position:

1/25.0 cm = (1.35 - 1)[1/0.58 cm] - 1/di

The image position, di = -3.54 mm

Thus, the distant mountain on the retina, which is at the back of the eye opposite the cornea, is 3.54 mm.

B. The distance between the computer screen and the eye is 250 cm, which is far greater than the focal length of the eye (approximately 1.7 cm). When an object is at a distance greater than the focal length of a lens, the lens forms a real and inverted image on the opposite side of the lens. Therefore, if the cornea focused the mountain correctly on the retina as described in part A, it would not be able to focus the text from a computer screen on the retina.

C. The cornea of the eye has a radius of curvature of about 5.00 mm. The lens formula is used to determine the image location. When an object is placed an infinite distance away, it is at the focal point, which is 17 mm behind the cornea.Using the lens formula:

1/f = (n - 1) [1/r1 - 1/r2]1/f = (1.35 - 1)[1/5.00 mm - 1/-17 mm]1/f = 0.87/0.0001 m-9.1 m

Thus, the cornea of the eye focuses the mountain approximately 9.1 m away from the eye.

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A meter stick balances horizontally on a knife-edge at the 50.0 cm mark. With two 6.04 g coins stacked over the 21.6 cm mark, the g stick is found to balance at the 31.9 cm mark. What is the mass of the meter stick? Number i Units

Answers

12.08 g * 21.6 cm = M * 31.9 cm

M = (12.08 g * 21.6 cm) / 31.9 cm

M ≈ 8.20 g

The mass of the meter stick is approximately 8.20 grams.

Let's denote the mass of the meter stick as M (in grams).

To determine the mass of the meter stick, we can use the principle of torque balance. The torque exerted by an object is given by the product of its mass, distance from the fulcrum, and the acceleration due to gravity.

Considering the equilibrium condition, the torques exerted by the coins and the meter stick must balance each other:

Torque of the coins = Torque of the meter stick

The torque exerted by the coins is calculated as the product of the mass of the coins (2 * 6.04 g) and the distance from the fulcrum (21.6 cm). The torque exerted by the meter stick is calculated as the product of the mass of the meter stick (M) and the distance from the fulcrum (31.9 cm).

(2 * 6.04 g) * (21.6 cm) = M * (31.9 cm)

Simplifying the equation:

12.08 g * 21.6 cm = M * 31.9 cm

M = (12.08 g * 21.6 cm) / 31.9 cm

M ≈ 8.20 g

Therefore, the mass of the meter stick is approximately 8.20 grams.

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A mop is pushed across the floor with a force F of 41.9 N at an angle of 0 = 49.3°. The mass of the mop head is m = 2.35 kg. Calculate the magnitude of the acceleration a of the mop head if the coefficient of kinetic friction between the mop head and the floor is μ = 0.330. a = 3.79 Incorrect m/s² HK

Answers

Resolve the applied force F into its components parallel and perpendicular to the floor. The magnitude of the acceleration of the mop head can be calculated using the following steps:

F_parallel = F * cos(θ)

F_perpendicular = F * sin(θ)

Calculate the frictional force acting on the mop head.

f_friction = μ * F_perpendicular

Determine the net force acting on the mop head in the horizontal direction.

F_net = F_parallel - f_friction

Use Newton's second law (F_net = m * a) to calculate the acceleration.

a = F_net / m

Substituting the given values into the equations:

F_parallel = 41.9 N * cos(49.3°) = 41.9 N * 0.649 = 27.171 N

F_perpendicular = 41.9 N * sin(49.3°) = 41.9 N * 0.761 = 31.8489 N

f_friction = 0.330 * 31.8489 N = 10.5113 N

F_net = 27.171 N - 10.5113 N = 16.6597 N

a = 16.6597 N / 2.35 kg = 7.0834 m/s²

Therefore, the magnitude of the acceleration of the mop head is approximately 7.08 m/s².

Summary: a = 7.08 m/s²

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The owner of a large dairy farm with 10,000 cattle proposes to produce biogas from the manure. The proximate analysis of a sample of manure collected at this facility was as follows: Volatile solids (VS) content = 75% of dry matter. Laboratory tests indicated that the biochemical methane potential of a manure sample was 0.25 m³ at STP/ kg VS. a) Estimate the daily methane production rate (m³ at STP/day). b) Estimate the daily biogas production rate in m³ at STP/day (if biogas is made up of 55% methane by volume). c) If the biogas is used to generate electricity at a heat rate of 10,500 BTU/kWh, how many units of electricity (in kWh) can be produced annually? d) It is proposed to use the waste heat from the electrical power generation unit for heating barns and milk parlors, and for hot water. This will displace propane (C3H8) gas which is currently used for these purposes. If 80% of waste heat can be recovered, how many pounds of propane gas will the farm displace annually? Note that (c) and (d) together become a CHP unit. e) If the biogas is upgraded to RNG for transportation fuel, how many GGEs would be produced annually? f) If electricity costs 10 cents/kWh, propane gas costs 55 cents/lb and gasoline $2.50 per gallon, calculate farm revenues and/or avoided costs for each of the following biogas utilization options (i) CHP which is parts (c) and (d), (ii) RNG which is part (e).

Answers

(a) The daily methane production rate (m³ at STP/day)The volume of VS present in manure = 75% of DM of manure or 0.75 × DM of manureAssume that DM of manure = 10% of fresh manure produced by cattleTherefore, fresh manure produced by cattle/day = 10000 × 0.1 = 1000 tonnes/dayVS in 1 tonne of fresh manure = 0.75 × 0.1 = 0.075 tonneVS in 1000 tonnes of fresh manure/day = 1000 × 0.075 = 75 tonnes/dayMethane produced from 1 tonne of VS = 0.25 m³ at STPTherefore, methane produced from 1 tonne of VS in a day = 0.25 × 1000 = 250 m³ at STP/dayMethane produced from 75 tonnes of VS in a day = 75 × 250 = 18,750 m³ at STP/day

(b) The daily biogas production rate in m³ at STP/day (if biogas is made up of 55% methane by volume).Biogas produced from 75 tonnes of VS/day will contain:

Methane = 55% of 18750 m³ at STP = 55/100 × 18750 = 10,312.5 m³ at STPOther gases = 45% of 18750 m³ at STP = 45/100 × 18750 = 8437.5 m³ at STPTherefore, the total volume of biogas produced in a day = 10,312.5 + 8437.5 = 18,750 m³ at STP/day

(c) If the biogas is used to generate electricity at a heat rate of 10,500 BTU/kWh, how many units of electricity (in kWh) can be produced annually?One kWh = 3,412 BTU of heat10,312.5 m³ at STP of methane produced from the biogas = 10,312.5/0.7179 = 14,362 kg of methaneThe energy content of methane = 55.5 MJ/kgEnergy produced from the biogas/day = 14,362 kg × 55.5 MJ/kg = 798,021 MJ/dayHeat content of biogas/day = 798,021 MJ/dayHeat rate of electricity generation = 10,500 BTU/kWhElectricity produced/day = 798,021 MJ/day / (10,500 BTU/kWh × 3,412 BTU/kWh) = 22,436 kWh/dayTherefore, the annual electricity produced = 22,436 kWh/day × 365 days/year = 8,189,540 kWh/year

(d) It is proposed to use the waste heat from the electrical power generation unit for heating barns and milk parlors, and for hot water. This will displace propane (C3H8) gas which is currently used for these purposes. If 80% of waste heat can be recovered, how many pounds of propane gas will the farm displace annually?Propane energy content = 46.3 MJ/kgEnergy saved by using waste heat = 798,021 MJ/day × 0.8 = 638,417 MJ/dayTherefore, propane required/day = 638,417 MJ/day ÷ 46.3 MJ/kg = 13,809 kg/day = 30,452 lb/dayTherefore, propane displaced annually = 30,452 lb/day × 365 days/year = 11,121,380 lb/year(e) If the biogas is upgraded to RNG for transportation fuel, how many GGEs would be produced annually?Energy required to produce 1 GGE of CNG = 128.45 MJ/GGEEnergy produced annually = 14,362 kg of methane/day × 365 days/year = 5,237,830 kg of methane/yearEnergy content of methane = 55.5 MJ/kgEnergy content of 5,237,830 kg of methane = 55.5 MJ/kg × 5,237,830 kg = 290,325,765 MJ/yearTherefore, the number of GGEs produced annually = 290,325,765 MJ/year ÷ 128.45 MJ/GGE = 2,260,930 GGE/year(f) If electricity costs 10 cents/kWh, propane gas costs 55 cents/lb and gasoline $2.50 per gallon, calculate farm revenues and/or avoided costs for each of the following biogas utilization options (i) CHP which is parts (c) and (d), (ii) RNG which is part (e).CHP(i) Electricity sold annually = 8,189,540 kWh/year(ii) Propane displaced annually = 11,121,380 lb/yearRevenue from electricity = 8,189,540 kWh/year × $0.10/kWh = $818,954/yearSaved cost for propane = 11,121,380 lb/year × $0.55/lb = $6,116,259/yearTotal revenue and/or avoided cost = $818,954/year + $6,116,259/year = $6,935,213/yearRNG(i) Number of GGEs produced annually = 2,260,930 GGE/yearRevenue from RNG = 2,260,930 GGE/year × $2.50/GGE = $5,652,325/yearTherefore, farm reve

About Biogas

Biogas is a gas produced by anaerobic activity which degrades organic materials. Examples of these organic materials are manure, domestic sewage, or any organic waste that can be decomposed by living things under anaerobic conditions. The main ingredients in biogas are methane and carbon dioxide.

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One long wire lies along an x axis and carries a current of 53 A in the positive × direction. A second long wire is perpendicular to the xy plane, passes through the point (0, 4.2 m, 0), and carries a current of 52 A in the positive z direction. What is the magnitude of the
resulting magnetic field at the point (0, 1.4 m, 0)?

Answers

The magnitude of the resulting magnetic field at the point (0, 1.4 m, 0) is approximately 8.87 × 10⁻⁶ T.

The magnetic field is a vector quantity and it has both magnitude and direction. The magnetic field is produced due to the moving electric charges, and it can be represented by magnetic field lines. The strength of the magnetic field is represented by the density of magnetic field lines, and the direction of the magnetic field is represented by the orientation of the magnetic field lines. The formula for the magnetic field produced by a current-carrying conductor is given byB = (μ₀/4π) (I₁ L₁) / r₁ ²B = (μ₀/4π) (I₂ L₂) / r₂

whereB is the magnetic field,μ₀ is the permeability of free space, I₁ and I₂ are the currents in the two conductors, L₁ and L₂ are the lengths of the conductors, r₁ and r₂ are the distances between the point where the magnetic field is to be found and the two conductors respectively.Given data:Current in first wire I₁ = 53 A

Current in second wire I₂ = 52 A

Distance from the first wire r₁ = 1.4 m

Distance from the second wire r₂ = 4.2 m

Formula used to find the magnetic field

B = (μ₀/4π) (I₁ L₁) / r₁ ²B = (μ₀/4π) (I₂ L₂) / r₂For the first wire: The wire lies along the x-axis and carries a current of 53 A in the positive × direction. Therefore, I₁ = 53 A, L₁ = ∞ (the wire is infinite), and r₁ = 1.4 m.

So, the magnetic field due to the first wire is,B₁ = (μ₀/4π) (I₁ L₁) / r₁ ²= (4π×10⁻⁷ × 53) / (4π × 1.4²)= (53 × 10⁻⁷) / (1.96)≈ 2.70 × 10⁻⁵ T (approximately)

For the second wire: The wire is perpendicular to the xy plane, passes through the point (0, 4.2 m, 0), and carries a current of 52 A in the positive z direction.

Therefore, I₂ = 52 A, L₂ = ∞, and r₂ = 4.2 m.

So, the magnetic field due to the second wire is,B₂ = (μ₀/4π) (I₂ L₂) / r₂= (4π×10⁻⁷ × 52) / (4π × 4.2)= (52 × 10⁻⁷) / (4.2)≈ 1.24 × 10⁻⁵ T (approximately)

The magnitude of the resulting magnetic field at the point (0, 1.4 m, 0) is the vector sum of B₁ and B₂ at that point and can be calculated as,

B = √(B₁² + B₂²)= √[(2.70 × 10⁻⁵)² + (1.24 × 10⁻⁵)²]= √(7.8735 × 10⁻¹¹)≈ 8.87 × 10⁻⁶ T (approximately)

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Set 1: Gravitation and Planetary Motion NOTE. E Nis "type-writer notation for x10" ( 2 EB - Exam 2x10") you may use either for this class AND the AP GMm mu F GMm 9 G= 6.67 11 Nm /kg F = mg 9 GMm = mg GM 12 т GM V = 1 GM 9 GM V = - 21 T F 9 = mac T 1. A whale shark has a mass of 2.0 E4 kg and the blue whale has a mass of 1.5 E5 kg a. If the two whales are 1.5 m apart, what is the gravitational force between them? b. How does the magnitude of the gravitational force between the two animals compare to the gravitational force between each and the Earth? c. Explain why objects on Earth do not seem to be attracted 2. An asteroid with a mass of 1.5 E21 kg orbits at a distance 4E8 m from a planet with a mass of 6 E24 kg a. Determine the gravitational force on the asteroid. b. Determine the gravitational force on the planet. C Determine the orbital speed of the asteroid. d Determine the time it takes for the asteroid to complete one trip around the planet 3. A 2 2 14 kg comet moves with a velocity of 25 E4 m/s through Space. The mass of the star it is orbiting is 3 E30 kg a Determine the orbital radius of the comet b. Determine the angular momentum of the comet. (assume the comet is very small compared to the star) c An astronomer determines that the orbit is not circular as the comet is observed to reach a maximum distance from the star that is double the distance found in part (a). Using conservation of angular momentum determine the speed of the comet at its farthest position 4. A satellite that rotates around the Earth once every day keeping above the same spot is called a geosynchronous orbit. If the orbit is 3.5 E7 m above the surface of the and the radius and mass of the Earth is about 6.4 E6 m and 6.0 E24 kg respectively. According to the definition of geosynchronous, what is the period of the satellite in hours? seconds? a. Determine the speed of the satellite while in orbit b. Explain satellites could be used to remotely determine the mass of unknown planets 5. Two stars are orbiting each other in a binary star system. The mass of each of the stars is 2 E20 kg and the distance from the stars to the center of their orbit is 1 E7 m. a. Determine the gravitational force between the stars.. b. Determine the orbital speed of each star

Answers

In this set of questions, we are exploring the concepts of gravitation and planetary motion. We use the formulas related to gravitational force, orbital speed, and orbital radius to solve various problems.

Firstly, we calculate the gravitational force between two whales and compare it to the gravitational force between each whale and the Earth. Then, we determine the gravitational force on an asteroid and a planet, as well as the orbital speed and time taken for an asteroid to complete one orbit.

Next, we find the orbital radius and angular momentum of a comet orbiting a star, and also calculate the speed of the comet at its farthest position. Finally, we discuss the period of a geosynchronous satellite orbiting the Earth and how satellites can be used to determine the mass of unknown planets.

a. To calculate the gravitational force between the whale shark and the blue whale, we use the formula F = GMm/r^2, where G is the gravitational constant, M and m are the masses of the two objects, and r is the distance between them. Plugging in the values, we find the gravitational force between them.

b. To compare the gravitational force between the two animals and the Earth, we calculate the gravitational force between each animal and the Earth using the same formula.

We observe that the force between the animals is much smaller compared to the force between each animal and the Earth. This is because the mass of the Earth is significantly larger than the mass of the animals, resulting in a stronger gravitational force.

c. Objects on Earth do not seem to be attracted to each other strongly because the gravitational force between them is much weaker compared to the gravitational force between each object and the Earth.

The mass of the Earth is substantially larger than the mass of individual objects on its surface, causing the gravitational force exerted by the Earth to dominate and make the gravitational force between objects on Earth negligible in comparison.

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Write a question appropriate for this exam about how much more heat radiates away from a metal teapot that contains boiling water compared to one that contains water at X degrees Celsius. Then answer the question

Answers

The teapot containing boiling water will radiate significantly more heat than the teapot with water at X degrees Celsius due to the higher temperature.

Question:

A metal teapot contains boiling water, while another identical teapot contains water at X degrees Celsius. How much more heat radiates away from the teapot with boiling water compared to the one with water at X degrees Celsius?

Answer:

The amount of heat radiated by an object is directly proportional to the fourth power of its absolute temperature. Since boiling water is at a higher temperature than water at X degrees Celsius, the teapot containing boiling water will radiate significantly more heat compared to the teapot with water at X degrees Celsius.

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1. Which of the following are conditions for simple harmonic
motion? I. The frequency must be constant. II. The restoring force
is in the opposite direction to the displacement. III. There must
be an

Answers

The conditions for simple harmonic motion are:

I. The frequency must be constant.

II. The restoring force is in the opposite direction to the displacement.

Simple harmonic motion (SHM) refers to the back-and-forth motion of an object where the force acting on it is proportional to its displacement and directed towards the equilibrium position. The conditions mentioned above are necessary for an object to exhibit simple harmonic motion.

I. The frequency must be constant:

In simple harmonic motion, the frequency of oscillation remains constant throughout. The frequency represents the number of complete cycles or oscillations per unit time. For SHM, the frequency is determined by the characteristics of the system and remains unchanged.

II. The restoring force is in the opposite direction to the displacement:

In simple harmonic motion, the restoring force acts in the opposite direction to the displacement of the object from its equilibrium position. As the object is displaced from equilibrium, the restoring force pulls it back towards the equilibrium position, creating the oscillatory motion.

III. There must be an equilibrium position:

The third condition is incomplete in the provided statement. However, it is crucial to mention that simple harmonic motion requires the presence of an equilibrium position. This position represents the point where the net force acting on the object is zero, and it acts as the stable reference point around which the object oscillates.

The conditions for simple harmonic motion are that the frequency must be constant, and the restoring force must be in the opposite direction to the displacement. Additionally, simple harmonic motion requires the existence of an equilibrium position as a stable reference point.

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Consider a collision between two blocks. The sum of the blocks' kinetic and potential energies are equal before and after the collision. True False

Answers

This statement is False.

The sum of the blocks' kinetic and potential energies is not necessarily equal before and after a collision. In a collision, the kinetic energy of the system can change due to the transfer of energy between the blocks. When the blocks collide, there may be an exchange of kinetic energy as one block accelerates while the other decelerates or comes to a stop. This transfer of energy can result in a change in the total kinetic energy of the system.

Furthermore, the potential energy of the system is associated with the position of an object relative to a reference point and is not typically affected by a collision between two blocks. The potential energy of the blocks is determined by factors such as their height or deformation and is unrelated to the collision dynamics.

Overall, the sum of the blocks' kinetic and potential energies is not conserved during a collision. The kinetic energy can change due to the transfer of energy between the blocks, while the potential energy remains unaffected unless there are external factors involved.

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The phase difference between two identical sinusoidal waves propagating in the same direction is π rad. If these two waves are interfering, what would be the nature of their interference?
A. perfectly constructive
B. perfectly destructive
C. partially constructive
D. None of the listed choices.

Answers

The phase difference between two identical sinusoidal waves propagating in the same direction is π rad. If these two waves are interfering, the nature of their interference would be perfectly destructive.So option B is correct.

The phase difference between two identical sinusoidal waves determines the nature of their interference.

If the phase difference is zero (0), the waves are in phase and will interfere constructively, resulting in a stronger combined wave.

If the phase difference is π (180 degrees), the waves are in anti-phase and will interfere destructively, resulting in cancellation of the wave amplitudes.

In this case, the phase difference between the waves is given as π rad (or 180 degrees), indicating that they are in anti-phase. Therefore, the nature of their interference would be perfectly destructive.Therefore option B is correct.

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Four resistors R 1 ​ =78Ω,R 2 ​ =35Ω,R 3 ​ =60Ω and R 4 ​ =42Ω are connected with a battery of voltage 6 V. How much is the total current in the circuit? Express your answer in amperes (A).

Answers

The total current in the circuit is 0.028 (A).

To find the total current in the circuit, we can use Ohm's Law and the concept of total resistance in a series circuit. In a series circuit, the total resistance (R_total) is the sum of the individual resistances.

Given resistors:

R1 = 78 Ω

R2 = 35 Ω

R3 = 60 Ω

R4 = 42 Ω

Total resistance (R_total) in the circuit:

R_total = R1 + R2 + R3 + R4

R_total = 78 Ω + 35 Ω + 60 Ω + 42 Ω

R_total = 215 Ω

We know that the total current (I_total) in the circuit is given by Ohm's Law:

I_total = V / R_total

where V is the voltage provided by the battery (6 V) and R_total is the total resistance.

Substituting the given values:

I_total = 6 V / 215 Ω

I_total ≈ 0.028 A

Therefore, the total current in the circuit is approximately 0.028 amperes (A).

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Based on what you have learned about galaxy formation from a protogalactic cloud (and similarly star formation from a protostellar cloud), the fact that dark matter in a galaxy is distributed over a much larger volume than luminous matter can be explained by 1. Dark matter does not emit EM radiations. II. The pressure of an ideal gas decreases when temperature drops. III. The temperature of an ideal gas decreases when its thermal energy decreases. II

Answers

Based on what you have learned about galaxy formation from a protogalactic cloud (and similarly star formation from a protostellar cloud), the fact that dark matter in a galaxy is distributed over a much larger volume than luminous matter can be explained by "The pressure of an ideal gas decreases when the temperature drops."

(II)How is this true?

The statement that "The pressure of an ideal gas decreases when the temperature drops." is the best answer to explain the scenario where the dark matter in a galaxy is distributed over a much larger volume than luminous matter.

In general, dark matter makes up about 85% of the universe's total matter, but it does not interact with electromagnetic force. As a result, it cannot be seen directly. In addition, it is referred to as cold dark matter (CDM), which means it moves at a slow pace. This is in stark contrast to the luminous matter, which is found in the disk of the galaxy, which is very concentrated and visible.

Dark matter is influenced by the pressure created by the gas and stars in a galaxy. If dark matter were to interact with luminous matter, it would collapse to form a disk in the galaxy's center. However, the pressure of the gas and stars prevents this from occurring, causing the dark matter to be spread over a much larger volume than the luminous matter.

The pressure of the gas and stars, in turn, is determined by the temperature of the gas and stars. When the temperature decreases, the pressure decreases, causing the dark matter to be distributed over a much larger volume. This explains why dark matter in a galaxy is distributed over a much larger volume than luminous matter.

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A charge +18 e moves from an
equipotential P to equipotential Q. The equipotential P and Q have
an electric potential 10 kV and 3.6 kV respectively. Find the
magnitude of the loss of electric potentia

Answers

The magnitude of the loss of electric potential is 6.4 kV.

The magnitude of the loss of electric potential (∆V) can be calculated by subtracting the electric potential at point Q from the electric potential at point P. The formula is given by:

[tex] \Delta V = V_P - V_Q [/tex]

Where ∆V represents the magnitude of the loss of electric potential, V_P is the electric potential at point P, and V_Q is the electric potential at point Q.

In this specific scenario, the electric potential at point P is 10 kV (kilovolts) and the electric potential at point Q is 3.6 kV. Substituting these values into the formula, we can determine the magnitude of the loss of electric potential.

∆V = 10 kV - 3.6 kV = 6.4 kV

Therefore, This value represents the difference in electric potential between the two equipotential points P and Q, as the charge +18 e moves from one to the other.

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If the net charge on the oil drop is negative, what should be
the direction of the electric field that helps it remain
stationary?

Answers

Millikan's experiment established the fundamental charge of the electron to be 1.592 x 10-19 coulombs, which is now defined as the elementary charge.

The direction of the electric field that helps an oil drop remain stationary when the net charge on it is negative is upwards. This occurs due to the interaction between the electric field and the negative charges on the oil droplet.

Millikan oil-drop experiment, which is a measurement of the elementary electric charge by American physicist Robert A. Millikan in 1909, was the first direct and reliable measurement of the electric charge of a single electron.

The following are some points to keep in mind during the Millikan Oil Drop Experiment:

Oil droplets are produced using an atomizer by spraying oil droplets into a container.

When oil droplets reach the top, they are visible through a microscope.

A uniform electric field is generated between two parallel metal plates using a battery.

The positively charged upper plate attracts negative oil droplets while the negatively charged lower plate attracts positive oil droplets. 

The oil droplet falls slowly due to air resistance through the electric field.

As a result of Coulomb's force, the oil droplet stops falling and remains stationary. The upward electric force balances the downward gravitational force. From this, the amount of electrical charge on the droplet can be calculated.

Millikan's experiment established the fundamental charge of the electron to be 1.592 x 10-19 coulombs, which is now defined as the elementary charge.

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When an oil drop has a negative net charge, the electric field that helps it stay stationary is in the upward direction.

Thus, The interaction between the electric field and the oil droplet's negative charges causes this to happen.

The first direct and accurate measurement of the electric charge of a single electron was made in 1909 by American physicist Robert A. Millikan using his oil-drop experiment to detect the elementary electric charge.

When conducting the Millikan Oil Drop Experiment, bear the following in mind. Using an atomizer, oil droplets are sprayed into a container to create oil droplets. Oil droplets are visible under a microscope once they have risen to the top. Between two people, a consistent electric field is created.

Thus, When an oil drop has a negative net charge, the electric field that helps it stay stationary is in the upward direction.

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A particle of mass m is at level nx = 1, ny = 1 while it is trapped in a two-dimensional infinite potential well given by: 0 < x, y < L U (x, y) = { [infinity] otherwise What is the probability to find the particle in the area defined by L/2 < x <3L/4 and 0 < y < L/4? Given an answer in percentage (%)

Answers

The probability of finding a particle in a 2D infinite potential well is directly proportional to the volume of the region that is accessible to the particle.

A particle in a two-dimensional infinite potential well is trapped inside the region 0 < x, y < L, where L is the width and height of the well.

The energy levels of a 2D particle in an infinite square well can be written as:

Ex= (n2h2/8mL2),

Ey= (m2h2/8mL2)

Where, n, m are the quantum numbers in the x and y directions respectively, h is Planck’s constant.

The quantum state of the particle can be given by the wave function:

ψ(x,y)= (2/L)1/2

sin (nxπx/L) sin (nyπy/L)

For nx = ny = 1, the wave function is given by:

ψ(1,1)= (2/L)1/2 sin (πx/L) sin (πy/L)

The probability of finding the particle in a region defined by L/2 < x < 3L/4 and 0 < y < L/4 can be calculated as:

P = ∫L/2 3L/4 ∫0 L/4 |ψ(1,1)|2 dy

dx= (2/L) ∫L/2 3L/4 sin2(πx/L) ∫0 L/4 sin2(πy/L) dy

dx= (2/L) (L/4) (L/4) ∫L/2 3L/4 sin2(πx/L)

dx= (1/8) [cos(π/2) – cos(3π/2)] = 0.25 = 25%

Therefore, the probability of finding the particle in the given region is 25%.

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In the diagram below, each unit on the horizontal axis is 9.00 cm and each unit on the vertical axis is 4.00 cm. The equipotential lines in a region of uniform electric field are indicated by the blue lines. (Note that the diagram is not drawn to scale.)Determine the magnitude of the electric field in this region.
Determine the shortest distance for which the change in potential is 3 V.

Answers

The magnitudes of the currents through R1 and R2 in Figure 1 are 0.84 A and 1.4 A, respectively.

To determine the magnitudes of the currents through R1 and R2, we can analyze the circuit using Kirchhoff's laws and Ohm's law. Let's break down the steps:

1. Calculate the total resistance (R_total) in the circuit:

  R_total = R1 + R2 + r1 + r2

  where r1 and r2 are the internal resistances of the batteries.

2. Apply Kirchhoff's voltage law (KVL) to the outer loop of the circuit:

  V1 - I1 * R_total = V2

  where V1 and V2 are the voltages of the batteries.

3. Apply Kirchhoff's current law (KCL) to the junction between R1 and R2:

  I1 = I2

4. Use Ohm's law to express the currents in terms of the resistances:

  I1 = V1 / (R1 + r1)

  I2 = V2 / (R2 + r2)

5. Substitute the expressions for I1 and I2 into the equation from step 3:

  V1 / (R1 + r1) = V2 / (R2 + r2)

6. Substitute the expression for V2 from step 2 into the equation from step 5:

  V1 / (R1 + r1) = (V1 - I1 * R_total) / (R2 + r2)

7. Solve the equation from step 6 for I1:

  I1 = (V1 * (R2 + r2)) / ((R1 + r1) * R_total + V1 * R_total)

8. Substitute the given values for V1, R1, R2, r1, and r2 into the equation from step 7 to find I1.

9. Calculate I2 using the expression I2 = I1.

10. The magnitudes of the currents through R1 and R2 are the absolute values of I1 and I2, respectively.

Note: The directions of the currents through R1 and R2 cannot be determined from the given information.

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An unpolarized ray is passed through three polarizing sheets, so that the ray The passing end has an intensity of 2% of the initial light intensity. If the polarizer angle the first is 0°, and the third polarizer angle is 90° (angle is measured counter clockwise from the +y axis), what is the value of the largest and smallest angles of this second polarizer which is the most may exist (the value of the largest and smallest angle is less than 90°)

Answers

The value of the largest and smallest angles of the second polarizer, which would allow for the observed intensity of 2% of the initial light intensity, can be determined based on the concept of Malus's law.

Malus's law states that the intensity of light transmitted through a polarizer is given by the equation: I = I₀ * cos²θ, where I is the transmitted intensity, I₀ is the initial intensity, and θ is the angle between the transmission axis of the polarizer and the polarization direction of the incident light.

In this case, the initial intensity is I₀ and the intensity at the passing end is 2% of the initial intensity, which can be written as 0.02 * I₀.

Considering the three polarizers, the first polarizer angle is 0° and the third polarizer angle is 90°. Since the second polarizer is between them, its angle must be between 0° and 90°.

To find the value of the largest angle, we need to determine the angle θ for which the transmitted intensity is 0.02 * I₀. Solving the equation 0.02 * I₀ = I₀ * cos²θ for cos²θ, we find cos²θ = 0.02.

Taking the square root of both sides, we have cosθ = √0.02. Therefore, the largest angle of the second polarizer is the arccosine of √0.02, which is approximately 81.8°.

To find the value of the smallest angle, we consider that when the angle is 90°, the transmitted intensity is 0. Therefore, the smallest angle of the second polarizer is 90°.

Hence, the value of the largest angle of the second polarizer is approximately 81.8°, and the value of the smallest angle is 90°.

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Plotting the stopping potential i.e. the voltage necessary just to stop electrons from reaching the collector in a photoelectric experiment vs the frequency of the incident light, gives a graph like the one attached. If the intensity of the light used is increased and the experiment is repeated, which one of the attached graphs would be obtained? ( The original graph is shown as a dashed line). Attachments AP 2.pdf A. Graph ( a ). B. Graph (b). c. Graph (c). D. Graph (d).

Answers

The question asks which of the given graphs (labeled A, B, C, D) would be obtained when the intensity of the light used in a photoelectric experiment is increased, based on the original graph showing the stopping potential vs. frequency of the incident light.

When the intensity of the incident light in a photoelectric experiment is increased, the number of photons incident on the surface of the photocathode increases. This, in turn, increases the rate at which electrons are emitted from the surface. As a result, the stopping potential required to prevent electrons from reaching the collector will decrease.

Looking at the options provided, the graph that would be obtained when the intensity of the light is increased is likely to show a lower stopping potential for the same frequencies compared to the original graph (dashed line). Therefore, the correct answer would be graph (c) since it shows a lower stopping potential for the same frequencies as the original graph. Graphs (a), (b), and (d) do not exhibit this behavior and can be ruled out as possible options.

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7. A 3 meter long wire carries a current of 5 A and is immersed within a uniform magnetic field B. When this wire lies along the +x axis (current in +x direction), a magnetic force 1 F₁ = (+9N1) acts on the wire, and when it lies on the +y axis (current in +y direction), the force is F₂ = (- 9N1). AA A Find the magnetic field B, expressing your answer in i, j, k notation.

Answers

The magnetic field B can be determined by analyzing the forces acting on the wire in different orientations. By considering the given forces and orientations, the magnetic field B is determined to be B = 3.6i - 3.6j + 0k T.

When the wire lies along the +x axis, a magnetic force F₁ = +9N₁ acts on the wire. Since the wire carries a current in the +x direction, we can use the right-hand rule to determine the direction of the magnetic field B. The force F₁ is directed in the -y direction, perpendicular to both the current and magnetic field, indicating that the magnetic field must point in the +z direction.

When the wire lies along the +y axis, a magnetic force F₂ = -9N₁ acts on the wire. Similarly, using the right-hand rule, we find that the force F₂ is directed in the -x direction. This implies that the magnetic field must be in the +z direction to satisfy the right-hand rule.

Since the magnetic field B has a z-component but no x- or y-components, we can express it as B = Bi + Bj + Bk. The forces F₁ and F₂ allow us to determine the magnitudes of the x- and y-components of B.

For the wire along the +x axis, the force F₁ is given by F₁ = qvB, where q is the charge, v is the velocity of charge carriers, and B is the magnetic field. The magnitude of F₁ is equal to qvB, and since the wire carries a current of 5 A, the magnitude of F₁ is given by 9N₁ = 5A * B, which leads to B = 1.8 N₁/A.

Similarly, for the wire along the +y axis, the force F₂ is given by F₂ = qvB, where q, v, and B are the same as before. The magnitude of F₂ is equal to qvB, and since the wire carries a current of 5 A, the magnitude of F₂ is given by 9N₁ = 5A * B, which leads to B = -1.8 N₁/A.

Combining the x- and y-components, we find that B = 1.8i - 1.8j + 0k N₁/A. Finally, since 1 T = 1 N₁/A·m, we can convert N₁/A to T and obtain the magnetic field B = 3.6i - 3.6j + 0k T.

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1. An 8-m-long double pipe heat exchanger is constructed of 4 -std. type M and 3 std type M copper tubing. It is used to cool unused engine oil. The exchanger takes water into the annulus at 10 ∘ C at a rate of 2.Ykg/s, which exits at 10.7 ∘ C, and oil into the pipe at 140 ∘ C at a rate of 0.2 kg/s. Determine the expected outlet temperature of the oil. Assume counter flow.

Answers

The expected outlet temperature of oil is 48.24°C.

Given Data:

Length of heat exchanger, L = 8 m

Mass flow rate of water, mw = 2.5 kg/s

Inlet temperature of water, Tw1 = 10°C

Outlet temperature of water, Tw2 = 10.7°C

Mass flow rate of oil, mo = 0.2 kg/s

Inlet temperature of oil, To1 = 140°C (T1)

Type of copper tube, Std. type M (Copper)

Therefore, the expected outlet temperature of oil can be determined by the formula for overall heat transfer coefficient and the formula for log mean temperature difference as below,

Here, U is the overall heat transfer coefficient,

A is the surface area of the heat exchanger, and

ΔTlm is the log mean temperature difference.

On solving the above equation we can determine ΔTlm.

Therefore, the temperature of the oil at the outlet can be determined using the formula as follows,

Here, To2 is the expected outlet temperature of oil.

Therefore, on substituting the above values in the equation, we get:

Thus, the expected outlet temperature of oil is 48.24°C.

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A 400-kg box is lifted vertically upward with constant velocity by means of two cables pulling at 50.0° up from the horizontal direction. What is the tension in each cable?

Answers

The tension in each cable used to lift the 400-kg box vertically upward, we can use the equilibrium condition and resolve the forces in the vertical and horizontal directions.

Let's denote the tension in each cable as T₁ and T₂.In the vertical direction, the net force is zero since the box is lifted with constant velocity. The vertical forces can be represented as:

T₁sinθ - T₂sinθ - mg = 0, where θ is the angle of the cables with the horizontal and mg is the weight of the box. In the horizontal direction, the net force is also zero:

T₁cosθ + T₂cosθ = 0

Given that the weight of the box is mg = (400 kg)(9.8 m/s²) = 3920 N and θ = 50.0°, we can solve the system of equations to find the tension in each cable:

T₁sin50.0° - T₂sin50.0° - 3920 N = 0

T₁cos50.0° + T₂cos50.0° = 0

From the second equation, we can rewrite it as:

T₂ = -T₁cot50.0°

Substituting this value into the first equation, we have:

T₁sin50.0° - (-T₁cot50.0°)sin50.0° - 3920 N = 0

Simplifying and solving for T₁:

T₁ = 3920 N / (sin50.0° - cot50.0°sin50.0°)

Using trigonometric identities and solving the expression, we find:

T₁ ≈ 2826.46 N

Finally, since T₂ = -T₁cot50.0°, we can calculate T₂:

T₂ ≈ -2826.46 N * cot50.0°

Therefore, the tension in each cable is approximately T₁ ≈ 2826.46 N and T₂ ≈ -2202.11 N.

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A parallel plate capacitor is charged to a potential of 3000 V and then isolated. Find the magnitude of the charge on the positive plate if the plates area is 0.40 m2 and the diſtance between the plate

Answers

The magnitude of the charge on the positive plate if the plates area is 0.40 m² and the diſtance between the plate is 0.0126 C.

The formula for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is

C = εA/d

Where,C = capacitance,

ε = permittivity of free space,

A = area of plates,d = distance between plates.

We can use this formula to find the capacitance of the parallel plate capacitor and then use the formula Q = CV to find the magnitude of the charge on the positive plate.

potential, V = 3000 V

area of plates, A = 0.40 m²

distance between plates, d = ?

We need to find the magnitude of the charge on the positive plate.

Let's start by finding the distance between the plates from the formula,

C = εA/d

=> d = εA/C

where, ε = permittivity of free space

= 8.85 x 10⁻¹² F/m²

C = capacitance

A = area of plates

d = distance between plates

d = εA/Cd

= (8.85 x 10⁻¹² F/m²) × (0.40 m²) / C

Now we know that Q = CV

So, Q = C × V

= 3000 × C

Q = 3000 × C

= 3000 × εA/d

= (3000 × 8.85 x 10⁻¹² F/m² × 0.40 m²) / C

Q = (3000 × 8.85 x 10⁻¹² × 0.40) / [(8.85 x 10⁻¹² × 0.40) / C]

Q = (3000 × 8.85 x 10⁻¹² × 0.40 × C) / (8.85 x 10⁻¹² × 0.40)

Q = 0.0126 C

The magnitude of the charge on the positive plate is 0.0126 C.

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Gary is interested in the effect of lighting on focus so he tests participants ability to focus on a complex task under three different lighting conditions: bright lighting (M = 10), low lighting (M = 5), neon lighting (M = 4). His results were significant, F(2, 90) = 5.6, p < .05. What can Gary conclude? O a. Bright lights make it easier to focus than low lights or neon lights. O b. Type of lighting has no effect on focus. O c. Bright lights make it more difficult to focus than low lights or neon lights. O d. Type of lighting has some effect on focus.

Answers

Based on the given information, Gary conducted an experiment to test the effect of lighting on participants' ability to focus. He compared three different lighting conditions: bright lighting, low lighting, and neon lighting. The results showed a significant effect, with an F-value of 5.6 and p-value less than 0.05. Now we need to determine what Gary can conclude from these results.

The F-value and p-value are indicators of statistical significance in an analysis of variance (ANOVA) test. In this case, the F(2, 90) value suggests that there is a significant difference in participants' ability to focus across the three lighting conditions.

Since the p-value is less than 0.05, Gary can reject the null hypothesis, which states that there is no difference in focus ability between the different lighting conditions. Therefore, he can conclude that the type of lighting does have some effect on focus.

However, the specific nature of the effect cannot be determined solely based on the information provided. The mean values indicate that participants performed best under bright lighting (M = 10), followed by low lighting (M = 5), and neon lighting (M = 4). This suggests that bright lights may make it easier to focus compared to low lights or neon lights, but further analysis or post-hoc tests would be required to provide a more definitive conclusion.

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Which of the following statements is true for a reversible process like the Carnot cycle? A. The total change in entropy is zero. B. The total change in entropy is positive. C.The total change in entropy is negative. D. The total heat flow is zero

Answers

Therefore, option A is the correct answer. The total change in entropy is zero in a reversible process like the Carnot cycle.

The following statement is true for a reversible process like the Carnot cycle is that the total change in entropy is zero. Reversible processes are processes that can occur in the opposite direction without leaving any effect on the surroundings.

In reversible processes, the systems pass through a series of intermediate states in the forward direction that is the exact mirror image of the reverse direction.

Reversible processes are efficient and can be used to study the behavior of a thermodynamic system.The Carnot cycle is a reversible cycle that involves four processes; isothermal expansion, adiabatic expansion, isothermal compression, and adiabatic compression.

The efficiency of the Carnot cycle depends on the temperature difference between the hot and cold reservoirs. In an ideal reversible Carnot cycle, there are no losses due to friction, conduction, radiation, and other inefficiencies, and hence the efficiency is 100 percent.

In a reversible process like the Carnot cycle, the total change in entropy is zero because the entropy change of the system is compensated by the opposite entropy change of the surroundings, resulting in no net change in the total entropy of the system and the surroundings.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer. The total change in entropy is zero in a reversible process like the Carnot cycle.

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Electrons are ejected from a metallic surface with speeds of up to 4.60 × 10⁵ m/s when light. with a wavelength of 625nm is used. (b) What is the cutoff frequency for this surface?

Answers

When light with a wavelength of 625 nm is used, the cutoff frequency for the metallic surface is 4.80 × 10¹⁴ Hz. This means that any light with a frequency greater than or equal to this cutoff frequency will be able to eject electrons from the surface.

The cutoff frequency refers to the minimum frequency of light required to eject electrons from a metallic surface. To find the cutoff frequency, we can use the equation:

cutoff frequency = (speed of light) / (wavelength)

First, we need to convert the wavelength from nanometers to meters. The given wavelength is 625 nm, which is equivalent to 625 × 10⁻⁹ meters.

Next, we substitute the values into the equation:

cutoff frequency = (3.00 × 10⁸ m/s) / (625 × 10⁻⁹ m)

Now, let's simplify the equation:

cutoff frequency = (3.00 × 10⁸) × (1 / (625 × 10⁻⁹))

cutoff frequency = 4.80 × 10¹⁴ Hz

Therefore, the cutoff frequency for this surface is 4.80 × 10¹⁴ Hz.

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If this wave is traveling along the x-axis from left to right
with a displacement amplitude of 0.1 m in the y direction, find the
wave equation for y as a function of x and time t.

Answers

The wave equation for the displacement y as a function of x and time t can be expressed as y(x, t) = A sin(kx - ωt),

where A represents the displacement amplitude, k is the wave number, x is the position along the x-axis, ω is the angular frequency, and t is the time.

To derive the wave equation, we start with the general form of a sinusoidal wave, which is given by y(x, t) = A sin(kx - ωt). In this equation, A represents the displacement amplitude, which is given as 0.1 m in the y direction.

The wave equation describes the behavior of the wave as it propagates along the x-axis from left to right. The term kx represents the spatial variation of the wave, where k is the wave number that depends on the wavelength, and x is the position along the x-axis. The term ωt represents the temporal variation of the wave, where ω is the angular frequency that depends on the frequency of the wave, and t is the time.

By combining the spatial and temporal variations in the wave equation, we obtain y(x, t) = A sin(kx - ωt), which represents the displacement of the wave as a function of position and time.

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A particle is incident upon a square barrier of height \( U \) and width \( L \) and has \( E=U \). What is the probability of transmission? You must show all work.

Answers

The probability of transmission is zero.

Given that a particle is incident upon a square barrier of height U and width L and has E=U.

We need to find the probability of transmission.

Let us assume that the energy of the incident particle is E.

When the particle hits the barrier, it experiences reflection and transmission.

The Schrödinger wave function is given by;ψ = Ae^ikx + Be^-ikx

Where, A and B are the amplitude of the waves.

The coefficient of transmission is given by;T = [4k1k2]/[(k1+k2)^2]

Where k1 = [2m(E-U)]^1/2/hk2

               = [2mE]^1/2/h

Since the particle has E = U.

Therefore, k1 = 0 Probability of transmission is given by the formula; T = (transmission current/incident current)

Here, the incident current is given by; Incident = hv/λ

Where v is the velocity of the particle.

λ is the de Broglie wavelength of the particleλ = h/p

                                                                            = h/mv

Therefore, Incident = hv/h/mv

                                 = mv/λ

We know that m = 150, E = U = 150, and L = 1

The de Broglie wavelength of the particle is given by; λ = h/p

                                                                                             = h/[2m(E-U)]^1/2

The coefficient of transmission is given by;T = [4k1k2]/[(k1+k2)^2]

Where k1 = [2m(E-U)]^1/2/hk2

               = [2mE]^1/2/h

Since the particle has E = U.

Therefore, k1 = 0k2

                      = [2mE]^1/2/h

                      = [2 × 150 × 1.6 × 10^-19]^1/2 /h

                      = 1.667 × 10^10 m^-1

Now, the coefficient of transmission,T = [4k1k2]/[(k1+k2)^2]

                                                              = [4 × 0 × 1.667 × 10^10]/[(0+1.667 × 10^10)^2]

                                                               = 0

Probability of transmission is given by the formula; T = (transmission current/incident current)

Here, incident current is given by; Incident = mv/λ

                                                                       = 150v/[6.626 × 10^-34 / (2 × 150 × 1.6 × 10^-19)]

Iincident = 3.323 × 10^18

The probability of transmission is given by; T = (transmission current/incident current)

                                                                           = 0/3.323 × 10^18

                                                                           = 0

Hence, the probability of transmission is zero.

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An electron has a total energy of 2.38 times its rest energy. What is the momentum of this electron? (in) Question 5 A proton has a speed of 48 km. What is the wavelength of this proton (in units of pm)? 8

Answers

(a) The momentum of the electron is 2.16 times its rest momentum.(b) The wavelength of the proton is 8246 picometers.

(a) The momentum of an electron with a total energy of 2.38 times its rest energy:

E² = (pc)² + (mc²)²

Given that the total energy is 2.38 times the rest energy, we have:

E = 2.38mc²

(2.38mc²)² = (pc)² + (mc²)²

5.6644m²c⁴ = p²c² + m²⁴

4.6644m²c⁴ = p²c²

4.6644m²c² = p²

Taking the square root of both sides:

pc = √(4.6644m²c²)

p = √(4.6644m²c²) / c

p = √4.6644m²

p = 2.16m

The momentum of the electron is 2.16 times its rest momentum.

(b)

To calculate the wavelength of a proton with a speed of 48 km/s:

λ = h / p

The momentum of the proton can be calculated using the formula:

p = mv

p = (1.6726219 × 10⁻²⁷) × (48,000)

p = 8.0333752 × 10⁻²³ kg·m/s

The wavelength using the de Broglie wavelength formula:

λ = h / p

λ = (6.62607015 × 10⁻³⁴) / (8.0333752 × 10⁻²³ )

λ ≈ 8.2462 × 10⁻¹²

λ ≈ 8246 pm

The wavelength of the proton is 8246 picometers.

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What is the focal length of a makeup mirror that produces a magnification of 1.45 when a person's face is 12.2 cm away? Think & Prepare: 1. What kind of mirror causes magnification?

Answers

The focal length of the makeup mirror is approximately 39.2 cm. The magnification of 1.45 and the distance of the object (person's face) at 12.2 cm. The positive magnification indicates an upright image.

The type of mirror that causes magnification is a concave mirror. Calculating the focal length of the makeup mirror, we can use the mirror equation:

1/f = 1/di + 1/do,

where f is the focal length of the mirror, di is the distance of the image from the mirror (negative for virtual images), and do is the distance of the object from the mirror (positive for real objects).

Magnification (m) = 1.45

Distance of the object (do) = 12.2 cm = 0.122 m

Since the magnification is positive, it indicates an upright image. For a concave mirror, the magnification is given by:

m = -di/do,

where di is the distance of the image from the mirror.

Rearranging the magnification equation, we can solve for di:

di = -m * do = -1.45 * 0.122 m = -0.1769 m

Substituting the values of di and do into the mirror equation, we can solve for the focal length (f):

1/f = 1/di + 1/do = 1/(-0.1769 m) + 1/0.122 m ≈ -5.65 m⁻¹ + 8.20 m⁻¹ = 2.55 m⁻¹

f ≈ 1/2.55 m⁻¹ ≈ 0.392 m ≈ 39.2 cm

Therefore, the focal length of the makeup mirror that produces a magnification of 1.45 when a person's face is 12.2 cm away is approximately 39.2 cm.

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