Answer:
Fixed overhead allocated to ending inventory= $96,000
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Production= 48,000
Sales= 40,000
Fixed manufacturing overhead= $576,000
First, we need to calculate the unitary fixed manufacturing overhead:
Unitary fixed manufacturing overhead= 576,000/48,000= $12
Fixed overhead allocated to ending inventory= 12*8,000= $96,000
Packard Corporation transferred its 100 percent interest to State Company as part of a complete liquidation of the company. In the exchange, Packard received land with a fair market value of $380,000. Packard's basis in the State stock was $740,000. The land had a basis to State Company of $562,000. What amount of loss does State recognize in the exchange and what is Packard's basis in the land it receives
Answer:
No loss recognized by State and a basis in the land of $562,000 to Packard.
Explanation:
Given that:
Percentage amount transferred by Packard Corporation = 100%
In exchange ;
Packard received land with a fair market value of $380,000
Packard's basis in the State stock was $740,000
The land had a basis to State Company of $562,000
We are to determine What amount of loss does State recognize in the exchange and what is Packard's basis in the land it receives.
Since there is complete liquidation of the state's company.
The state will not recognize any amount of loss due to the fact that the complete liquidation is tax-deferred to Packard Corporation.
Similarly, Packard's basis in the land is equal to State's basis in the land.
Thus;
In present case, The State Company has basis of $562000; Hence; $562000 is the basis in the land for Packard's.
Greenleaf Company uses a sales journal, purchases journal, cash receipts journal, cash payments journal, and general journal. Journalize the following transactions that should be recorded in the cash payments journal.
June 3 Issued Check No. 380 to Skipp Corp. to buy office supplies for $615.
5 Purchased merchandise for $7,000 on credit from Buck Co., terms n/15.
20 Issued Check No. 381 for $7,000 to Buck Co. to pay for the purchase of June 5.
23 Paid salary of $8,600 to T. Bourne by issuing Check No. 382.
26 Issued Check No. 383 for $11,750 to pay off a note payable to UT Bank.
Date Ck. No Payee Account debited Cash Inventory Other Accounts
Cr. Cr. accounts payable
Dr. Dr.
Answer:
Greenleaf CompanyCash Payments Journal:Date Description Debit Credit
June 3 Office Supplies $615
Cash Account $615
To record the issue of check No. 380 to Skipp Corp for office supplies.
June 20 Accounts Payable (Buck Co.) $7,000
Cash Account $7,000
To record the issue of check No. 381 to Buck Co for inventory.
June 23 Salary (T. Bourne) $8,600
Cash Account $8,600
To record the issue of check No. 382 for salary to T. Bourne.
June 26 Note Payable (UT Bank) $11,750
Cash Account $11,750
To record the issue of check No. 383 to pay off a note payable.
Explanation:
A cash payments journal is one of the specialized journals that can be used to initiate the recording of a business transaction, especially with regard to cash payments. Like all journals, it shows the account to be debited and the one to be credited in the general ledger.
blanchard company manufactures a signle product that sells for $104 per unit and whose total viarable costs are $78 per unit. The company's annual fixed costs are $369200. Management targets an annual pretax income of $650000. Assume that fixed cost remains at $369200
(1) Compute the unit sales to earn the target income.
(2) Compute the dollar sales to earn the target income.
Answer:
Instructions are below.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Selling price= $104 per unit
Unitary variable cost= $78
Fixed costs= $369,200.
Management targets an annual pretax income of $650,000.
First, we need to calculate the number of units required to reach the objective. We will use the following formula:
Break-even point in units= (fixed costs + desired profit)/ contribution margin per unit
Break-even point in units= (369,200 + 650,000) / (104 - 78)
Break-even point in units= 39,200 units
Now, the sales in dollars required:
Break-even point (dollars)= (fixed costs + desired profit)/ contribution margin ratio
Break-even point (dollars)= 1,019,200 / (26/104)
Break-even point (dollars)= $4,076,800
Stocks A and B each have an expected return of 15%, a standard deviation of 20%, and a beta of 1.2. The returns on the two stocks have a correlation coefficient of 0.6. Your portfolio consists of 50% A and 50% B. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. The portfolio's expected return is 15%.
B. The portfolio's standard deviation is greater than 20%.
C. The portfolio's beta is greater than 1.2.
D. The portfolio's standard deviation is 20%.
E. The portfolio's beta is less than 1.2.
Answer:
The correct answer is option (A) The portfolio's expected return is 15%
Explanation:
Solution
Given that:
Both Stock A and B have a return expected to be =15%
Standard deviation of =20%
Beta = 1.2
Correlation coefficient = 0.6
Now,
The expected return of the portfolio is computed as follows:
Expected return (ERp) = (ERₐ * Wₐ) +(ERb * Wb)
Expected return (ERp) = (15% *50%) +(15%* 50 %)
Expected return (ERp) = (0.075) + (0.075)
Expected return (ERp) =0.15 or 15%
Expected return (ERp) = 15%
1. Moss County Bank agrees to lend the Sadowski Brick Company $500,000 on January 1. Sadowski Brick Company signs a $500,000, 6%, 9-month note. What is the adjusting entry required if Sadowski Brick Company prepares financial statements on June 30
Answer:
Debit interest expenses for $15,000
Credit interest payable for $15,000
Explanation:
Since January 1 to June 30 is 6 months, we need to calculate interest expenses for the 6 months as follows:
Monthly interest expenses = ($500,000 * 6%) / 12 = $2,500
Interest expenses for 6 months = $2,500 * 6 = $15,000
The adjusting entry required will therefore look as follws:
Date Particulars Dr ($) Cr ($)
June 30 Interest expenses 15,000
Interest payable 15,000
(To record 6 months interest payable on note.)
During the period, Sanchez Company sold some excess equipment at a loss. The following information was collected from the company's accounting records:
From the Income Statement:
Depreciation expense $860
Loss on sale of equipment 2,800
From the Balance Sheet:
Beginning equipment 20,000
Ending equipment 10,200
Beginning accumulated depreciation 1,950
Ending accumulated depreciation 1,790
No new equipment was bought during the period.
1) For the equipment that was sold, determine its original cost, its accumulated depreciation, and the cash received from the sale.
2) Sanchez Company uses the indirect method for the Operating Activities section of the cash flow statement. What amount related to the sale would be added or subtracted in the computation of Net Cash Flows from Operating Activities?
3) What amount related to the sale would be added or subtracted in the computation of Net Cash Flows from Investing Activities?
Answer:
1) For the equipment that was sold, determine its original cost, its accumulated depreciation, and the cash received from the sale.
original cost = $9,800accumulated depreciation = $1,020cash received = $5,9802) Sanchez Company uses the indirect method for the Operating Activities section of the cash flow statement. What amount related to the sale would be added or subtracted in the computation of Net Cash Flows from Operating Activities?
the loss on sale of equipment ($2,800) should be added to the cash flows from operating activities.3) What amount related to the sale would be added or subtracted in the computation of Net Cash Flows from Investing Activities?
the cash received ($5,980) should be added to the cash flow from investing activitiesExplanation:
equipment cost = beginning equipment - ending equipment = $20,000 - $10,200 = $9,800
equipment's accumulated depreciation = beginning accumulated depreciation + depreciation expense - ending depreciation = $1,950 + $860 - $1,790 = $1,020
book value = $9,800 - $1,020 = $8,780
cash received = book value - loss = $8,780 - $2,800 = $5,980
What is the opportunity cost of owning a business? I. The economic profits that the business earns II. The accounting profits that the business earns III. The profits that could be earned in another business using the same amount of resources
Answer:
III. The profits that could be earned in another business using the same amount of resources.
Explanation:
Opportunity cost also known as the alternative forgone, can be defined as the value, profit or benefits given up by an individual or organization in order to choose or acquire something deemed significant at the time.
Simply stated, it is the cost of not enjoying the benefits, profits or value associated with the alternative forgone or best alternative choice available.
Hence, the opportunity cost of owning a business is the profits that could be earned in another business using the same amount of resources.
For instance, if you decide to invest resources such as money in a food business (restaurant), your opportunity cost would be the profits you could have earned if you had invest the same amount of resources in a salon business or any other business as the case may be.
Paladin Furnishings generated $4 million in sales during 2016, and its year-end total assets were $2.4 million. Also, at year-end 2016, current liabilities were $500,000, consisting of $200,000 of notes payable, $200,000 of accounts payable, and $100,000 of accrued liabilities. Looking ahead to 2017, the company estimates that its assets must increase by $0.60 for every $1.00 increase in sales. Paladin's profit margin is 3%, and its retention ratio is 55%. How large of a sales increase can the company achieve without having to raise funds externally
Answer:
$105,571.6
Explanation:
Calculation of how large of a sales increase can the company achieve without having to raise funds externally.
The first step is to calculate the self-supporting growth rate using this Formula:
Self-supporting growth rate =
M (1-POR) (S0)÷A0 – L0 – M (1-POR) (S0)
Where:
M = Net Income/Sales = 3%
POR = Payout ratio = 55%
S0 = Sales = $4,000,000
A0 = $2,400,000
L0 = Spontaneous liabilities = $200,000+$100,000 =$300,000
We are using only accounts payable and accruals for LO because they are been considered as spontaneous liabilities
Let plug in the formula
.03 (1 - .55) (4,000,000) ÷2,400,000-300,000 - .01(1-.55)(4,000,000)
=54,000÷2,100,000 – 54,000
=54,000÷2,046,000
=2.63929%
Therefore, the self-sustaining growth rate will be 2.63929%
Second step is to Calculate for how large a sales can increase
Using this formula
Sales amount * Self-sustaining growth rate
Let plug in the formula
$4,000,000×2.63929%
=$105,571.6
Therefore, the sales can increase by $105,571.6
In 2010, the BowWow Company purchased 11,752 units from its supplier at a cost of $ 11.73 per unit. BowWow sold 18,971 units of its product in 2010 at a price of $ 24.86 per unit. BowWow began 2010 with $ 864,593 in inventory (inventory is carried at a cost of $ 11.73 per unit). Using this information, compute BowWow's 2010 ending inventory balance (in dollars).
Answer:
Ending inventory balance is $ 779,914.13
Explanation:
The cost of goods sold formula can be used to determine the ending inventory by rearranging the formula and making the ending inventory the subject of the formula:
cost of goods=beginning inventory+inventory purchased-ending inventory
ending inventory=beginning inventory+inventory purchased-costs of goods sold
ending inventory=$864,593+(11,752*$11.73)-(18971*$11.73)=$ 779,914.13
Assume a company pays tax at a rate of 15% on its first $50,000 of income. Any income above $50,000 is taxed at 25%. If a company has $75,000 of taxable income, which of the following statements is correct?
a. Its marginal tax rate is 15%.
b. Its average tax rate is 25%.
c. Its marginal tax rate is 18.33%.
d. Its average tax rate is 18.33%.
Answer:
Option C, Its marginal tax rate is 18.33%. is correct
Explanation:
The tax payable on its first $50,000 of income is shown below:
tax payable=$50,000*15%=$7500
The tax payable on the remaining balance of $25,000 is computed thus:
tax payable on the balance of $25,000=$25,000*25%=$6250
Total tax payable=$7,500+$6,250=$ 13,750.00
Marginal tax rate=tax payable/taxable income=$ 13,750.00/$75,000=18.33%
In the long run, profits in a monopolistically competitive market are zero because: a. of government regulations. b. of collusion. c. firms are free to enter and exit the market. d. firms produce a differentiated product.
Answer:
c. firms are free to enter and exit the market.
Explanation:
A monopolistically competitive market is a market in which there are a lot of organizations that sell products that are similar and it tends to be easy to enter and leave the industry. Because it is easy for a company to enter the market and there is a lot of competition, in the long run the economic profit is zero. According to this, the answer is that in the long run, profits in a monopolistically competitive market are zero because firms are free to enter and exit the market.
The other options are not right because a monopolistically competitive market has zero profits because of its low entry barriers and amount of competitors not because of government regulations or an illegal agreement between organizations to control competition. Also, in a monopolistically competitive market the products are similar.
Consider a risky portfolio. The end-of-year cash flow derived from the portfolio will be either $75,000 or $330,000 with equal probabilities of 0.5. The alternative risk-free investment in T-bills pays 4% per year.
A. If you require a risk premium of 7%, how much will you be willing to pay for the portfolio?
B. Suppose the portfolio can be purchased for the amount you found in (a). What will the expected rate of return on the portfolio be?
C. Now suppose you require a risk premium of 15%. What is the price you will be willing to pay now?
Answer:
A. $182,432.43
B. 11%
C. $165,983.607
Explanation:
A. The computation of value of portfolio is shown below:-
Value of portfolio = (Cash flow × equal probabilities) ÷ (1 + (Risk free rate + Risk premium))
= (($75,000 × 0.5) + ($330,000 × 0.5)) ÷ (1 + (4% + 7%))
= $202,500 ÷ 1.11
= $182,432.4324
or
= $182,432.43
B. The computation of expected rate of return on the portfolio is shown below:-
Rate of return is
= (Cash flow × equal probabilities) - (value of portfolio) ÷ (value of portfolio)
= ($202,500 - $182,432.43) ÷ $182,432.43
= $20,067.57 ÷ $182,432.43
= 0.11
or
= 11%
C. The computation of value of portfolio is shown below:-
Required rate of return = Risk free rate + Risk premium
= 7% + 15%
= 22%
Price = Expected cash flow ÷ (1 + Required rate of return)
= $202,500 ÷ (1 + 0.22)
= $202,500 ÷ 1.22
= $165,983.607
A production department's output for the most recent month consisted of 16,500 units completed and transferred to the next stage of production and 16,500 units in ending Work in Process inventory. The units in ending Work in Process inventory were 60% complete with respect to both direct materials and conversion costs. There were 2,300 units in beginning Work in Process inventory, and they were 80% complete with respect to both direct materials and conversion costs. Calculate the equivalent units of production for the month, assuming the company uses the weighted average method.
Answer:
The equivalent units of production for the month, assuming the company uses the weighted average method is 26,400 units.
Explanation:
The equivalent units of production for the month when the company uses the weighted average method is the addition of the units completed and transferred to next stage and degree of completion of the units in ending Work in Process inventory.
This can therefore be calculated as follows:
Equivalent units of production for the month = Units completed and transferred to next stage + Units in ending Work in Process inventory
Since,
Units completed and transferred to next stage = 16,500 units
Units in ending Work in Process inventory = 16,500 * 60% complete = 9,900 units
Therefore, we have:
Equivalent units of production for the month = 16,500 + 9,900 = 26,400 units
Therefore, the equivalent units of production for the month, assuming the company uses the weighted average method is 26,400 units.
McCoy Brothers manufactures and sells two products, A and Z in the ratio of 5:2. Product A sells for $75; Z sells for $95. Variable costs for product A are $35; for Z $40. Fixed costs are $418,500. Compute the contribution margin per composite unit
Answer:
Weighted average contribution margin= $44.29
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Sales proportion:
Product A= 5/7= 0.714
Product Z= 2/7= 0.286
Product A sells for $75; Z sells for $95.
Variable costs for product A are $35; for Z $40.
To determine the contribution margin per composite unit, we need to use the following formula:
Weighted average contribution margin= (weighted average selling price - weighted average unitary variable cost)
Weighted average contribution margin= (0.714*75 + 0.286*95) - (0.714*35 + 0.286*40)
Weighted average contribution margin= 80.72 - 36.43
Weighted average contribution margin= $44.29
Depreciation associated with a project will: Answer A. cause incremental cash flows to increase B. only affect the fixed asset account as depreciation is a sunk cost C. have no effect on incremental cash flows D. cause incremental operating cash flows to decrease
Answer: A. cause incremental cash flows to increase
Explanation:
Incremental Cashflow (ICF) is the added cash that a company gets from embarking on a project which means that this Cashflow must be independent of expenses. If ICF is positive then the company will see it's Cashflow increase if they accept the project because it will contribute to their cash flow.
ICF is calculated from the Net Income of the project but seeing as Depreciation is a non-cash expense that is removed from the Income Statement. In calculating ICF it is added back as ICF deals with actual cash and Depreciation did not cost any actual cash.
More Depreciation therefore means an increase in Incremental Cash flow when it is being calculated from Net Income.
Emily is considering purchasing a new home for $400,000. She intends to put 20% down and finance $320,000, but is unsure which financing option to select. Emily is considering the following options: o Option 1: Fixed rate mortgage over 30 years at 8% interest, zero points, or o Option 2: Fixed rate mortgage over 30 years at 4% interest, plus two discount points. How long would her financial planner recommend that she live in the house to break even using Option 2 presuming she is not financing the points
Answer:
The break even for Emily using Option 2 presuming she is not financing the points is 7.8
Explanation:
Solution
In this case, in other to determine this problem, we need to find the monthly payments for both options
For option 1 (EMI)
Where
P = 320,000,
r =0.08/12 = 0.00667
n = 360
Now,
EMI = P *r * (1 + r)^n/ (1 + r)^n -1
So,
EMI =320,000 * 0.00667 * (1 + 0.00667)^360/ (1 + 0.00667)^360
EMI = 23329.56/9.93573
=2348.05
For Option 2
P = 320,000,
n = 360
r = 4%/12 = 0.003333
Thus,
EMI =320,000 * 0.003333 * (1 + 0.003333)^360/ (1 + 0.003333)^360
EMI = 3534.398/2.313498
=1527.73
Note:
When Emily is paying 2 discount point in the second option, she is paying the following:
2% * 320000 = 6400
Also she is saving the following:
2.348.05 - 1527.73
=820.32 on payment (monthly) because of the reduction of EMI in the second option
Thus,
The break even time is =payments due to points/ monthly savings
=6400/820.32
=7.8
11.Jones and company had a balance in their retained earnings account at the end of 2020 in the amount of 990,000. They have forecasted net income in 2021 in the amount of 350,000. They pay an estimated 40% of their net income in dividends. What will be the addition to retained earnings at the end of 2021. What will be the ending balance in retained earnings at the end of 2021
Answer:
$210,000 and $1,200,000
Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
Given that
Ending Balance in retained earnings = $990,000
Net income = $350,000
Dividend paid in 2021 is
= 40% of net income
= 40% of $350,000
= $140,000
So, the Addition to retained earning is
= Net income - dividends
= $350,000 - $140,000
= $210,000
Now the ending balance in retained earnings is
= Beginning balance in retained earnings + addition to retained earnings
= $990,000 + $210,000
= $1,200,000
You are evaluating an investment that requires $2,000 upfront, and pays $500 at the end of each of the first 2 years, and an additional lump-sum of $1000 at the end of year 2. What would happen to the IRR if the annual payment at the end of the first year go down from $500 to $300 and the annual payment at the end of second year stays at $500
Answer:
The IRR decreases
Explanation:
The internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the after tax cash flows from an investment to the amount invested.
To determine what happens to the IRR when year 1 Cash flow changes, we have to calculate the IRR in both scenarios.
IRR can be calculated using a financial calculator
IRR when year 1 cash flow in $500
Cash flow in year 0 = $-2000
Cash flow in year 1 = $500
Cash flow in year 2 = $500 + $1000 = $1500
IRR = 0
IRR when year 1 cash flow in $500
Cash flow in year 0 = $-2000
Cash flow in year 1 = $300
Cash flow in year 2 = $1500
IRR = -5.57%
The IRR decreases and turns negative
To find the IRR using a financial calacutor:
1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.
2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the IRR button and then press the compute button.
I hope my answer helps you
For each of the following errors, considered individually, indicate whether the error would cause the adjusted trial balance totals to be unequal. If the error would cause the adjusted trial balance totals to be unequal, indicate whether the debit or credit total is higher and by how much.
a. The adjustment for accrued wages of $5,200 was journalized as a debit to Wages Expense for $5,200 and a credit to Accounts Payable for $5,200.
b. The entry for $1,125 of supplies used during the period was journalized as a debit to Supplies Expense of $1,125 and a credit to Supplies of $1,152.
Answer:
a) The debit and credit side of the unadjusted trial balance would be increased by $ 5200.
b) The debit side would remain unchanged. No effect will be seen in the adjusted trial balance.
Explanation:
Effect of adjustments on adjusted Trial Balance.
This first entry would increase the wages expense and increase the liability account in the adjusted trial balance. Both debit and credit side would be increased by an equal amount.
b) This would decrease the Supplies account and increase the supplies expense in the unadjusted account. As both are on the debit side there would be no effect in the debit total.
Sr No Account Debit Credit
Original Entries
a. Wages Expense 5200
Accounts Payable 5200
b. Supplies Expense 1125
Supplies Account 1125
Correct Entries
a. Wages Expense 5200
Accrued Wages Account Payable 5200
b. Supplies Expense 1125
Supplies Account 1125
Difference:
a) We see that the first entry which was original passed the debit side is correct but the credit side would have been of accrued wages instead of accounts payable . This is to raise the amount by which wages are still outstanding by an amount 5200 at the end of the month.
This would decrease the accounts payable increase the wages payable . If the adjustment is not made it the salaries payable is understated .
b)This adjusting entry is correct.
B Corporation uses the weighted-average method in its process costing system. The Assembly Department started the month with 5,000 units in its beginning work in process inventory. An additional 68,500 units were transferred in from the prior department during the month to begin processing in the Assembly Department. There were 33,000 units in the ending work in process inventory of the Assembly Department that were 60% complete with respect to conversion costs.
What were the equivalent units for conversion costs in the Assembly Department for the month?A. 86,100B. 42,900C. 55,520D. 57,900
Answer:
Total equivalent units= 60,300
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Beginning inventory= 5,000 units
An additional 68,500 units were transferred in from the prior department.
There were 33,000 units in the ending work in process inventory of the Assembly Department that were 60% complete concerning conversion costs.
We need to calculate the number of conversion units.
We will use the following structure:
Beginning WIP= 5,000
Transferred-in= 68,500
Total= 73,500
Ending WIP= (33,000)
Complete units= 40,500
The calculation for completion WIP:
ending wip*completion of WIP
33,000*0.6= 19,800
Total equivalent units= 40,500 + 19,800= 60,300
On January 1 of the current year (Year 1), our company acquired a truck for $75,000. The estimated useful life of the truck is 5 years or 100,000 miles. The residual value at the end of 5 years is estimated to be $5,000. The actual mileage for the truck was 22,000 miles in Year 1 and 27,000 miles in Year 2. What is the depreciation expense for the second year of use (Year 2) if we use the units of production method
Answer:
The depreciation expense for the second year of use (Year 2) if we use the units of production method is $18,900.
Explanation:
Units of production method is depreciation method that considers the number of units that an asset produces more closely relevant than the number of economic useful life of the assets. The method therefore produces a greater depreciation expenses in years when the assets is heavily put into use.
Under the units of production method, the depreciation expenses for a particular is the original cost of the equipment minus its salvage value, and this is then multiplied by the ratio of the expected number of units the asset should produce in that year to the number of units the asset is expected to produce in its useful life. Mathematically, this can be stated as follows:
Depreciation expenses for a particular = (Cost - Salvage/Residual value) * (Units produced in the year / Total units expected to produce throughout useful life)
To calculate the depreciation expense for the second year of use (Year 2) in this question, use the above formula as follows:
Depreciation expenses in Year 2 = ($75,000 - $5,000) * (27,000 / 100,000) = $70,000 * 0.27 = $18,900
Therefore, the depreciation expense for the second year of use (Year 2) if we use the units of production method is $18,900.
NB - Extra Information that can assist your learning:
Although this is not part of the question, but we can also compute the depreciation expenses for Year 1 in order to compare it with Year 2 as follows:
Depreciation expenses in year 1 = ($75,000 - $5,000) * (22,000 / 100,000) = $70,000 * 0.22 = $15,400.
We can see that the depreciation expenses of $18,900 for Year 2 is greater than the depreciation expenses of $15,400 for Year 1. The reason is that the truck is more heavily used in Year 2 at 27,000 miles than in Year 1 at just 22,000 miles.
A jewely firm buys semiprecious stones to make bracelets and rings. The supplier quotes a price of $8.90 per stone for quantities of 600 stones or more, $9.30 per stone for orders of 400 to 599 stones, and $9.80 per stone for lesser quantities. The jewelry firm operates 108 days per year. Usage rate is 26 stones per day, and ordering costs are $406.
a.If carrying costs are $3 per year for each stone,find the order quantity that will minimize total annual cost. (Do not roun d intermediate calculations. Round your final answer to the nearest whole number) Order quantity stones _________
b. If annual carrying costs are 28 percent of unit cost, what is the optimal order size? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your final answer to the nearest whole number.) Optimal order size stones ___________
c. If lead time is 4 working days, at what point should the company reorder? (Do not round intermediate calculetions. Round your final answer to the nearest whole number) Reorder quantity stones ___________
Answer:
a. Order quantity that will minimize total cost = 503 stones
b. Optimal order size = 605 stones
c. Reorder point = 104 stones
Explanation:
Demand = 26 stones per day * 108 days = 2808 stones per year
a. Order quantity of Stones:
Economic Order Quantity = [tex]\sqrt{2DS}/H[/tex]
D = Demand, S = Ordering Cost, H = Carrying Cost
= [tex]\sqrt{2*2808*406}[/tex] / 3
EOQ = 503 stones.
b. If Carrying cost is 28% of unit cost then EOQ:
= [tex]\sqrt{2*2808*406}[/tex] / 8.90* 0.28
= 1510 / 2.492 = 605 stones
c. Reorder Point:
= Average Usage per day * Average lead time + Safety stock
= 26 stones per day * 4 working days
= 104.
Demand for dishwasher water pumps is 8 per day. The standard deviation of demand is 3 per day, and the order lead time is four days. The service level is 95%. What should the reorder point be?
Answer:
41.9 units
Explanation:
Reorder point can be defined as the level of inventory which help to triggers an action to replace that particular inventory stock in such a way that when the stock level reduced the item must be reordered because it is the minimum unit quantity that a business owner or an organisation should always have in available inventory before they need to reorder more product.
Using this formula
Reorder point= Demand during the lead time + Z for customer service level * standard deviation * Square root of lead time multiplier.
Where,
Demand during the lead time =(8*4)
Z for customer service level =1.65
Standard deviation =3
Square root of lead time multiplier=4
Let plug in the formula
Reorder point=(8*4) + 1.65*3* square root of(4)
= 41.9 units.
Therefore the Reorder point is 41.9 units
Managers spend less on prevention costs because managers are typically evaluated on a short term basis, while investments on prevention may experience long gestation periods to returns and their ROIs may be uncertain.
1. True
2. False
Managers spend less on prevention costs because managers are typically evaluated on a short-term basis, while investments in prevention may experience long gestation periods to returns and their ROIs may be uncertain. The given statement is True.
What is the cost-benefit analysis rule?When possible, cost-benefit analysis involves quantifying and monetizing the potential costs and benefits of regulation and otherwise describing them in qualitative terms.
In general, a cost-benefit analysis is based on three key indicators: the net present value (NPV), the economic rate of return (ERR), and the benefit-cost ratio. Each of these three indicators evaluates the project's viability, and when combined, they provide a realistic picture of the IPF.
Thus, the given statement is true.
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Diane's Designs has two classes of stock authorized: 9%, $10 par value preferred and $1 par value common. The following transactions affect stockholders' equity during 2021, its first year of operations: January 1 Issue 200,000 shares of common stock for $15 per share. February 6 Issue 900 shares of preferred stock for $13 per share. October 10 Purchase 12,000 shares of its own common stock for $14 per share. November 12 Resell 5,000 shares of treasury stock at $24 per share. Record each of these transactions. (If no entry is required for a particular transaction/event, select "No Journal Entry Required" in the first account field.)
Answer and Explanation:
The Journal entries are shown below:-
1. Cash Dr, $3,000,000 (200,000 × $15)
To Common stock $200,000 (200,000 × $1)
To Paid in capital in excess of par - Common stock $2,800,000
(Being issuance of common stock is recorded)
Here we debited the cash as it increased the current assets and we credited the common stock and paid in capital in excess of par - common stock as it also increased the stockholder equity
2. Cash Dr, 11,700 (900 × $13)
To Preferred stock $10,000 (900 × $10)
To Paid in capital in excess of par - Preferred stock $1,700
(Being issuance of the preferred stock is recorded)
Here we debited the cash as it increased the current assets and we credited the preferred stock and paid in capital in excess of par - Preferred stock as it also increased the stockholder equity
3. Treasury stock Dr, $168,000 (12,000 × $14)
To Cash $168,000
(Being cash paid is recorded)
Here we debited the treasury stock as it increased the treasury stock and we credited the cash as it reduced the current assets
4. Cash Dr, 120,000 (5,000 × $24)
To Treasury stock $70,000 (5,000 × $14)
To Paid in capital in excess of par - Treasury stock $50,000
(Being issuance of the treasury stock is recorded)
Here we debited the cash as it increased the current assets and we credited the treasury stock and paid in capital in excess of par - Treasury stock as it reduced the treasury stock
At Jamal's Juices, each smoothie requires 16 oz of juice, which costs $0.15/oz. It takes 0.10 hrs of direct labor to make smoothies, at $9.35 per DLH. Variable overhead costs $1.15/smoothie, and fixed costs total $98,000 per year. They expect to produce 72,000 smoothies next year. Calculate the manufacturing overhead budget for next yea
Answer:
direct materials = 16 oz x $0.15 per oz = $2.40
direct labor = $9.35 x 0.10 hrs = $0.94
variable overhead = $1.15 per smoothie
fixed costs = $98,000
estimated production per year = 72,000
Jamal's Juices
Manufacturing Overhead Budget
For the Year 202x
Per unit Total
Variable manufacturing overhead $1.15 $82,800
Fixed manufacturing overhead $1.3611 $98,000
Total $2.5111 $180,800
Generally the budget would be more specific, e.g. which costs are included under variable MOH or fixed MOH, but in this case we only should include the total variable and fixed costs.
A company estimates that warranty expense will be 4% of sales. The company's sales for the current period are $233,000. The current period's entry to record the warranty expense is:
Answer:
Dr Warranty expenses 9,320
Cr Estimated Warranty Liability 9,320
Explanation:
Preparation of thecurrent period's entry to record the warranty expense for A company
Since A company estimates that the warranty expense will be 4% of sales while the sales for the current period are $233,000 this means we have to find the 4% of $233,000 which gives us 9,320.
Hence the transaction will be recorded as :
Dr Warranty expenses 9,320
(4%×233,000)
Cr Estimated Warranty Liability 9,320
At the beginning of a year, a company predicts total direct materials costs of $1,020,000 and total overhead costs of $1,220,000. If the company uses direct materials costs as its activity base to apply overhead, what is the predetermined overhead rate it should use during the year
Answer:
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $1.961 per direct material dollar
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
At the beginning of a year, a company predicts total direct materials costs of $1,020,000 and total overhead costs of $1,220,000.
To calculate the predetermined manufacturing overhead rate we need to use the following formula:
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 1,220,000/1,020,000
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $1.961 per direct material dollar
On December 31, Jarden Co.'s Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has an unadjusted credit balance of $15,500. Jarden prepares a schedule of its December 31 accounts receivable by age.
Accounts Receivable Age of Accounts Receivable Expected Percent Uncollectible
$880,000 Not yet due 1.25%
352,000 1 to 30 days past due 2.00
70,400 31 to 60 days past due 6.50
35,200 61 to 90 days past due 32.75
14,080 Over 90 days past due 68.00
Required:
a. Compute the required balance of the Allowance for Douitful Accounts at December 31 using an aging of accounts receivable.
b. Prepare the adjusting entry to record bad debts expense at December 31.
c. On June 30 of the next year, Jarden concludes that a customer's $4,750 receivable is uncollectible and the account is written off. Does this write-off directly affect Jarden's net income?
Answer:
(a) The required balance in allowance for doubtful debt account is $43,718.4.
(b) The adjusting entry to record bad debts expense at December 31 is:
Debit Bad debt expense ($43,718.4 - $15,500) $28,218.4
Credit Allowance for doubtful accounts $28,218.4
(To record bad debt expense)
(c) The write-off does not affect Jarden's net income since it would be between allowance for doubtful accounts and the accounts receivable.
Explanation:
An allowance for doubtful accounts is an estimate of the accounts receivable that is deemed uncollectible.
(a) Computation of the required balance of the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts at December 31 using an aging of accounts receivable
Accounts Rec. Age Accounts Rec. %Uncollectible Allowance
$880,000 Not yet due 1.25 $11,000
352,000 1 to 30 days past due 2.00 7,040
70,400 31 to 60 days past due 6.50 4,576
35,200 61 to 90 days past due 32.75 11,528
14,080 Over 90 days past due 68.00 9,574.4
$1,351,680 $43,718.4
In 2016, Teller Company sold 3,000 units at $600 each. Variable expenses were $420 per unit, and fixed expenses were $270,000. The same selling price, variable expenses, and fixed expenses are expected for 2017. What is Teller's break-even point in units for 2017
Answer:
1500
Explanation:
Breakeven point is the number of units produced and sold where net income is art on it is where revenue equals cost.
The formula for calculating break even points = F / (P - V)
F = fixed cost
P = price
V = variable cost per unit
$270,000 / ($600 - $420) = 1500
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