Handwritten solutions please
Question 4 (a) Derive formula for the eccentricity vector. [3 marks] Relative to a non-rotating Earth-centred Cartesian coordinate system, the position and velocity vectors of a spacecraft are r = 21,

The graph of acceleration for a ball tossed upwards would show the acceleration as a function of time. Here's how the graph would generally appear:

Initially, as the ball is tossed upwards, the graph would show a negative acceleration since the ball is experiencing a deceleration due to the opposing force of gravity.

The acceleration would gradually decrease until it reaches zero at the highest point of the ball's trajectory. This is because the ball slows down as it moves against the force of gravity until it momentarily comes to a stop.

After reaching its highest point, the ball starts descending. The graph would then show a positive acceleration, increasing in magnitude as the ball accelerates downward under the influence of gravity. The acceleration would remain constant and positive until the ball returns to the starting point.

Overall, the graph of acceleration would show a negative acceleration during the ascent, decreasing to zero at the highest point, and then a positive and constant acceleration during the descent.

To know more about acceleration , refer:

brainly.com/question/15124379

#SPJ11

The potential difference (ΔV) between the plates is given by:  ΔV = - [e * (2n + no) / ε₀] d

To find the potential between the two infinite parallel plates, we can use the concept of Gauss's Law and the principle of superposition.

Let's assume that the positively charged plate is located at x = 0, and the negatively charged plate is located at x = d. We'll also assume that the potential at infinity is zero.

First, let's consider the electric field due to the negatively charged plate. The electric field inside the region between the plates will be constant and pointing towards the positive plate. Since the electron density is uniform, the electric field due to the negative plate is given by:

E₁ = (σ₁ / ε₀)

where σ₁ is the surface charge density on the negative plate, and ε₀ is the permittivity of free space.

Similarly, the electric field due to the positive plate is given by:

E₂ = (σ₂ / ε₀)

where σ₂ is the surface charge density on the positive plate.

The total electric field between the plates is the sum of the fields due to the positive and negative plates:

E = E₂ - E₁ = [(σ₂ - σ₁) / ε₀]

Now, to find the potential difference (ΔV) between the plates, we integrate the electric field along the path between the plates:

ΔV = - ∫ E dx

Since the electric field is constant, the integral simplifies to:

ΔV = - E ∫ dx

ΔV = - E (x₂ - x₁)

ΔV = - E d

Substituting the expression for E, we have:

ΔV = - [(σ₂ - σ₁) / ε₀] d

Now, we need to relate the surface charge densities (σ₁ and σ₂) to the electron and positron densities (ne and np). Since the electron density is uniform (ne = no) and the positron density is twice the electron density (np = 2n), we can express the surface charge densities as follows:

σ₁ = -e * ne

σ₂ = +e * np

Substituting these values into the expression for ΔV:

ΔV = - [(+e * np - (-e * ne)) / ε₀] d

ΔV = - [e * (np + ne) / ε₀] d

Since ne = no and np = 2n, we can simplify further:

ΔV = - [e * (2n + no) / ε₀] d

Therefore, the , the potential difference (ΔV) between the plates is given by:

ΔV = - [e * (2n + no) / ε₀] d

To learn more about potential difference click here:

brainly.com/question/23716417

#SPJ11

At sea level, the partial pressure of oxygen in air, at 1 atm pressure is 0.21 atm.

The total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the individual gases. The pressure exerted by a single gas in a mixture of gases is called its partial pressure.According to the Dalton's Law of Partial Pressures, it can be stated that "In a mixture of gases, each gas exerts a pressure, which is equal to the pressure that the gas would exert if it alone occupied the volume occupied by the mixture.

"Atmospheric pressure at sea levelThe pressure exerted by the Earth's atmosphere at sea level is known as atmospheric pressure. It is also known as barometric pressure, and it can be measured using a barometer. At sea level, atmospheric pressure is roughly 1 atmosphere (atm).

At sea level, the partial pressure of oxygen in air is 0.21 atm, which is roughly 21 percent of the total atmospheric pressure. This indicates that the remaining 79% of the air is made up of other gases, with nitrogen accounting for the vast majority of it.

To know more about oxygen visit:

https://brainly.com/question/33311650

#SPJ11

When the hydrogen atom's spin-orbit split 2F state transitions to the spin-orbit split 2D state, the relative ratios of their intensities can be found as follows:The oscillator strength (f), which represents the transition probability from the initial state to the final state, is proportional to the transition intensity.

The ratio of the oscillator strengths is proportional to the ratio of the transition probabilities.

Therefore, the ratio of the intensities of the optical transitions can be found by comparing the oscillator strengths for the 2F to 2D transitions.

The oscillator strengths are determined by the transition matrix elements, which are represented by the bra-ket notation as:[tex]$$\begin{aligned}\langle f | r | i\rangle &=\langle 2 D | r | 2 F\rangle \\ \langle f | r | i\rangle &=\langle 2 D | r | 2 F\rangle\end{aligned}$$[/tex]

The above matrix elements can be evaluated using Wigner-Eckart theorem. According to the Wigner-Eckart theorem, the selection rule for dipole transitions is[tex]Δl = ±1, and Δm = 0, ±1.[/tex]

Using these rules, the matrix elements for the transitions can be calculated, and the ratio of the intensities is obtained as follows[tex]:$$\frac{I_{2 D}}{I_{2 F}}=\frac{\left|\left\langle 2 D\left|z\right| 2 F\right\rangle\right|^{2}}{\left|\left\langle 2 F\left|z\right| 1 S\right\rangle\right|^{2}}$$[/tex]

The ratio of the intensities of the 2F to 2D transitions is found by substituting the matrix elements into the above equation and simplifying it. This yields the desired relative ratios of the intensities.

To know more about probability visit:

https://brainly.com/question/31828911

#SPJ11

the light emitted when an electron drops from n = 2 to n = 1 in a hydrogen atom, if the ionization energy of hydrogen is 2.18 × 10-18 J?A) 4.45 × 10-7 mB) 1.22 × 10-6 mC) 8.22 × 10-8 mD) 1.65 × 10-7 m

(4.45 × 10-7 m We are given that the energy level diagram for a hydrogen atom is shown below:Energy (eV) -1.6 n-3 -3.4 n = 2 -13.6 n=1We are to determine the wavelength of the light emitted when an electron drops from n = 2 to n = 1 in a hydrogen atom and we are also given that the ionization energy of hydrogen is 2.18 × 10-18 J.Now, using the formula:Energy difference = Efinal - Einitialwhere Efinal is the final energy level and Einitial is the initial energy level of the electron.As the electron drops from n = 2 to n = 1 in a hydrogen atom, we have:Einitial = -13.6 eV (energy at n = 2)Efinal = -3.4 eV (energy at n = 1)Therefore,Energy difference = Efinal - Einitial= (-3.4) - (-13.6)= 10.2 eVConverting the energy difference to Joules,

we have:1 eV = 1.6 × 10-19 JTherefore,10.2 eV = 10.2 × 1.6 × 10-19= 1.632 × 10-18 JThe energy released when an electron drops from a higher energy level to a lower energy level is given by:E = hfwhere E is the energy of the light, h is the Planck's constant and f is the frequency of the light.Rearranging the above formula, we have:f = E/hwhere f is the frequency of the light and E is the energy of the light.Substituting E = 1.632 × 10-18 J and h = 6.626 × 10-34 J s in the above equation, we have:f = (1.632 × 10-18)/(6.626 × 10-34)f = 2.46 × 1015 HzThe velocity of light (c) is related to its frequency (f) and wavelength (λ) by the equation:c = λ fwhere c is the velocity of light, f is the frequency of the light and λ is the wavelength of the light.Rearranging the above formula, we have:λ = c/fwhere λ is the wavelength of the light, c is the velocity of light and f is the frequency of the light.Substituting c = 3 × 108 m/s and f = 2.46 × 1015 Hz in the above equation, we have:λ = (3 × 108)/(2.46 × 1015)= 1.22 × 10-7 mHence, the wavelength of the light emitted when an electron drops from n = 2 to n = 1 in a hydrogen atom is 1.22 × 10-7 m.

TO know more about that emitted visit:

https://brainly.com/question/13490538

#SPJ11

Stars with an initial mass between 10 and roughly 15 solar masses become neutron stars because of the fusion that occurs in the star's core. less massive stars do not have enough mass to cause the core to collapse and produce a neutron star, so their fate is to become a white dwarf.

When fusion stops, the core of the star collapses and produces a supernova explosion. The supernova explosion throws off the star's outer layers, leaving behind a compact core made up mostly of neutrons, which is called a neutron star. The white dwarf is the fate of stars with an initial mass of less than about 10 solar masses. When a star with a mass of less than about 10 solar masses runs out of nuclear fuel, it produces a planetary nebula. In the final stages of its life, the star will shed its outer layers, exposing its core. The core will then be left behind as a white dwarf. This is the main answer as well. The cause of this difference is determined by the mass of the star. The more massive the star, the higher the pressure and temperature within its core. As a result, fusion reactions occur at a faster rate in more massive stars. When fusion stops, the core of the star collapses, causing a supernova explosion. The remnants of the explosion are the neutron star. However, less massive stars do not have enough mass to cause the core to collapse and produce a neutron star, so their fate is to become a white dwarf.

"Stars less massive than about 10 Mo end their lives as white dwarfs, while stars with initial masses between 10 and approximately 15 M become neutron stars. Explain the cause of this difference", we can say that the mass of the star is the reason for this difference. The higher the mass of the star, the higher the pressure and temperature within its core, and the faster fusion reactions occur. When fusion stops, the core of the star collapses, causing a supernova explosion, and the remnants of the explosion are the neutron star. On the other hand, less massive stars do not have enough mass to cause the core to collapse and produce a neutron star, so their fate is to become a white dwarf.

To know more about mass visit:

brainly.com/question/14651380

#SPJ11

Given values are:Charge Q = +4.90 μCCharge q = +1.70 μCDistance between Q and q, r = 0.210 m The mass of q, m = 2.40 × 10⁻⁴ kg The electric potential energy of two point charges is given by,PE = kqQ / r where k = Coulomb constant = 9 × 10⁹ Nm²/C².

Electric potential energy of charge qSolution:Charge Q is fixed at the origin while charge q is placed at a distance of 0.210 m on the x-axis.Therefore,Distance between Q and q, r = 0.210 m The electric potential energy of charge q is given by,PE = kqQ / rPE = 9 × 10⁹ × (1.70 × 10⁻⁶) × (4.90 × 10⁻⁶) / 0.210PE = 3.81 × 10⁻⁹ J Part B: Velocity of charge q at infinity We know that,Total mechanical energy = KE + PE net= constant Initially, the velocity of charge q is zero.Therefore, the initial kinetic energy is zero.Hence,Total mechanical energy = PEnet Total mechanical energy = 3.81 × 10⁻⁹ JAt infinity, the potential energy of charge q is zero.

Therefore, the total mechanical energy is equal to the final kinetic energy of the charge q.Therefore,KEfinal= Total mechanical energy KEfinal= 3.81 × 10⁻⁹ J The final kinetic energy of the charge q is given by,KEfinal= ½mv²where v is the velocity of the charge q at infinity.Substituting the values of KEfinal, m and v, we get3.81 × 10⁻⁹ = ½ × (2.40 × 10⁻⁴) × v²v² = (3.81 × 10⁻⁹ × 2) / (2.40 × 10⁻⁴)We get,v² = 3.175 × 10⁻¹⁴The velocity of the charge q at infinity is given by,v = √(3.175 × 10⁻¹⁴) v = 1.78 × 10⁻⁷ m/s (approx)Therefore, the velocity of charge q at infinity is 1.78 × 10⁻⁷ m/s (approx).

To know more about potential energy visit:-

https://brainly.com/question/24284560

#SPJ11

The question asks to construct a diagram similar but this time assuming the assembly follows Bose-Einstein (B-E) statistics. Additionally, it requires an explanation of why the B-E statistics affect the diagram differently compared to the previous scenario.

(a) When the assembly obeys Bose-Einstein statistics, the distribution of particles among different energy states follows a different pattern than in the previous scenario. The diagram, similar to Figure 3.2, would show a different distribution of particles as the energy levels increase. Bose-Einstein statistics allow multiple particles to occupy the same energy state, leading to a different arrangement of energy levels and particle occupation.

(b) Bose-Einstein statistics, unlike classical statistics, take into account the quantum mechanical behavior of particles and their indistinguishability. It allows for the formation of a Bose-Einstein condensate, a state in which a large number of particles occupy the lowest energy state. This behavior is distinct from classical statistics or Fermi-Dirac statistics (which apply to fermions). The B-E statistics favor the accumulation of particles in the lowest energy states, leading to a condensation effect. As a result, the diagram would exhibit a significant number of particles occupying the lowest energy state, forming a condensed region. This behavior is a unique characteristic of particles that follow Bose-Einstein statistics.

Learn more about Bose-Einstein Statistics:

https://brainly.com/question/33288941

#SPJ11

The Doppler Effect refers to the change in frequency or pitch of a wave perceived by an observer due to the relative motion between the source of the wave and the observer. It is named after the Austrian physicist Christian Doppler, who first described the phenomenon in 1842.

When a wave source and an observer are in relative motion, the motion affects the perceived frequency of the wave. If the source and the observer are moving closer to each other, the perceived frequency increases, resulting in a higher pitch. This is known as the "Doppler shift to a higher frequency."

On the other hand, if the source and the observer are moving away from each other, the perceived frequency decreases, resulting in a lower pitch. This is called the "Doppler shift to a lower frequency."

The Doppler Effect occurs because the relative motion changes the effective distance between successive wave crests or compressions. When the source is moving toward the observer, the crests of the waves are "bunched up," causing an increase in frequency.

Conversely, when the source is moving away from the observer, the crests are "spread out," leading to a decrease in frequency. This change in frequency is what causes the observed shift in pitch.

In summary, the Doppler Effect is caused by the relative motion between the source of a wave and the observer, resulting in a change in the perceived frequency or pitch of the wave.

To know more about the Doppler Effect, refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/28106478#

#SPJ11

The instantaneous equation of the voltage across the coil with negligible resistance is given by e = 1885L cos(377t) where L is the inductance of the coil.

The instantaneous equation of the voltage is given by e = L di/dt where L is the inductance of the coil.

For a coil with negligible resistance, the voltage across the coil will be in phase with the current passing through it. Therefore, we can say that the instantaneous equation of the voltage across the coil is given by

e = L di/dt = L × (d/dt) (5 sin 377t)We know that, d/dt(sin x) = cos x

Therefore, d/dt (5 sin 377t) = 5 × 377 cos(377t) = 1885 cos(377t)

Voltage, e = L × (d/dt) (5 sin 377t)= L × 1885 cos(377t)

The voltage across the coil is given by

e = 1885L cos(377t)

Voltage is a sinusoidal wave and the amplitude is given by 1885L and its frequency is 377 Hz.

The instantaneous equation of the voltage across the coil is given by

e = L di/dt = L × (d/dt) (5 sin 377t)= 1885L cos(377t).

Therefore, the correct answer is O e = 1885L cos(377t).

The question requires us to find the instantaneous equation of voltage for a coil with negligible resistance taking a current of

i = 5 sin 377t A from an AC supply.

We know that voltage across an inductor, e is given by

e = L di/dt

where L is the inductance of the coil. Since the resistance of the coil is negligible, the voltage across the coil will be in phase with the current. Hence, we can write the instantaneous equation of the voltage across the coil as

e = L di/dt = L × (d/dt) (5 sin 377t).

Using the property that the derivative of sin x is cos x, we get d/dt (5 sin 377t) = 5 × 377 cos(377t) = 1885 cos(377t).

Therefore, voltage, e = L × (d/dt) (5 sin 377t) = L × 1885 cos(377t). Thus, the voltage across the coil is given by e = 1885L cos(377t).

The voltage waveform is a sinusoidal wave with an amplitude of 1885L and a frequency of 377 Hz.

Therefore, the correct answer is O e = 1885L cos(377t).

The instantaneous equation of the voltage across the coil with negligible resistance is given by e = 1885L cos(377t) where L is the inductance of the coil.

To know more about inductance visit

brainly.com/question/29981117

#SPJ11

the best cross-sectional dimensions of the open channel is D = 3.16 m (circular channel) and h = 1.83 m, b = 5.68 m (trapezoidal channel).

When the shape of the channel is circular, the hydraulic radius can be expressed as;Rh = D / 4

The discharge Q is;Q = AV

Substituting Rh and Q in Manning's formula;

V = (1/n) * Rh^(2/3) * S^(1/2)...............(1)

A = π * D² / 4V = Q / A = 120 / (π * D² / 4) = 48 / (π * D² / 1) = 48 / (0.25 * π * D²) = 192 / (π * D²)

Hence, the equation (1) can be written as;48 / (π * D²) = (1/0.018) * (D/4)^(2/3) * 0.0013^(1/2)

Solving for D, we have;

D = 3.16 m(b) Solution

When the shape of the channel is trapezoidal, the hydraulic radius can be expressed as;

Rh = (b/2) * h / (b/2 + h)

The discharge Q is;Q = AV

Substituting Rh and Q in Manning's formula;

V = (1/n) * Rh^(2/3) * S^(1/2)...............(1)A = (b/2 + h) * hV = Q / A = 120 / [(b/2 + h) * h]

Substituting the above equation and Rh in equation (1), we have;

120 / [(b/2 + h) * h] = (1/0.018) * [(b/2) * h / (b/2 + h)]^(2/3) * 0.0013^(1/2)

Solving for h and b, we get;

h = 1.83 m b = 5.68 m

Hence, the best cross-sectional dimensions of the open channel are;

D = 3.16 m (circular channel)h = 1.83 m, b = 5.68 m (trapezoidal channel).

Therefore, the best cross-sectional dimensions of the open channel is D = 3.16 m (circular channel) and h = 1.83 m, b = 5.68 m (trapezoidal channel).

learn more about dimensions here

https://brainly.com/question/27404871

#SPJ11

The unit of stress measures the amount of force per unit area on a material. The following is not the unit of stress: 27.

Therefore, the option D) 27 is the correct option that is not the unit of stress.Stress is defined as force per unit area. Mathematically, it is expressed as Stress = Force/Area. Stress is a measure of how much force is applied to an object or material per unit area. It is commonly expressed in units of Pascal (Pa), which is equal to one Newton per square meter (N/m²).

The various units of stress are as follows:Newtons per square meter (N/m²) or Pascal (Pa) - It is the most common unit used for stress.Megapascal (MPa) - 1 MPa is equivalent to 1,000,000 Pa.Kilonewton per square meter (kN/m²) - It is a unit used to measure stress in soil mechanics.Gigapascal (GPa) - It is equivalent to 1,000,000,000 Pa.What is Strain?Strain is a measure of how much deformation or change in shape occurs when a force is applied to an object or material.

Mathematically, it is expressed as Strain = Change in length/Original length. The following are the various units of strain:1) Percentage (%) - It is the most common unit used for strain.2) Parts per thousand (ppt) - It is equal to 0.1 percent or 1/1000.3) Parts per million (ppm) - It is equal to 0.0001 percent or 1/1,000,000.

To know more about unit of stress visit:

https://brainly.com/question/30460372

#SPJ11

To solve the given problem, we can use the principle of conservation of energy, which states that the total energy of an isolated system remains constant.

A) To find the mass of the water, we can use the equation:

m1 * c1 * ΔT1 = m2 * c2 * ΔT2

where m1 and m2 represent the masses of the water and soup, c1 and c2 are the specific heats, and ΔT1 and ΔT2 are the temperature changes.

Plugging in the given values:

(0.20 kg) * (4180 J/kg⋅∘C) * (34∘C - 20∘C) = m2 * (3800 J/kg⋅∘C) * (34∘C - 40∘C)

Solving for m2, the mass of the water:

m2 ≈ 0.065 kg

B) The change in thermal energy of the water can be calculated using the formula:

ΔQ = m2 * c2 * ΔT2

ΔQ = (0.065 kg) * (4180 J/kg⋅∘C) * (34∘C - 40∘C) ≈ -1611 J

C) The change in thermal energy of the soup can be determined using the equation:

ΔQ = m1 * c1 * ΔT1

ΔQ = (0.20 kg) * (3800 J/kg⋅∘C) * (34∘C - 20∘C) ≈ 1296 J

to learn more about energy click here:brainly.com/question/8630757

#SPJ11

a) The formula that can be used to calculate the location of a bright fringe on the viewing screen for a diffraction grating is:

λ = d * sin(θ)

where:

λ is the wavelength of the light,

d is the spacing between diffracting elements (grating spacing),

and θ is the angle at which the bright fringe appears.

b) To find the angle at which the third-order maximum occurs, we can use the formula:

m * λ = d * sin(θ)

where:

m is the order of the maximum (in this case, m = 3),

λ is the wavelength of the light,

d is the spacing between diffracting elements (grating spacing),

and θ is the angle at which the maximum occurs.

We can rearrange the equation to solve for θ:

θ = arcsin((m * λ) / d)

Substituting the values:

m = 3

λ = speed of light / frequency = 3 * 10^8 / (5.09 * 10^14)

d = 45 mm = 0.045 m

θ = arcsin((3 * (3 * 10^8 / (5.09 * 10^14))) / 0.045)

Calculating this value will give us the angle at which the third-order maximum occurs.

Learn more about diffraction grating

https://brainly.com/question/30409878

#SPJ11

The electrical force is exerted by the first two charges on the third one. This force can be repulsive or attractive, depending on the signs of the charges. The electrostatic force on the third charge is zero if the three charges are arranged along a straight line.

The placement of the third charge would be such that the forces exerted on it by each of the other two charges are equal and opposite. This occurs at a point where the electric fields of the two charges cancel each other out. Let's calculate the position of the third charge, step by step.Step-by-step explanation:Given data:Charge on 1st sphere, q₁ = 2.6 × 10⁻⁶ CCharge on 2nd sphere, q₂ = 7.8 × 10⁻⁶ CCharge on 3rd sphere, q₃ = 3.0 × 10⁻⁶ CDistance between two spheres, d = 4.0 mThe electrical force is given by Coulomb's law.F = kq1q2/d²where,k = 9 × 10⁹ Nm²C⁻² (Coulomb's constant)

Electric force of attraction acts if charges are opposite and the force of repulsion acts if charges are the same.Therefore, the forces of the charges on the third sphere are as follows:The force of the first sphere on the third sphere,F₁ = kq₁q₃/d²The force of the second sphere on the third sphere,F₂ = kq₂q₃/d²As the force is repulsive, therefore the two charges will repel each other and thus will create opposite forces on the third charge.Let's find the position at which the forces cancel each other out.

To know more about electrical force visit:

brainly.com/question/33289941

#SPJ11

The brake power of the motor is approximately 22.4 horsepower.

To calculate the brake power of the motor, we need to consider the flow rate, pressure, and efficiency of the pump. The flow rate is given as 150 gallons per minute (gpm), which needs to be converted to cubic feet per second (ft³/s). Since 1 gallon is approximately equal to 0.1337 ft³, the flow rate becomes 150 * 0.1337 = 20.055 ft³/s.

Next, we need to calculate the total head of the pump. The total head can be determined by adding the pressure head and the elevation head. The pressure head is the difference between the discharge pressure and the suction pressure. In this case, the discharge pressure is given as 25 psi, which is equivalent to 25 * 144 = 3600 pounds per square foot (psf). The suction pressure is 4 inHg vacuum, which is approximately -0.11 psi, or -0.11 * 144 = -15.84 psf. The pressure head is then 3600 - (-15.84) = 3615.84 psf.

The elevation head is the difference in height between the discharge and suction gauges. In this case, the discharge gauge is 2 feet above the suction gauge. Since the density of water is given as 61.21 lb/ft³, the elevation head is 2 * 61.21 = 122.42 psf.

Now, we can calculate the total head by adding the pressure head and the elevation head: 3615.84 + 122.42 = 3738.26 psf.

Finally, we can calculate the brake power of the motor using the formula:

Brake power (in horsepower) = (Flow rate * Total head * Density) / (3960 * Efficiency)

Substituting the values, we have:

Brake power = (20.055 * 3738.26 * 61.21) / (3960 * 0.75) ≈ 22.4 horsepower.

Therefore, the brake power of the motor is approximately 22.4 horsepower.

Learn more about: Power

brainly.com/question/29575208

#SPJ11

The effective current when the motor is connected to a 220 V electricity network is 1.818 cosθ.

Given, Electricity network voltage V = 220 V

Power P = 400

WE ffective current I to be found

We know, power is given by the formula,

              P = VI cosθ or I = P/V cosθ

The phase angle difference between current and voltage is not given in the question.

Hence, let us assume the phase angle difference to be θ°.

Therefore, the effective current I is given by

                                     I = P/V cosθ

                                    I = 400/220 cosθ

                                   I = 1.818 cosθ

Hence, the effective current when the motor is connected to a 220 V electricity network is 1.818 cosθ.

Learn more about electricity network

brainly.com/question/32162827

#SPJ11

Since the inverse of [N] is equal to its transpose, we have[N]−1 = [cos(a) sin(a)][-sin(a) cos(a)] = [cos(a) sin(a)][-sin(a) cos(a)]Therefore, the inverse of [N] is given by[N]−1 = [cos(a) sin(a)][-sin(a) cos(a)] = [cos(a) sin(a)][-sin(a) cos(a)]This can be simplified to[N]−1 = [cos(a) sin(a)][-sin(a) cos(a)] = [cos(a) sin(a)][-sin(a) cos(a)]

The two-dimensional rotation matrix is shown by the equation[N(a)]

=cos(a) -sin(a)sin(a) cos(a)

The determinant of N is unity as det[N]

=1.Therefore, the determinant of [N] is given by det[N]

=cos(a)*cos(a)+sin(a)*sin(a)

=cos2(a)+sin2(a)

=1since cos2(a)+sin2(a)

=1.

The inverse of [N] defined over the equation [N][N]

= [N][N]

= [1]

Where [1] is the identity matrix.To calculate the inverse of [N], we write[N][N]

= [cos(a) -sin(a)][cos(a) sin(a)] [sin(a) cos(a)] [-sin(a) cos(a)]

= [1]Solving this equation for N, we get[N]−1

= [cos(a) sin(a)][-sin(a) cos(a)]

= [cos(a) sin(a)][-sin(a) cos(a)]We have[N][N]

= [cos(a) -sin(a)][sin(a) cos(a)] [cos(a) sin(a)] [-sin(a) cos(a)]

= [1]Multiplying the left-hand side of the equation by [N]−1[N] gives[N][N]−1[N]

= [1] [N]−1[N]

= [1].

Since the inverse of [N] is equal to its transpose, we have[N]−1

= [cos(a) sin(a)][-sin(a) cos(a)]

= [cos(a) sin(a)][-sin(a) cos(a)]

Therefore, the inverse of [N] is given by[N]−1

= [cos(a) sin(a)][-sin(a) cos(a)]

= [cos(a) sin(a)][-sin(a) cos(a)]

This can be simplified to[N]−1

= [cos(a) sin(a)][-sin(a) cos(a)]

= [cos(a) sin(a)][-sin(a) cos(a)]

To know more about inverse visit:

https://brainly.com/question/30339780

#SPJ11

The conduction of current on the postsynaptic neuron in an electrical synapse occurs through direct flow of ions between the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons.

In electrical synapses, the conduction of current on the postsynaptic neuron occurs through direct flow of ions between the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons. These synapses are formed by specialized structures called gap junctions, which create channels between the cells, allowing ions to pass through. The channels are formed by connexin proteins that span the plasma membranes of adjacent neurons.

When an action potential reaches the presynaptic neuron, it depolarizes the cell membrane and triggers the opening of voltage-gated ion channels. This results in the influx of positively charged ions, such as sodium (Na+), into the presynaptic neuron. As a result, the electrical potential of the presynaptic neuron becomes more positive.

Due to the direct connection provided by the gap junctions, these positive ions can flow through the channels into the postsynaptic neuron. This movement of ions generates an electrical current that spreads across the postsynaptic neuron. The current causes depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane, leading to the initiation of an action potential in the postsynaptic neuron.

The strength of the electrical synapse is determined by the size of the gap junctions and the number of connexin proteins present. The larger the gap junctions and the more connexin proteins, the more ions can pass through, resulting in a stronger electrical coupling between the neurons.

at electrical synapses, the conduction of current on the postsynaptic neuron occurs through the direct flow of ions between the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons via specialized gap junctions. This direct electrical coupling allows for rapid and synchronized transmission of signals. Electrical synapses are particularly important in neural circuits that require fast and coordinated communication, such as in reflex arcs or the synchronization of cardiac muscle cells.

To know more about Electrical synapses , visit:- brainly.com/question/29608633

#SPJ11

According to the principle of conservation of crystal momentum and the concept of exchange of phonons, it is possible to form Cooper pairs in a conventional superconductor.

The principle of conservation of crystal momentum states that in a perfect crystal lattice, the total momentum of the system remains constant in the absence of external forces. This principle applies to the individual electrons in the crystal lattice as well. However, in a conventional superconductor, the formation of Cooper pairs allows for a deviation from this conservation principle.

Cooper pairs are formed through an interaction mediated by lattice vibrations called phonons. When an electron moves through the crystal lattice, it induces lattice vibrations. These lattice vibrations create a disturbance in the crystal lattice, which is transmitted to neighboring lattice sites through the exchange of phonons.

Due to the attractive interaction between electrons and lattice vibrations, an electron with slightly higher energy can couple with a lower-energy electron, forming a bound state known as a Cooper pair. This coupling is facilitated by the exchange of phonons, which effectively allows for the transfer of momentum between electrons.

The exchange of phonons enables the conservation of crystal momentum in a superconductor. While individual electrons may gain or lose momentum as they interact with phonons, the overall momentum of the Cooper pair system remains constant. This conservation principle allows for the formation and stability of Cooper pairs in a conventional superconductor.

The principle of conservation of crystal momentum and the concept of exchange of phonons provide a theoretical basis for the formation of Cooper pairs in conventional superconductors. Through the exchange of lattice vibrations (phonons), electrons with slightly different momenta can form bound pairs that exhibit properties of superconductivity. This explanation is consistent with the observed behavior of conventional superconductors, where Cooper pairs play a crucial role in the phenomenon of zero electrical resistance.

To know more about momentum visit,

https://brainly.com/question/1042017

#SPJ11

During take-off, an aircraft accelerates horizontally in a straight line at a rate A. A small bob of mass m is suspended on a string attached to the roof of the cabin, and a hydrogen balloon (total mass M) is held by the string.

a) Draw a force diagram for the bob and the balloon.

b) Derive an expression for the tension in the string, in terms of m, M and A.

a) Force diagram for bob: Let T be the tension in the string. Then, the forces acting on the bob are tension T and weight W = mg. Force diagram for the balloon: Let T be the tension in the string. Then, the forces acting on the balloon are tension T and weight W = Mg. Both diagrams should have the horizontal force T in the same direction as acceleration A.

b) The net force acting on the bob is F = T - mg, and the net force acting on the balloon is F = T - Mg. These forces are caused by the horizontal acceleration A. Thus, F = MA = T - mg and F = MA = T - Mg. Equating these two expressions gives T - mg = T - Mg, and solving for T gives T = Mg - mg = (M-m)g. Therefore, the tension in the string is T = (M-m)g.

This result makes sense since the tension should increase as the difference between M and m increases. For example, if m is much larger than M, then the tension will be close to mg, which is the tension in the string for the bob alone. On the other hand, if M is much larger than m, then the tension will be close to Mg, which is the tension in the string for the balloon alone. The tension is also proportional to g, which makes sense since the weight of the objects determines the tension.

To know more about horizontally visit :

https://brainly.com/question/29019854

#SPJ11

It is given that a point source that emits gamma radiation of energy 8 MeV, and we are required to calculate the number of relaxation lengths of lead needed to decrease the exposure rate 1 m from the source.

So, the first step will be to find the relaxation length of the given source of energy by using the formula: [tex]$${{X}_{0}}=\frac{E}{{{Z}_{1}}{{Z}_{2}}\alpha \rho }$$[/tex]

Where, E is the energy of the gamma radiation, Z1 is the atomic number of the absorber, Z2 is the atomic number of the gamma ray, α is the fine structure constant and ρ is the density of the absorber.

Then, putting the values of the above-given formula, we get; [tex]$${{X}_{0}}=\frac{8MeV}{{{\left( 82 \right)}^{2}}\times 7\times {{10}^{-3}}\times 2.7g/c{{m}^{3}}}\\=0.168cm$$[/tex]

Now, we can use the formula of exposure rate which is given as; [tex]$${{\dot{X}}_{r}}={{\dot{N}}_{\gamma }}\frac{{{\sigma }_{\gamma }}\rho }{{{X}_{0}}}\exp (-\frac{x}{{{X}_{0}}})$$[/tex]

where,[tex]$${{\dot{N}}_{\gamma }}$$[/tex] is the number of photons emitted per second by the source [tex]$${{\sigma }_{\gamma }}$$[/tex]

is the photon interaction cross-section for the medium we are interested inρ is the density of the medium under consideration x is the thickness of the medium in cm

[tex]$$\exp (-\frac{x}{{{X}_{0}}})$$[/tex] is the fractional attenuation of the gamma rays within the mediumTherefore, the number of relaxation lengths will be found out by using the following formula;

[tex]$$\exp (-\frac{x}{{{X}_{0}}})=\frac{{{\dot{X}}}_{r}}{{{\dot{X}}}_{r,0}}$$\\\\ \\$${{\dot{X}}}_{r,0}$$[/tex]

= the exposure rate at x = 0.

Hence, putting the values of the above-given formula, we get

[tex]$$\exp (-\frac{x}{{{X}_{0}}})=\frac{1\;mrad/h}{36\;mrad/h\\}\\=0.028$$[/tex]

Taking natural logs on both sides, we get

[tex]$$-\frac{x}{{{X}_{0}}}=ln\left( 0.028 \right)$$[/tex]

Therefore

[tex]$$x=4.07\;{{X}_{0}}=0.686cm$$[/tex]

Hence, the number of relaxation lengths required will be;

[tex]$$\frac{0.686}{0.168}\\=4.083$$[/tex]

The calculation of relaxation length and number of relaxation lengths is given above. Gamma rays are energetic photons of ionizing radiation which is dangerous for human beings. Hence it is important to decrease the exposure rate of gamma rays. For this purpose, lead is used which is a good absorber of gamma rays. In the given problem, we have calculated the number of relaxation lengths of lead required to decrease the exposure rate from the gamma rays of energy 8 MeV.

The calculation is done by first finding the relaxation length of the given source of energy. Then the formula of exposure rate was used to find the number of relaxation lengths required. Hence, the solution of the given problem is that 4.083 relaxation lengths of lead are required to decrease the exposure rate of gamma rays of energy 8 MeV to 1 m from the source

Therefore, the answer to the given question is that 4.083 relaxation lengths of lead are required to decrease the exposure rate of gamma rays of energy 8 MeV to 1 m from the source.

Learn more about gamma radiation here:

brainly.com/question/29855186

#SPJ11

The answer is False. Explanation: Before pulling into an intersection with limited visibility, check your longest sight distance last and not the shortest sight distance.

As it is more than 100 feet B the intersection. Therefore, we can conclude that the correct option is false.In general, you should always check your visibility before turning at an intersection.

You should always be aware of all traffic signs and signals in the area. If you can't see the intersection properly, slow down or stop to avoid an accident.

To know more about answer visit:

https://brainly.com/question/21212046

#SPJ11

It's false that you should check your shortest sight distance last when approaching an intersection with limited visibility. This should actually be the first place you check as it's crucial for spotting any immediate potential hazards.

The statement is false. When approaching an intersection with limited visibility, it's vital to first check the shortest sight distance. This allows you to quickly react if there's a vehicle, pedestrian or any potential hazard within this distance. The logic behind this is that shorter sight distances are associated with immediate threats whilst longer sight distances give you more time to respond. Therefore, always ensure that the closest areas to your vehicle are clear before checking further down the road.

https://brainly.com/question/33417376

#SPJ12

The efficiency for P-32 is given as 30%. Hence the total activity would be;[tex]Activity= \frac{Counting}{Efficiency}[/tex][tex]Activity=\frac{15,000}{0.3}=50,000dpm[/tex]a) dpm is the activity measured in disintegrations per minute.

The number of counts per minute for the radioactive decay of a sample is referred to as the activity of the sample. b) Activity is the quantity of radioactive decay that occurs in a sample per unit time. Bq is the unit of measurement for radioactivity in the International System of Units (SI). It stands for Becquerel (Bq), which is equal to one disintegration per second. 1 Bq is equivalent to 1/60th of a disintegration per minute (dpm), which is the conventional unit of measurement for radioactivity.

C) uCi is the abbreviation for microcurie. Curie is the measurement unit for radioactivity. One curie is equivalent to 3.7 x 10^10 disintegrations per second. One microcurie (uCi) is equivalent to one millionth of a curie (Ci) or 37,000 disintegrations per second.

Therefore,0.02 uCi= (0.02/1,000,000) curie= 7.4 x 10^(-8) curie= 2.7 x 10^(-6) Bq. Answer: Activity is 50,000 dpm and 0.02 uCi.

To know more about efficiency visit:

https://brainly.com/question/30861596

#SPJ11

When modeling a crane runway beam, it is typically more appropriate to consider it as a simple-span beam rather than a cantilever beam. A crane runway beam is typically supported at both ends, and the load from the crane and the moving trolley is distributed along the length of the beam.

To properly model the crane runway beam, you need to consider the following aspects:

The crane runway beam is supported at both ends, usually by columns or vertical supports. These supports provide the necessary resistance to vertical and horizontal loads. The type of supports will depend on the specific design and structural requirements of the crane system and the building structure.

The crane runway beam is subjected to various loadings, including the weight of the crane, trolley, and any additional loads that may be lifted. The weight of the beam itself should also be considered. Additionally, dynamic loads caused by the movement of the crane and trolley should be taken into account.

To determine the appropriate dimensions and reinforcement of the crane runway beam, you need to perform a structural analysis. This analysis involves calculating the reactions at the supports, shear forces, and bending moments along the length of the beam.

Consulting a structural engineer or referring to relevant structural design codes and standards specific to your location is highly recommended to ensure the safe and accurate design of the crane runway beam.

Learn more about dimensions on:

https://brainly.com/question/31460047

#SPJ4

In an elastic collision, the kinetic energy is conserved. An elastic collision is a collision in which the total kinetic energy is conserved.

C is the corrent answer .

In the absence of external forces, the total momentum of the system of two moving objects is conserved in elastic collisions. As a result, there is no net loss or gain in total kinetic energy during this type of collision.During an elastic collision, the objects collide and bounce off one another. During the collision, the kinetic energy is transferred between the two objects, causing one object to slow down and the other to speed up. But the total kinetic energy is conserved.

Inelastic Collision:In inelastic collisions, the total kinetic energy of the two objects is not conserved. When objects collide in an inelastic collision, the total kinetic energy is converted to other forms of energy, such as heat and sound energy. During this collision, the objects stick together. The total momentum of the system is conserved, but not the total kinetic energy. Some of the kinetic energy is converted into other forms of energy, such as heat and sound energy. The objects will move together with the same velocity after the collision, so their final velocity is the same.

To know more about kinetic energy visit :

https://brainly.com/question/30107920

#SPJ11

The ratio of input frequency to natural frequency plays a significant role in determining the extent of vibration transmission in a system. When the input frequency is close to the natural frequency of the system, resonance occurs, leading to a higher level of vibration transmission.

Resonance happens when the input frequency matches or is very close to the natural frequency of the system. At this point, the system's response to the input force becomes amplified, resulting in increased vibration amplitudes. This phenomenon is similar to pushing a swing at its natural frequency, causing it to swing higher and higher with each push.
On the other hand, when the input frequency is significantly different from the natural frequency, the system's response is relatively low. The system is less responsive to the input force, and therefore, vibration transmission is reduced.
To summarize, the closer the ratio of the input frequency to the natural frequency is to 1, the more pronounced the vibration transmission will be due to resonance. Conversely, when the ratio is far from 1, the system's response is minimized, resulting in reduced vibration transmission.

To learn more about, Resonance, click here, https://brainly.com/question/33217735

#SPJ11

The vorticity is calculated by the formula:[tex]\[{\omega _z} = \left( {\frac{{\partial V}}{{\partial x}} - \frac{{\partial U}}{{\partial y}}} \right)\][/tex]

Where U and V are the velocities in the x and y directions, respectively. In this scenario, we have: [tex]\[\frac{{\partial V}}{{\partial x}} = 0\]\[\frac{{\partial U}}{{\partial y}} = 1\][/tex]

Therefore,[tex]\[{\omega _z} = \left( {\frac{{\partial V}}{{\partial x}} - \frac{{\partial U}}{{\partial y}}} \right) = - 1\][/tex]

Thus, the vorticity of the given flow is -1.

We know that the vorticity is defined as the curl of the velocity field:

[tex]\[\overrightarrow{\omega }=\nabla \times \overrightarrow{v}\][/tex]

We are given the velocity field of the fluid as follows:

[tex]\[\overrightarrow{v}=y\widehat{i}+(x-y)\widehat{j}\][/tex]

We are required to calculate the vorticity of the given flow.

Using the curl formula for 2D flows, we can write: [tex]\[\nabla \times \overrightarrow{v}=\left(\frac{\partial }{\partial x}\widehat{i}+\frac{\partial }{\partial y}\widehat{j}\right)\times (y\widehat{i}+(x-y)\widehat{j})\]\[\nabla \times \overrightarrow{v}=\left(\frac{\partial }{\partial x}\times y\widehat{i}\right)+\left(\frac{\partial }{\partial x}\times (x-y)\widehat{j}\right)+\left(\frac{\partial }{\partial y}\times y\widehat{i}\right)+\left(\frac{\partial }{\partial y}\times (x-y)\widehat{j}\right)\][/tex]

Now, using the identities: [tex]\[\frac{\partial }{\partial x}\times f(x,y)\widehat{k}=-\frac{\partial }{\partial y}\times f(x,y)\widehat{k}\]and,\[\frac{\partial }{\partial x}\times f(x,y)\widehat{k}+\frac{\partial }{\partial y}\times f(x,y)\widehat{k}=\nabla \times f(x,y)\widehat{k}\][/tex]

We have: [tex]\[\nabla \times \overrightarrow{v}=\left(-\frac{\partial }{\partial y}\times y\widehat{k}\right)+\left(-\frac{\partial }{\partial x}\times (x-y)\widehat{k}\right)\][/tex]

Simplifying this, we get:[tex]\[\nabla \times \overrightarrow{v}=(-1)\widehat{k}\][/tex]

Therefore, the vorticity of the given flow is -1.

To know more about vorticity visit :

https://brainly.com/question/31838334

#SPJ11

Diameter of rod, d = 1 cm = 0.01 m Initial temperature of rod, T1 = 300 °C. Heat transfer coefficient, h = 100 W/m²K Temperature of surrounding oil, T∞ = 30 °C

The thermal properties of steel are: Specific heat of steel, Cp = 0.5 kJ/kgK. Density of steel, ρ = 7800 kg/m³Thermal conductivity of steel, k = 43 W/mK. Now we have to calculate the temperature in the center of the rod after 2 minutes of exposure. To calculate this we have to use the formula for unsteady heat transfer in cylindrical coordinates, the formula is given below:[tex]q=-[2πkL/hln(ri/ro)]∫[0]^[t](T(r,t)-T∞)dt[/tex]

By solving the above formula we will get the value of q which will be used in further calculations. For that we have to put all the given values in the formula, so we get

[tex]q=-[2π(43)(0.01)/(100ln(0.5/0.01))]∫[0]^[120](T(r,t)-30)dt[/tex]

The integral can be simplified as:[tex]∫[0]^[120](T(r,t)-30)dt = T(r,t) * t ︸ t = 120 - (T(r,t) - 30)/(300 - 30) * 120 ︸ t = 0[/tex]

to solve the integral, now our formula will be,

[tex]q=-[2π(43)(0.01)/(100ln(0.5/0.01))] [T(r,t) * t - (T(r,t) - 30)/(300 - 30) * t²/2][/tex]Now we can take the Laplace transform of q with respect to time to get the temperature T(r,s), the formula is given below:

[tex]T(r,s)=[Ti−T∞+s(0)×Cp×ρ×V×exp(−s×V×ρ×Cp/2hA)]/[1+V×s×ρ×Cp/(3hA)][/tex]Now we can put the values in the above formula and solve it, so we get,

[tex]T(r,s) = [300 - 30 + s(0) * 0.5 * 7800 * 3.14 * 0.005² * exp(-s * 3.14 * 0.005² * 7800 * 0.5 / 2 * 100) / 100] / [1 + 3.14 * 0.005² * 7800 * s / (3 * 100)][/tex]Now we can solve this equation to get the value of s, by equating it to lumped capacitance model. The formula for lumped capacitance model is given below:[tex]T(r,t) - T∞ = [Ti - T∞] * exp(-ht/(ρVcp))[/tex]

The equation can be simplified by substituting all the values, so we get,[tex]T(r, t) - 30 = (300 - 30) * exp(-100 * 3.14 * 0.005 / (2 * 7800 * 0.5 * 0.5 * 0.5 * 3.14 * 0.005))[/tex]Finally by solving this equation we get, T(r, t) = 63.57°C

Therefore, the temperature in the center of the rod after 2 minutes of exposure is 63.57°C.

To learn more about Heat transfer coefficient visit:

brainly.com/question/13088479

#SPJ11

Regarding single-speed bay service layout, the following statement is true: A good working area around a vehicle is necessary.

Also, the equipment is distributed along a line with a continuous flow of vehicles move along the line. The service layout is designed to achieve continuous repeating of certain types of servicing work. The Single-Speed Bay Service Layout The single-speed bay service layout is designed to achieve a continuous flow of certain types of servicing work.

The layout is achieved through a continuous flow of vehicles moving along the line with the equipment distributed along the line. The continuous flow of work is designed to increase efficiency and minimize downtime in-between jobs.The vehicles move along the line and stop in designated areas where the services can be performed. The layout is necessary to ensure that the vehicles move smoothly and without obstruction throughout the service area.

To know more about layout visit:

https://brainly.com/question/1327497

#SPJ11