Help please! Thanks to anyone who answers. I’ll give brainiest!

Answer:

11/2 is 5 1/2 this is which is 5 remainer 1 if you are a lower grade. If not then the complete form is 5.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Part A:  The first digit of the quotient would be the tens.

Part B: 23 boxes will be fillied.

Part C: 28 toy trains will be leftover.

Answer:

There would be a difference of 300 kg.

Step-by-step explanation:

If you do 1,325 minus 1,025, you would get the answer of 300 kg.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the speed of Baba Yaga is x

The distance to Bald Mountain:

The distance she actually travelled is less by 40 km:

The time she spent:

Solve for x to find the speed:

Solving the quadratic equation we get:

[tex]x-5\leq 12[/tex]

You add 5 to each side

[tex]x\leq 17[/tex]

This inequality will be correct if x is less than or equal to 17. Meaning any number less than 17 and including 17 will make the equation correct. For this reason you pick the one with a filled circle. The answer is H

Answer:

the solutions are c because, when we say x +7=81 that will give us 74 which is there on c

Answer:

$28571.43 was loaned out.

Step-by-step explanation:

2000 x 100 / 7=28571.43

Answer:

$28571.43 was loaned.

this is because

2000 x 100 / 7

=28571.43

Answer:

37

Step-by-step explanation:

If 30 questions is 79% of the test, then you would need to divide 30/0.79(79%), which equals 37 questions in total on the test.

Answer:

86

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

So this shape is made up two geometrical shapes - Triangle and a Rectangle.

So we have to find the area of Rectangle and Triangle

Area of Rectangle =

[tex]l \times b[/tex]

If we apply this to the given diagram we get,

[tex]10 \times 6 \\ = 60[/tex]

Now we have to find the area of Triangle

Area of Triangle =

[tex] \frac{1}{2} \times b \times h[/tex]

If we apply this to the given diagram we get,

[tex] \frac{1}{2} \times 7 \times 6 \\ = \frac{1}{2} \times 42 \\ = 21[/tex]

So the total area of the given figure is 60 + 21 which is equal to 81 sq.metre

Answer:

[tex]81m^{2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Area of rectangle =Length × Width

so Area of rectangle = 10 × 6=60[tex]m^{2}[/tex]

The base of triangle equals to the width of rectangle so,

Area of triangle =[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]×7×6=21[tex]m^{2}[/tex]

Then add the two areas together so , 60+21=81[tex]m^{2}[/tex]

Because it's two shapes

Answer:

VC & WC

Step-by-step explanation:

It's going to be the sides opposite the equal angles.

resultado:

-2X+12Y

Step-by-step explanation:

28X-35Y-14

8X-6X+12Y+12X-16X

-2X+12Y

Answer:

1. half angle

2. x

Step-by-step explanation:

The missing parts of the proof is the variable x.

Trigonometric functions are those functions which are the ratio of the sides of a right angled triangle.

Given,

sin² (x) = [1 - cos (2x)] / 2

We have to prove sin ([tex]\frac{x}{2}[/tex]) = ± [tex]\sqrt{\frac{1-cos (x)}{2} }[/tex]

First, we have

sin² (x) = [1 - cos (2x)] / 2

Substituting x/2 in place of x, we get,

sin² (x/2) = [1 - cos (2x/2)] / 2

sin² (x/2) =  [1 - cos (x)] / 2

sin² ([tex]\frac{x}{2}[/tex]) = [tex]{\frac{1-cos (x)}{2} }[/tex]

Taking square root on both sides,

sin ([tex]\frac{x}{2}[/tex]) = ± [tex]\sqrt{\frac{1-cos (x)}{2} }[/tex]

Hence it is proved.

Learn more about Trigonometric Functions here :

https://brainly.com/question/6904750

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Answer:

you help me i help you ok?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

your answer will be 6cm^2

Step-by-step explanation:

hope it helps you

have a great day

Answer    "v = 1.2s"

Step-by-step explanation: because 1.2 is 1*1.2, 2.4 is 2*1.2 and so on..

Answer:

A) = m

Step-by-step explanation:

ANSWER:

= 158 square inches

STEP BY STEP:

okay! so basically I like to ignore the net figure (just my personal opinion)

so we know that the rectangular prism has six sides (one top, one bottom, one front, one back, and two on each side)

so using that information, we can solve for the surface area!

FRONT AND BACK AREA:

- to solve for this area, we are going to take the 8" and multiply it by 5" to find the surface area of the front and the back panels

8*5 = 40 BUT WE HAVE TWO PANELS WITH THIS AREA

40*2 = 80

TOP AND BOTTOM AREA:

- to solve for this area, we are going to take 3" and multiply it by 8" to find the surface area of the top and bottom panels

3*8 = 24 BUT WE HAVE TWO PANELS WITH THIS AREA

24*2 = 48

SIDE AREA:

- to solve for this area, we are going to take 3" and multiply it by 5" to find the surface area of both the left and right sides

3*5 = 15 BUT WE HAVE TWO PANELS WITH THIS AREA

15*2 = 30

So now we have all of our areas and we will just add them together!

80+48+30

= 158 square inches

I hope this helped :)

Answer:

158

Step-by-step explanation:

its the right answer trust me I just can't be asked to explain it

Answer:

Isosceles right

Step-by-step explanation:

And isosceles triangle has 2 congruent sides, and since 90° is a right angles, it is a right triangle.

Answer:

isosceles acute I believe, since the two even sides are acute angles, however it could also be right since the top angle is a right angle and therefore the other two equal a right angle sorry if this didn't come in very useful

Answer:

see explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

p = x - 3 + (14*29)

substitute 7 for x

p=7-3+(14*29)

p=410

Answer:

2.13kg

Step-by-step explanation:

fnet=ma

17=m(8)

17÷8 =m

2.13=m

Answer:

The mass is 2¹/₈, or 2.125, kg

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that force is equal to mass times acceleration, so given a force of 17 newtons and an acceleration of 8m/s², we can say:

[tex]f = ma\\m = f/a\\m = \frac{17\ N}{8\ m/s^2}\\m = \frac{17\ kg\times m/s^2}{8\ m/s^2}\\m = 17/8\ kg\\m = 2.125 kg[/tex]

giving us a mass of 2¹/₈, or 2.125 kg.

Answer:Your left hand side evaluates to:

m+(−1)mn+(−1)m+(−1)mnp

and your right hand side evaluates to:

m+(−1)mn+(−1)m+np

After eliminating the common terms:

m+(−1)mn from both sides, we are left with showing:

(−1)m+(−1)mnp=(−1)m+np

If p=0, both sides are clearly equal, so assume p≠0, and we can (by cancellation) simply prove:

(−1)(−1)mn=(−1)n.

It should be clear that if m is even, we have equality (both sides are (−1)n), so we are down to the case where m is odd. In this case:

(−1)(−1)mn=(−1)−n=1(−1)n

Multiplying both sides by (−1)n then yields:

1=(−1)2n=[(−1)n]2 which is always true, no matter what n is

Answer:

12, 45, 1.8, -9, 18

Step-by-step explanation:

up up down down left right left right  b a start

Answer:

9/15 will become 3/5 and 6/15 will become 2/5.

Answer:

the probability would be a 1/3 or a 1/6 chance i think

Answer:

3 3/8

I converted the fractions in to decimals, multiplied them and then converted the decimal into a fraction.

Answer:

I'm pretty sure E

Step-by-step explanation:

think about it he traveled 70 feet in 5 minutes so he would still be below sea level