I need help pls right now

Answer:

Triangular Prism

volume 748

Answer:

73.03% probability that it will be working two days from now

Step-by-step explanation:

The machine is broken today.

If the machine is broken on a day, the following day, it has a 1-0.33 = 0.67 probability of working on the next day.

Otherwise, if it is works correctly on a day, it has a 0.76 probability of working on the next day.

Uf the machine is broken today, what is the likelihood that it will be working two days from now

Either of these outcomes are acceptable:

Tomorrow - 2 days from now

Not working - working

Working - Working

Not working - working

Today, it does not work. So tomorrow the probability of not working correctly is 0.33. Then, if tomorrow does not work, 0.67 probability of working correctly two days from now

0.33*0.67 = 0.2211

Working - Working

Today, it does not work. So tomorrow the probability of working correctly is 0.67. Then, if tomorrow works, 0.76 probability of working correctly two days from now

0.67*0.76 = 0.5092

Total

0.2211 + 0.5092 = 0.7303

73.03% probability that it will be working two days from now

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

hello

[tex]y^2-4y+6= (y+1)^2-2y-1-4y+6=(y+1)^2-6y+5=(y+1)^2-6(y+1)+11[/tex]

so

[tex]\dfrac{y^2-4y+6}{y+1}=y+1-6+\dfrac{11}{y+1}=y-5+\dfrac{11}{y+1}[/tex]

hope this helps

Answer:

[tex]-4x+28[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]18-2(x+x-5)[/tex]

[tex]18+(-2)(x)+(-2)(x)+(-2)(-5)[/tex]

[tex]18+-2x+-2x+10[/tex]

[tex]-2x-2x+10+18[/tex]

[tex]=-4x+28[/tex]

Answer:

14.4 units

Step-by-step explanation:

In Trigonometry

[tex]\cos \theta =\frac{Adjacent}{Hypotenuse}\\[/tex]

In Triangle DEF,

[tex]\cos F =\dfrac{EF}{DF}\\\cos 26^\circ =\dfrac{EF}{16}\\EF=16 \times \cos 26^\circ\\=14.4$ units (correct to the nearest tenth).[/tex]

Answer: 38 23/24

Step-by-step explanation:

Turn the mixed numbers into improper fractions

5 * 3 = 15

15 + 2 = 17

17/3

————————

6 * 8 = 48

48 + 7 = 55

55/8

————————

Now multiply the improper fractions

17/3 * 55/8

17 * 55 = 935

3 * 8 = 24

Divide 935 by 24 to get the answer as a mixed number.

935 / 24 = 38.95833

0.95833/1 = 23/24

935/24 as a mixed number is 38 23/24

Answer: 119 / 4

Step-by-step explanation:

5 2/3 x 6 7/8

= 17/3 x 6 x 7/8

= 17 x 2 x 7/8

= 17 x 2 x 7/8

= 17 x 7/4

= 119 / 4

Answer:

0.637

Step-by-step explanation:

The average value of a whole sinusoidal waveform over one complete cycle is zero as the two halves cancel each other out

Answer:

x<16

Step-by-step explanation:

number n

eight less than four times a number ... 4 x n - 8

is less than 56 ... < 56

4 x n - 8 < 56

4 x n < 56 + 8

4 x n < 64/4

n < 64 / 4

n < 16

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the number be x

Four times the number :  4x

Eight less than four times a number: 4x - 8

4x - 8 < 56

Now add 8 to both sides,

4x < 56+8

4x < 64

Divide both sides by 4,

x < 64/4

x < 16

Possible values of number = Value less than 16

Answer:

Devonte is correct because the interquartile range is less for French

Step-by-step explanation:

The first box plot at the top shows scores in Spanish, while the second box plot below it shows French scores.

Variability can be ascertain by finding out the interquartile range of a data set.

The higher the value of the IQR, the more the variability, while the lower the IQR, the less the variability.

IQR = Q3 - Q1

IQR for Spanish score = 85 - 60 = 25

IQR for French score = 80 - 65 = 20

From the above, we can say that Spanish scores has more variability when compared to French scores.

Therefore, Devonte is correct because the interquartile range is less for French, which shows that the variability in French scores is lesser than that of Devonte's Spanish scores.

Answer:

Devonte is correct because the interquartile range is less for French.

Step-by-step explanation:

The scoring range indicates the deviance from the standard values. It can only be inferred that the interquartile range is very narrow. In other words, there is less variability in the scores. Thus, a smaller quartile range means that  there is less variability in the quantity being measured. The interqurtile range is the difference in the values of the the 75th percentile and the 25th percentile of a cumulative frequency distribution curve.  

Answer:

-3

Step-by-step explanation:

a-2+3=-2

-3 -3

a-2=-5

+2 +2

a=-3

// have a great day //

Answer:

a = -3

Step-by-step explanation:

a - 2 + 3 = -2

Add like terms.

a + 1 = -2

Subtract 1 on both sides.

a = -2 - 1

a = -3

The value of a in the equation is -3.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

                              Y

p(x,y)            0          1            2

           0      0.10     0.04     0.02

x          1       0.08     0.2     0.06

            2       0.0      0.14     0.30

a) What is P(X = 1 and = 1)

From the table above we have

P(1,1) = 0.2

b)  Compute P(X ≤ 1 and Y ≤ 1).

[tex]=p(0,0)+p(0,1)+p(1,0)+p(1,1)\\\\=0.1+0.04+0.08+0.2\\\\=0.42[/tex]

C)

Let A ={X ≠ 0 and Y ≠ 0}

p{X ≠ 0 , Y ≠ 0}

= p(1,1) + p(1,2) + p(2,1) + p(2,2)

= 0.20 + 0.06 + 0.14 + 0.30

=0.7

d) The possible X values are in the figure 0,1,2

[tex]p_x(0)=p(0,0)+p(0,1)+p(0,2)\\\\=0.1+0.04+0.02\\\\=0.16\\\\p_x(1)=p(1,0)+p(1,1)+p(1,2)\\\\=0.08+0.2+0.06\\\\=0.34\\\\p_x(2)=p(2,0)+p(2,1)+p(2,2)\\\\=0.06+0.14+0.3\\\\=0.5[/tex]

The possible Y values are in the figure 0,1,2

[tex]p_y(0)=p(0,0)+p(1,0)+p(2,0)\\\\=0.1+0.08+0.06\\\\=0.24\\\\p_y(1)=p(0,1)+p(1,1)+p(2,1)\\\\=0.04+0.2+0.14\\\\=0.38\\\\p_y(2)=p(0,2)+p(1,2)+p(2,2)\\\\=0.02+0.06+0.3\\\\=0.38[/tex]

So the probability of x ≤ 1 is

[tex]p(x\leq 1)=p_x(0)+p_x(1)\\\\=0.34+0.16\\\\=0.50[/tex]

e) From the table

[tex]p_x(x=1,y=1)=p(1,1)\\\\=0.2\\\\p_x(1)=0.34\\\\p_y(1)=0.38[/tex]

we multiply both together

0.34  x 0.38

=0.1292

Therefore p(1,1) is not equal px(1), py(1)

Hence x and y are not independent it is not equal

Answer:

48

Step-by-step explanation:

L = D + 28

⅓L = ⅘D

Solve the system of equations using elimination or substitution.  Using substitution:

⅓L = ⅘(L − 28)

Multiply both sides by 15:

5L = 12(L − 28)

Distribute:

5L = 12L − 336

Combine like terms:

336 = 7L

Divide:

L = 48

Answer:

Option 2) Sin 35 = [tex]\frac{5}{x}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Sin 35 = [tex]\frac{opposite }{hypotenuse}[/tex]

Where opposite = 5' and hypotenuse = x(unknown)

=> Sin 35 = [tex]\frac{5}{x}[/tex]

Answer:

a)0.2275   b)95/105=19/21    c)10/105= 2/21

Step-by-step explanation:

a) The case "The test result is positive" consists in 2 parts.

The 1st one is "The person has the desease (15%=0.15)  and the test's  result is positive (95%=0.95)

The probability of that is P(desease, positive) = 0.15*0.95=0.1425

The 2nd one is "The person has no the desease (100%-15%=85%=0.85). However the test result is positive (10%=0.1)

The probability of that is P(not desease, positive)=0.85*0.1=0.085

The total probability that test is positive is the sum of 1st and 2-nd parts of the case: P(pos) = 0.1425+0.085=0.2275

b) As it has been shown in a) The test result can be positive in case that the person is really has the desease (95%) and in case the person has no the desease (10%).  This actually means that 95 persons from 105  having positive test result are really has the desease.

So the probability that the test result is positive and person has the desease is P (desease/positive)= 95/105

c) It's clearly seen that the sum of  probabilities of b) and c)  equal 1.

Both events make full group of events.

If the test result is positive the person can have the desease or can have not the desease. So ( no desease/positive)= 1-95/105=10/105

Answer:

The part-to-part relationship between homework help and sports

Step-by-step explanation:

Assume the table is like the one below.

[tex]\begin{array}{lcl}\textbf{Activity}& \textbf{Students} \\\text{Spanish} & 19 \\\text{Basketball} & 24 \\\text{Drama} & 15\\\text{Homework help} & 17 \\\text{Soccer} & 20 \\\end{array}[/tex]

17 students participated in homework help.  

44 students participated in basketball (24) and soccer (20), i.e. sports

Both sports and homework help are parts of the whole group of all activities.

Thus, 17:44 represents the part-to-part relationship between homework help and sports.

Explanation: Please show table.

Answer:

The probability that a randomly selected call time will be less than 30 seconds is 0.7443.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that the caller times at a customer service center has an exponential distribution with an average of 22 seconds.

Let X = caller times at a customer service center

The probability distribution (pdf) of the exponential distribution is given by;

[tex]f(x) = \lambda e^{-\lambda x} ; x > 0[/tex]

Here, [tex]\lambda[/tex] = exponential parameter

Now, the mean of the exponential distribution is given by;

Mean =  [tex]\frac{1}{\lambda}[/tex]  

So,  [tex]22=\frac{1}{\lambda}[/tex]  ⇒ [tex]\lambda=\frac{1}{22}[/tex]

SO, X ~ Exp([tex]\lambda=\frac{1}{22}[/tex])  

To find the given probability we will use cumulative distribution function (cdf) of the exponential distribution, i.e;

    [tex]P(X\leq x) = 1 - e^{-\lambda x}[/tex]  ; x > 0

Now, the probability that a randomly selected call time will be less than 30 seconds is given by = P(X < 30 seconds)

        P(X < 30)  =  [tex]1 - e^{-\frac{1}{22} \times 30}[/tex]

                         =  1 - 0.2557

                         =  0.7443

Answer:

1.36364

Step-by-step explanation:

I calculated the solution on a calculator

So the answer to 1 d.p is 1.4

Answer:

40/81.

Step-by-step explanation:

Prob(Picking a blue on one pick) = 5/(5+4) = 5/9.

Prob(Picking a red on one pick) = 4/(5+4) = 4/9.

Required probability  is either the first pick is blue OR the second pick is blue. (The other probability on one pick is of course a red marble.)

Probability of at least 1 blue = P(red)*P(blue) + P(blue)*P(red)

= 4/9 * 5/9 + 5/9*4/9

= 20/81 + 20/81

= 40/81.

Another way of solving this is by using a tree diagram.

Based on the above, the probability of getting exactly 1 blue marble is 40/81.

Scenario 1: Blue on the first draw, red on the second draw:

Scenario 2: Red on the first draw, blue on the second draw:

The probability of drawing a red marble on the first draw is 4/9. After replacing the marble, the probability of drawing a blue marble on the second draw is 5/9.

To find the total probability, one has to add the probabilities of the two scenarios:

Probability of exactly 1 blue marble = (Probability of Scenario 1) + (Probability of Scenario 2)

= (5/9) * (4/9) + (4/9) * (5/9)

= 20/81 + 20/81

= 40/81

Therefore, the probability of getting exactly 1 blue marble is 40/81.

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Answer:

The probability that 35 or more from this sample used Google Chrome as their browser is 0.9838.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that according to Statcounter, the Google Chrome browser controls 62.8% of the market share worldwide.

A random sample of 70 users was selected.

Let [tex]\hat p[/tex] = sample proportion of users who used Google Chrome as their browser.

The z-score probability distribution for the sample proportion is given by;

                              Z  =  [tex]\frac{\hat p-p}{\sqrt{\frac{\hat p(1-\hat p)}{n} } }[/tex]  ~ N(0,1)

where, [tex]\hat p[/tex] = sample proportion = [tex]\frac{35}{70}[/tex] = 0.50

            p = population proportion = 62.8%

            n = sample of users = 70

Now, the probability that 35 or more from this sample used Google Chrome as their browser is given by = P( [tex]\hat p[/tex] [tex]\geq[/tex] 0.50)

       P( [tex]\hat p[/tex] [tex]\geq[/tex] 0.50) = P( [tex]\frac{\hat p-p}{\sqrt{\frac{\hat p(1-\hat p)}{n} } }[/tex] [tex]\geq[/tex] [tex]\frac{0.50-0.628}{\sqrt{\frac{0.50(1-0.50)}{70} } }[/tex] ) = P(Z [tex]\geq[/tex] -2.14)

                           = P(Z [tex]\leq[/tex] 2.14)  = 0.9838

The above probability is calculated by looking at the value of x = 2.14 in the z table which has an area of 0.9838.

Answer:

2.4 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

If Mary is running 26 miles at a pace of 7.5 miles per hour, it will take her 3.47 hours to run the full course.

26/7.5 = 3.466666...

If she has run 8 miles, 1.07 hours have passed.

8/7.5 = 1.06666666...

Subtract the total time from the time that has already passed to find the time left.

3.47 - 1.07 = 2.4

Mary has 2.4 hours left.

Answer:

The rental of each chair is $2.75

The rental of each table is $8.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's name the unknowns "c" for the cost of each chair rental, and "t" for the cost of each table rental.

Now we can create the equations that represent the statements:

a) "The total cost to rent 2 chairs and 3 tables is $31."

2 c + 3 t = 31

b) "The total cost to rent 6 chairs and 5 tables is $59."

6 c + 5 t = 59

now we have a system of two equations and two unknowns that we proceed to solve via the elimination method by multiplying the first equation we got by "-3" so by adding it term by term to the second equation, we eliminate the variable "c" and solve for "t":

(-3) 2 c + (-3) 3 t = (-3)  31

-6 c - 9 t = -93

6 c + 5 t = 59

both these equations added give:

0 - 4 t = -34

t = 34/4 = 8.5

So each table rental is $8.5

now we find the rental price of a chair by using any of the equations:

2 c + 3 t = 31

2 c + 3 (8.5) = 31

2 c + 25.5 = 31

2 c = 5.5

c = 5.5/2

c = $2.75

Answer:

d = 234.6 m

Step-by-step explanation:

You can consider a system of coordinates with its origin at the beginning of the walk of the student.

When she start to walk, she is at (0,0)m. After her first walk, her coordinates are calculated by using the information about the incline and the distance that she traveled:

[tex]x_1=60cos28\°=52.97m\\\\y_1=60sin28\°=28.16m[/tex]

she is at the coordinates (52.97 , 28.16)m.

Next, when she walks 180m to the east, her coordinates are:

(52.97+180 , 28.16)m = (232.97 , 28.16)m

To calculate the distance from the final point of the student to the starting point you use the Pythagoras generalization for the distance between two points:

[tex]d=\sqrt{(x-x_o)^2+(y-y_o)^2}\\\\x=232.97\\\\x_o=0\\\\y=28.16\\\\y_o=0\\\\d=\sqrt{(232.97-0)^2+(28.16-0)^2}m=234.6m[/tex]

The displacement of the student on her complete trajectory was of 234.6m

Answer:

21

Step-by-step explanation:

1/5 of 30 is 6

10% of 30 is 3

3+6=9

30-9=21

which is 7/10

Answer:

Simon has 7/10 of the cakes left.

Answer:

It is only (5,24).

Step-by-step explanation:

You are correct.

Sometimes, check all options means there could be just one option.

Answer:

63 points

Step-by-step explanation:

63 points is the lowest score having 6 as "leaf" and 3 as "stem"

Answer:

63 points

Step-by-step explanation:

The lowest score is 63 with a stem of 6 and leaf of 3.

Answer:

6,4,4,4,5,7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 31-40 6 bracelets, 41-50 4 bracelets, 51-60 4 bracelets, 61-70 4 bracelets, 71-80 5 bracelets, 81-90 7 bracelets

Step-by-step explanation:

6 given numbers within 31-40

4 given numbers within 41-50

4 given numbers within 51-60

4 given numbers within 61-70

5 given numbers within 71-80

7 given numbers within 81-90

Answer:

2580 ft-lb

Step-by-step explanation:

Water leaks out of the bucket at a rate of [tex]\frac{0.15 \mathrm{lb} / \mathrm{s}}{1.5 \mathrm{ft} / \mathrm{s}}=0.1 \mathrm{lb} / \mathrm{ft}[/tex]

Work done required to pull the bucket to the top of the well is given by integral

[tex]W=\int_{a}^{b} F(x) dx[/tex]

Here, function [tex]F(x)[/tex] is the total weight of the bucket and water [tex]x[/tex] feet above the bottom of the well. That is,

[tex]F(x)=4+(42-0.1 x)[/tex]

[tex]=46-0.1x[/tex]

[tex]a[/tex] is the initial height and [tex]b[/tex] is the maximum height of well. That is,

[tex]a=0 \text { and } b=60[/tex]

Find the work done as,

[tex]W=\int_{a}^{b} F(x) d x[/tex]

[tex]=\int_{0}^{60}(46-0.1 x) dx[/tex]

[tex]&\left.=46x-0.05 x^{2}\right]_{0}^{60}[/tex]

[tex]=(2760-180)-0[[/tex]

[tex]=2580 \mathrm{ft}-\mathrm{lb} [/tex]

Hence, the work done required to pull the bucket to the top of the well is [tex]2580 \mathrm{ft}- \mathrm{lb}[/tex]

Answer: Working together, they can complete the task in 7 hours and 12 minutes.

Step-by-step explanation:

Ok, Briana needs 12 hours to complete the task.

Then we can find the ratio of work over time as:

1 task/12hours = 1/12 task per hour.

This means that she can complete 1/12 of the task per hour.

Henry needs 18 hours to complete the task, then his ratio is:

1 task/18 hours = 1/18 task per hour.

This means that he can complete 1/18 of the task in one hour.

If they work together, then the ratios can be added:

R = 1/12 + 1/18 = 18/(12*18) + 12/(18*12) = 30/216

we can reduce it to:

R = 15/108 = 5/36

So, working together, in one hour they can complete 5/36 of the task, now we can find the number of hours needed to complete the task as:

(5/36)*x = 1 task

x = 36/5 hours = 7.2 hours

knowing that an hour is 60 minutes, then 0.2 of an hour is 60*0.2 = 12 minutes.

then x = 7 hours and 12 minutes.

Answer:

Due to the higher coefficient of variation, 2009's GMAT scores show a more dispersed distribution

Step-by-step explanation:

To verify how dispersed a distribution is, we find it's coefficient of variation.

Coefficient of variation:

Mean of [tex]\mu[/tex], standard deviation of [tex]\sigma[/tex]. The coefficient is:

[tex]CV = \frac{\sigma}{\mu}[/tex]

Which year's GMAT scores show a more dispersed distribution

Whichever year has the highest coefficient.

2009:

Mean of 500, standard deviation of 90. So

[tex]CV = \frac{90}{500} = 0.18[/tex]

2010:

Mean of 570, standard deviation of 85.5. So

[tex]CV = \frac{85.5}{570} = 0.15[/tex]

Due to the higher coefficient of variation, 2009's GMAT scores show a more dispersed distribution

2009's GMAT scores show a more dispersed distribution.

Given that in 2009: Mean = 500 and standard deviation = 90.

In 2010: Mean = 570 and standard deviation = 85.5.

If the standard deviation is higher then the scores will be more dispersed.

Note that: 90 > 85.5. And 90 corresponds to 2009.

So, 2009's GMAT scores show a more dispersed distribution.

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