Helpppppppppppp!!!!!!

Answer:

60[tex]\pi[/tex] m³

Step-by-step explanation:

Use the cone volume formula, V = [tex]\pi[/tex]r²[tex]\frac{h}{3}[/tex]

If the diameter is 12 m, the radius will be 6 m.

Plug in the height and radius into the formula, and solve:

V = [tex]\pi[/tex]r²[tex]\frac{h}{3}[/tex]

V = [tex]\pi[/tex](6²)[tex]\frac{5}{y}[/tex]

V = [tex]\pi[/tex](36)[tex]\frac{5}{3}[/tex]

V = 60[tex]\pi[/tex]

So, the volume of the cone is 60[tex]\pi[/tex] m³

Answer: B

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]110\ in^2[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]1)\ A_1 = b * h_1 = 10 * 8 = 80\ in^2[/tex]

[tex]2)\ A_2 = \frac{b*h_2}{2} = \frac{10*(14-8)}{2} = \frac{10*6}{2} = \frac{60}{2} = 30\ in^2[/tex]

[tex]3)\ A = A_1 + A_2 = 80 + 30\ in^2 = 110\ in^2[/tex]

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

You have the opposite side given and the adjacent side. That means you will use the tangent.

Tan(theta) = opposite / adjacent

opposite = 6

adjacent = 3.5

Tan(theta) = 6 / 3.5

Tan(theta) = 1.714

Tan-1(1.714) = 59.74

when you get an answer over 1 from the division, you know that the angle is over 45 degrees.

Answer:

78.54 inches squared

Step-by-step explanation:

A=πr^2

π·5^2

Have a good day :)

Answer:

iiiii

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]\displaystyle (-12)^{-\frac{1}{3}}[/tex]

General Formulas and Concepts:

Algebra I

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Define

[tex]\displaystyle \frac{1}{\sqrt[3]{-12}}[/tex]

Step 2: Rewrite

Answer:

5,541.77

Step-by-step explanation:

V= πr2h

π · 142 · 9 ≈ 5541.76944

Brainliest?

Answer:

12,10,-6,-9

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-9,-6,10,12

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Probability is represented as a non-negative number between 0 and 1.

Answer:

[tex]Pr(Head) = \frac{2}{3}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The right parameters are:

[tex]Head = 12[/tex]

[tex]Toss = 18[/tex] (not 10)

Required

[tex]Pr(Head)[/tex]

The experimental probability of Head is:

[tex]Pr(Head) = \frac{Head}{Toss}[/tex]

This gives

[tex]Pr(Head) = \frac{12}{18}[/tex]

Simplify

[tex]Pr(Head) = \frac{2}{3}[/tex]

Answer:

0,5

Step-by-step explanation:

u just need to shorted it

Answer:

Option D

Step-by-step explanation:

Equation of the piecewise function,

f(x) = -x² + 2x  for x ≤ -3

        [tex]2(\frac{1}{3})^{2x}[/tex] for -3 < x < 4

         [tex]\frac{2x-5}{x-7}[/tex] for x ≥ 4

For x = -3,

f(x) = -x² + 2x

f(-3) = -(-3)² + 2(-3)

       = -9 - 6

       = -15

For x = -1

f(x) = [tex]2(\frac{1}{3})^{2x}[/tex]

f(-1) = [tex]2(\frac{1}{3})^{2(-1)}[/tex]

      = [tex]2(\frac{1}{3})^{-2}[/tex]

      = [tex]2\times 3^2[/tex]

      = 18

For x = 4

f(x) = [tex]\frac{2x-5}{x-7}[/tex]

f(4) = [tex]\frac{2(4)-5}{4-7}[/tex]

     = [tex]\frac{3}{-3}[/tex]

     = -1

Therefore, f(-3) + 2f(-1) + f(4) = -15 + 2(18) - (-1)

                                              = -15 + 36 + 1

                                              = 22

Option D will be the correct option.

Answer:

a1 =5/2

r=4

a3=ar^3-1

a3=5/2×4^2

a3=5/2×16

a3=5×8

a3=40

Answer:

78.3% which would be a C+

Step-by-step explanation:

If the project was worth 20% of your grade and you got 50% on that project, we can multiply the decimal values of these percentages together to know exactly by how much your grade will drop.

0.2 * 0.5 = 0.1 or 10%

Now, we see that your grade will drop 10%. Meaning, that from your 87% you will actually have only 90% of that which is...

87 * 0.90 = 78.3

Therefore, your grade will go down to a 78.3% which would be a C+

Answer:

It's C :D

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

38 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

angle DFE and angle F are supplementary angles which means they complete each other to 180 degrees

so the measure of DFE is

180 - 142 = 38 degrees

Answer:

x = 20 units

Step-by-step explanation:

∆KJL is a 30° - 60° - 90° triangle which means that side opposite of 30° is x, side opposite of 60° is x√3, and side opposite of 90° is 2x.

Since side opposite of 90° is 40√2 which is 2x and x is the side opposite of 30° (JL).

2x = 40√2 → 2x ÷ 2 = 40√2 ÷ 2 → x = 20√2.

∆JML is a 45° - 45° - 90° triangle which means that sides opposite of 45° are x and 90° is x√2.

Since side JL is also the side opposite of 90° and the sides opposite of 45° are the value x,

20√2 = x√2 → 20√2 ÷ √2 = x√2 ÷ √2 → 20 = x →

x = 20.

Answer:

450

Step-by-step explanation:

6% = 0.06

0.06x = 27

Divide both sides by 0.06

x = 450

Answer:

Bella is largely mistaken.

Step-by-step explanation:

What she described equals 90

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Remark

The two angles with x in them are = 90 degrees. That's because this is a right angle triangle.

Equation

x^2 + 10x + 115 = 90               Subtract 90 from both sides

Solution for x

x^2 + 10x + 115 - 90 = 0

x^2 + 10x + 25 = 0

Factor

(x + 5)(x + 5) = 0

x = - 5

Angle C

C = 10x + 115

C = 10*-5 + 115

C = -50 + 115

C = 65

Angle A (which you don't need)

x^2 = (-5)^2

x^2 = A = 25

Find BC

Cos(C) = adjacent / hypotenuse

Cos(65) =0.4226

AC = hypotenuse = 65

0.4226 = adjacent / 44   Multiply both sides by 44

44 * 0.4226 = adjacent

adjacent = 18.6 to three places.

Answer:

The probability of rolling an even number would be [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] or 50%.

Step-by-step explanation:

A standard number cube has 6 sides that features numbers 1 to 6 on each side. Since there are three even numbers (2, 4, 6) total on the sides of the number cube, that means the theoretical probability of rolling an even number would be [tex]\frac{3}{6}[/tex], which simplifies to [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] or 50%.

Answer:

8-inch pizza

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A 16-inch pizza is the better deal, because its twice the size of the 8-inch and you would have to buy two to equal a 16-inch, but it would cost more. So a 16-inch would be a better deal.  

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: x = 10 OR x = 4.

Step-by-step explanation: If x = 10 or 4 then the last step of the equation will always be multiplying by 0 which equates to 0 as well.

if x = 10

(10-10)(10-4) -> (0)(6) -> 0 x 6 = 0

if x = 4

(4-10)(4-4) -> (-6)(0) -> -6 x 0 = 0

Answer:

[tex]x = 10 \: and \: 4[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope it is helpful....

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  M R T V B K

Step-by-step explanation:

From left to right the solutions are ...

__

B: equating expressions for y

  -2x = x -3   ⇒   3 = 3x   ⇒   x = 1

R: given

  x = -2

V: filling in for y

  4x +5(2) = 10   ⇒   x = 0

T: subtracting the first from twice the second

  2(3x +y) -(-3x +2y) = 2(0) -9   ⇒   9x = -9   ⇒   x = -1

K: adding the two equations

  (2x +y) +(3x -y) = (7) +(3)   ⇒   5x = 10   ⇒   x = 2

M: equating expressions for y

  x -2 = 1/3x -6   ⇒   2/3x = -4   ⇒   x = -6

__

The solutions in order least to greatest are ...

  -6 (M), -2 (R), -1 (T), 0 (V), 1 (B), 2(K)

The passcode is MRTVBK.

_____

Additional comment

In several cases, there are variables and constants on both sides of the equal sign. The solution method is to identify the smallest variable coefficient, and add the opposite of that term. Also added at the same time is the opposite of the constant term on the other side of the equal sign. The net effect is to put the variable on one side and the constant on the other side. Then the equation is divided by the coefficient of the variable.

For example, in the first equation, -2x is the variable term with the smallest coefficient. -3 is the constant on the other side of the equation. To get from the initial expression to the next, we add 2x+3 to both sides of the equation.

Answer:

the 1st option is false; there is no 'addition' sign

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1800 m²

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the cost of constructing the path at rs 40 per sq m is rs 13760, if A is the area of the path then we have

rate × area = cost

area = cost/rate = 13760/40 = 344 m²

Now, let L = length of rectangular field and B = breadth of rectangular field. So, its area is A'= LB. Given that L = 2B, A' = 2B × B = 2B².

Also, since the width of the path is 2 m, the inner field has dimensions L - 2 - 2 = L - 4 as length and B - 2 - 2 = B - 4 as breadth since we subtract 2 m from both ends of the each dimension.

So, the inner area is (L - 4)(B - 4) = (2B - 4)(B - 4) = 2B² - 8B - 4B + 16 = 2B² - 12B + 16.

The area of the rectangular field is thus the inner area plus the area of the uniform path

So, 2B² - 12B + 16 + 344

We equate this the the area of the rectangular field. So,

2B² - 12B + 16 + 344 = 2B²

- 12B + 16 + 344 = 2B² - 2B²

- 12B + 360 = 0

- 12B = -360

B = -360/-12

B = 30 m

Since the area of the field A' = 2B²,

A' = 2(30 m)²

= 2(900 m²)

= 1800 m²

Answer: 1/6

Step-by-step explanation: Have a blessed day