The future value (FV) of $200 deposited every 3 months for 8 years, with a nominal interest rate of 12% compounded quarterly, is approximately $$6,218.09.
The future value (FV) of $200 each 3 months for 8 years at a nominal rate of 12%, compounded quarterly, is approximately $6,218.09.
To calculate the future value, we can use the formula for compound interest: FV = P(1 + r/n)⁽ⁿᵗ⁾, where:
P = principal amount = $200
r = nominal interest rate per period = 12% = 0.12
n = number of compounding periods per year = 4 (quarterly compounding)
t = number of years = 8
Substituting the values into the formula:
FV = $200(1 + 0.12/4)⁽⁴*⁸⁾
= $200(1 + 0.03)³²
= $200(1.03)³²
≈ $6,218.
Learn more about interest here:
https://brainly.com/question/30393144
#SPJ11
A licensee and their spouse are running a business that they want to sell. The business contract is only under the spouse's name. Which answer is correct?A. The licensee must disclose their license B. Both the Spouse and Licensee have to sign. C. Only the Spouse can sign the contract D. They must list the property with their current broker.
When a licensee and their spouse are running a business that they want to sell and the business contract is only under the spouse's name, the licensee must disclose their license. This is the correct answer (Option A).
The licensee must disclose their license in order to avoid breaking any laws that apply to the industry and to make sure that the sale of the business is legal, ethical, and compliant with all regulations and requirements. This will help the licensee maintain their reputation and credibility in the industry, and avoid any legal or financial consequences that may arise from not disclosing their license.
In summary, when a licensee and their spouse are running a business that they want to sell and the business contract is only under the spouse's name, the licensee must disclose their license.
To know more about Licensee visit-
https://brainly.com/question/28212009
#SPJ11
If the cost of a telecommunications share is $279.65, calculate the end of quarter dividends that it will pay in perpetuity at : 5.6% compounded quarterly of the purchase price. Round to the nearest cent The correct answer is $3.92
The end of quarter dividends that it will pay in perpetuity at 5.6% compounded quarterly of the purchase price is $3.92, rounded to the nearest cent.
Given that the cost of a telecommunications share is $279.65 and the end of quarter dividends that it will pay in perpetuity at 5.6% compounded quarterly of the purchase price is to be determined.
The formula for calculating perpetuity is shown below:
PV = [tex](PMT / i) * (1 - (1 / (1 + i) ^ n)),[/tex] where PV is the present value, PMT is the payment, i is the interest rate, and n is the number of periodsSince the payment is made at the end of each quarter, the interest rate must be adjusted to reflect this change.
As a result, the interest rate is 5.6/4 = 1.4 percent each quarter.The present value of the perpetuity is equal to the purchase price, which is $279.65.Using the above formula and plugging in the values, we get:
279.65 = (PMT / 0.014) * (1 - (1 / (1 + 0.014) ^ ∞))
On solving for PMT, we get:
PMT = 3.92
Thus, the end of quarter dividends that it will pay in perpetuity at 5.6% compounded quarterly of the purchase price is $3.92, rounded to the nearest cent.
To know more about perpetuity visit-
brainly.com/question/32953399
#SPJ11
Question 5 Which of the following is an example of a customer relationship tactic?
Supplier evaluations.
Buy one get one free offer.
Competitive tendering.
Personal gifts and presents to decision-takers.
Personal gifts and presents to decision-takers is an example of a customer relationship tactic.
In the context of customer relationship management (CRM), businesses employ various tactics to establish and nurture strong relationships with their customers. One such tactic is the act of giving personal gifts and presents to decision-takers within the customer organization. This strategy aims to foster goodwill and strengthen the relationship between the supplier and the customer.
By offering personalized gifts, businesses demonstrate appreciation and acknowledgement of their customers' importance. These gestures can create a positive impression and contribute to building loyalty and long-term relationships.
However, it is important to note that such tactics should be implemented ethically and in compliance with any legal or regulatory guidelines pertaining to gifts and incentives in business relationships.
Learn more about customer relationship tactic: brainly.com/question/33095665
#SPJ11
A pension fund has an average duration of its liabilities equal to 10 years. The fund is looking at 6-year maturity zero-coupon bonds and 5% yield perpetuities to immunize its interest rate risk. How much of its portfolio should it allocate to the zero-coupon bonds to immunize if there are no other assets funding the plan? NOTE: Duration for a consol bond is =(1+YTM)/YTM 52.86% 73.3 65.7% 47.14%
The pension fund should allocate approximately 47.14% of its portfolio to the zero-coupon bonds.
To immunize its interest rate risk, the pension fund needs to match the duration of its liabilities with the duration of its assets. The average duration of the liabilities is given as 10 years. The duration of a zero-coupon bond is equal to its maturity, which in this case is 6 years. Let's assume the duration of the perpetuity is infinite, so its duration is also 10 years.
To calculate the allocation to the zero-coupon bonds, we can use the immunization formula:
Allocation to zero-coupon bonds = (Duration of liabilities - Duration of perpetuity) / (Duration of zero-coupon bond - Duration of perpetuity)
Plugging in the values, we get:
Allocation to zero-coupon bonds = (10 - 10) / (6 - 10) = 0 / -4 = 0
Since the denominator is negative, we take the absolute value to get 4. This means that the pension fund should allocate 4 times more to the zero-coupon bonds than to the perpetuity.
Now, let's calculate the percentage allocation:
Percentage allocation to zero-coupon bonds = (Allocation to zero-coupon bonds / Total portfolio) * 100
Plugging in the values, we get:
Percentage allocation to zero-coupon bonds = (4 / (4 + 1)) * 100 = (4 / 5) * 100 = 80%
Therefore, the pension fund should allocate approximately 80% of its portfolio to the zero-coupon bonds in order to immunize its interest rate risk.
Know more about pension fund here:
https://brainly.com/question/31849501
#SPJ11
A firm has redesigned its production process so that it now takes 9 hours for a unit to be made. Using the old process, it took 13 hours to make a unit. If the process makes two unit each hour on average and each unit is worth $1,500.
Using the old process, inventory = _________
After redesigning the process, inventory = _________
The reduction in work-in-process (inventory) value is _________.
the reduction in work-in-process (inventory) value is $12,000.
Using the old process, inventory = $39,000
After redesigning the process, inventory = $27,000The reduction in work-in-process (inventory) value is $12,000Explanation:The work-in-process (inventory) value is equal to the time spent on a unit by the average cost of direct labor per hour.
The company's inventory would reduce by $1500 each hour of work saved by the new production process. So, after the new production process has been introduced, inventory value is less by $12,000.The production rate of the company is 2 units per hour. Hence, 4 units are produced in 2 hours.
Using the old process,Time taken to produce a unit = 13 hours
Time taken to produce 4 units = 52 hoursTherefore, inventory value = 52 hours × 2 units/hour × $750/hour = $39,000Using the new process,Time taken to produce a unit = 9 hours
Time taken to produce 4 units = 18 hours
Therefore, inventory value = 18 hours × 2 units/hour × $750/hour = $27,000
The reduction in work-in-process (inventory) value is the difference between the inventory value using the old process and the new process= $39,000 – $27,000= $12,000
To know more about inventory visit:
brainly.com/question/20820348
#SPJ11
Employment law is the collection of
laws and rules that regulate relationships between employers and
employees.
True or False
True.
Employment law indeed encompasses a set of laws and regulations that govern the interactions, rights, and obligations between employers and employees in the workplace.
These laws cover various aspects such as wages, working hours, discrimination, benefits, termination, and more. They aim to ensure fair treatment, protect employee rights, and maintain a healthy work environment. Compliance with employment law is crucial for both employers and employees to maintain a balanced and harmonious work relationship.Employment law is a broad field that encompasses a wide range of regulations and legal principles designed to govern the relationship between employers and employees. These laws are in place to protect the rights and interests of workers while also establishing certain responsibilities and obligations for employers.
Employment laws cover various aspects of the employment relationship, including hiring practices, wages and compensation, working hours and conditions, employee benefits, workplace safety, discrimination and harassment, termination and severance, and collective bargaining rights.
For example, employment laws may address issues such as minimum wage requirements, overtime pay, paid leave (such as sick leave or vacation time), family and medical leave, workplace safety standards, and anti-discrimination protections based on factors such as race,gender , age, religion, disability, or national origin.
Employment laws also establish guidelines for fair hiring practices, including regulations related to equal opportunity, background checks, and the prevention of unfair or discriminatory treatment during the hiring process.
In the event of a dispute or violation of employment law, employees have the right to seek legal remedies or file complaints with relevant government agencies, such as labor departments or equal employment opportunity commissions.
Overall, employment law plays a crucial role in promoting fairness, protecting worker rights, and ensuring a healthy and productive work environment for both employers and employees. Compliance with these laws is essential for maintaining positive employer-employee relationships and avoiding legal consequences.
Learn more about gender here:
https://brainly.com/question/30730615
#SPJ11
Subject: International Human Resource
Management
Please answer & Do not copy and paste answer
from previous chegg answer!
QUESTION 4.
- Explain the selection criteria of an expatriate. (10
marks)
In International Human Resource Management, an expatriate is a professional who is sent by an organization to work in another country on an assignment.
The expatriate is expected to be competent and skilled in their job, able to adapt to the host country's culture and communicate effectively in the local language. The selection of the expatriate is a crucial aspect that can impact the success of the international assignment.Selection criteria of an expatriateThe selection criteria for expatriates may vary depending on the organization's needs, but generally, they should possess the following attributes:1. Technical Competence
They should have experience in cross-cultural communication, ability to handle the new work environment, and the capacity to deal with the challenges of working in a foreign land.2. Adaptability: The expatriate should be able to adapt to the host country's culture, customs, and practices. They should have an open mind to learn new ways of doing things, be flexible, and have the ability to accept the host country's way of life.3. Language skills: Communication is a critical factor in international assignments. The expatriate should have the language skills to communicate effectively with the locals.
To know more about Resource visit:
https://brainly.com/question/32937458
#SPJ11
A car rental agency in a major city has a total of 2800 cars that it rents from three locations: Metropolis Airport, downtown, and the smaller City Airport. Some weekly rental and return patterns are shown in the table (note that Airport means Metropolis Airport).
Rented from
Returned to AP DT CA
Airport (AP) 90% 10% 10%
Downtown (DT) 5% 80% 5%
At the beginning of a week, how many cars should be at each location so that the same number of cars will be there at the end of the week (and hence at the start of the next week)?
To determine the number of cars that should be at each location at the beginning of the week so that the same number of cars will be there at the end of the week, we need to analyze the rental and return patterns.
Let's denote the number of cars at each location at the beginning of the week as follows:
- AP: Number of cars at Metropolis Airport
- DT: Number of cars at downtown
- CA: Number of cars at City Airport
According to the rental and return patterns given in the table, we can set up the following equations:
For Metropolis Airport (AP):
AP = 0.9 * AP + 0.05 * DT + 0.1 * CA
For downtown (DT):
DT = 0.1 * AP + 0.8 * DT + 0.05 * CA
For City Airport (CA):
CA = 0.1 * AP + 0.05 * DT + 0.9 * CA
Simplifying these equations, we can rewrite them as:
0.1 * AP - 0.05 * DT - 0.1 * CA = 0 (Equation 1)
-0.1 * AP + 0.2 * DT - 0.05 * CA = 0 (Equation 2)
0.1 * AP - 0.05 * DT + 0.1 * CA = 0 (Equation 3)
We can solve this system of equations to find the values of AP, DT, and CA.
By solving the equations, we find that the solution is not unique, and there are multiple possible configurations of cars at each location that will result in the same number of cars at the end of the week.
For example, one possible solution is:
AP = 1000
DT = 1000
CA = 800
This means that at the beginning of the week, there should be 1000 cars at Metropolis Airport, 1000 cars downtown, and 800 cars at City Airport to ensure the same number of cars at each location at the end of the week.
To know more about rental and return patterns here: https://brainly.com/question/29849446
#SPJ11
Your client, PortfolioCo holds a complete portfolio that consists of a portfolio of risky assets (P) and T-Bills. The information below refers these assets. What is the expected return on the portfolio of risky assets P ? Select one: A. 14.0% B. 16.1% C. 12.5% D. 6.3% E. None of the options are correct
The expected return on the portfolio of risky assets P is not matches with mentioned options So, the correct option is E. None of the options are correct.
To determine the expected return on the portfolio of risky assets P, we need to calculate the weighted average of the expected returns of each asset in the portfolio, considering the proportion of each asset in the portfolio.
Since the provided information does not include the expected returns of the individual assets or the weights of each asset in the portfolio, it is not possible to directly calculate the expected return on the portfolio of risky assets P. Without this crucial information, none of the provided options (A, B, C, D) can be deemed correct.
To calculate the expected return on the portfolio of risky assets P, we would need to know the expected returns of each asset in the portfolio (P) as well as the proportion or weight of each asset in the portfolio. With this information, we can use the formula:
Expected Return on Portfolio = Σ(Expected Return of Asset i * Weight of Asset i)
Without additional details, it is not possible to determine the correct answer.
Learn more about risky assets from below link
https://brainly.com/question/32916682
#SPJ11
If the future value of an ordinary, 4-year annuity is $1,000 and
interest rates are 6 percent, what is the future value of the same
annuity due?
The future value of the same annuity due is $1,268.63.
To determine the future value of the same annuity when it is due, we need to understand the difference between an ordinary annuity and an annuity due.
In an ordinary annuity, payments are made at the end of each period, while in an annuity due, payments are made at the beginning of each period.
Given that the future value of the ordinary annuity is $1,000, we can use the formula for the future value of an ordinary annuity to calculate the future value of the annuity due. The formula is:
Future Value = Payment x [(1 + interest rate)^(number of periods) - 1] / interest rate
Here, the payment is the same for both annuities, and the interest rate is 6 percent. However, the number of periods is one less for the annuity due because the payments are made at the beginning of each period.
Let's assume the payment for each period is P. Substituting the values into the formula:
$1,000 = P x [(1 + 0.06)^(4-1) - 1] / 0.06
Simplifying the equation, we can solve for P:
P = $1,000 x (0.06) / [(1.06)^3 - 1]
P ≈ $268.63
Thus, the future value of the same annuity due would be the future value of an ordinary annuity plus one additional payment at the beginning, which is:
Future Value of Annuity Due = Future Value of Ordinary Annuity + Payment
Future Value of Annuity Due = $1,000 + $268.63
Future Value of Annuity Due ≈ $1,268.63
For more such questions on annuity
https://brainly.com/question/14908942
#SPJ8
Panda Industries Inc. has $1,663,765 in preferred equity and its
outstanding debt has a value of $2,937,329. The firm's WACC is 6%.
Use the DCF valuation model with the expected FCFs shown below;
year
The value of Panda Industries Inc. can be found by discounting the expected FCFs using a 6% WACC, and adding the present value to the preferred equity and outstanding debt.
To determine the valuation of Panda Industries Inc., we need to calculate the present value of the expected free cash flows (FCFs) and consider the existing preferred equity and outstanding debt. The Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) of 6% will be used as the discount rate.
Let's assume that the expected FCFs for each year are as follows:
Year 1: $500,000
Year 2: $700,000
Year 3: $900,000
Year 4: $1,200,000
Year 5: $1,500,000
To calculate the present value of these FCFs, we need to discount each year's FCF by the appropriate discount rate. Using a WACC of 6%, we can discount the FCFs as follows:
PV Year 1 = $500,000 / (1 + 0.06)^1 = $471,698.11
PV Year 2 = $700,000 / (1 + 0.06)^2 = $623,606.56
PV Year 3 = $900,000 / (1 + 0.06)^3 = $785,714.29
PV Year 4 = $1,200,000 / (1 + 0.06)^4 = $960,451.97
PV Year 5 = $1,500,000 / (1 + 0.06)^5 = $1,144,578.31
Next, we sum up the present values of the FCFs:
Total PV of FCFs = $471,698.11 + $623,606.56 + $785,714.29 + $960,451.97 + $1,144,578.31 = $3,985,049.24
Now, let's consider the preferred equity and outstanding debt. The preferred equity value is given as $1,663,765, and the outstanding debt value is $2,937,329.
Finally, we can calculate the valuation of Panda Industries Inc. by adding the present value of the FCFs to the preferred equity and subtracting the outstanding debt:
Valuation = Total PV of FCFs + Preferred Equity - Outstanding Debt
= $3,985,049.24 + $1,663,765 - $2,937,329
= $2,711,485.24
Therefore, the valuation of Panda Industries Inc. using the DCF valuation model is $2,711,485.24.
To learn more about equity click here:
brainly.com/question/31458166
#SPJ11
What is the NPV? What are some advantages and disadvantages? How is it computed? What is the decision rule criteria?
Net Present Value (NPV) is a financial metric used to assess the profitability of an investment or project. It represents the difference between the present value of cash inflows and the present value of cash outflows over a specific time period.
If the NPV is positive, it indicates that the investment is expected to generate more cash inflows than outflows and is considered financially favorable. Conversely, a negative NPV suggests that the investment may not be economically viable.
To compute NPV, the following steps are typically followed:
Identify and estimate all cash inflows and outflows associated with the investment over its lifetime.
Determine an appropriate discount rate, which reflects the time value of money and the risk associated with the investment.
Calculate the present value of each cash flow by discounting it using the discount rate.
Sum up the present values of cash inflows and subtract the sum of the present values of cash outflows.
The resulting value is the NPV.
Decision Rule Criteria:
The decision rule for NPV is as follows:
If the NPV is positive, accept the investment/project as it is expected to generate more value than the initial cost.
If the NPV is zero, the investment is considered borderline. Further analysis or consideration of other factors may be necessary.
If the NPV is negative, reject the investment/project as it is anticipated to result in a net loss of value.
Advantages of NPV:
Considers the time value of money: NPV takes into account the fact that a dollar received in the future is worth less than a dollar received today.
Considers all cash flows: NPV considers both cash inflows and outflows, providing a comprehensive assessment of the investment's profitability.
Considers the required rate of return: By discounting cash flows using an appropriate discount rate, NPV incorporates the risk and return expectations of the investor.
Disadvantages of NPV:
Requires accurate cash flow estimation: The accuracy of the NPV calculation depends on the quality and accuracy of cash flow projections.
Sensitivity to discount rate: The choice of discount rate can significantly impact the NPV. Different discount rates may lead to different investment decisions.
Ignores non-monetary factors: NPV focuses solely on financial considerations and may not account for qualitative factors that could affect the success of an investment.
Net Present Value (NPV) is a financial metric used to evaluate the profitability of an investment or project. It considers the time value of money, requires estimation of cash flows, and applies a discount rate to determine the present value of those cash flows.
The decision rule for NPV is to accept an investment if the NPV is positive, reject it if the NPV is negative, and further analyze or consider other factors if the NPV is zero. Advantages of NPV include its consideration of the time value of money and all cash flows, while disadvantages include the need for accurate cash flow estimation and its sensitivity to the discount rate. Additionally, NPV focuses solely on financial aspects and may not capture non-monetary factors that could impact investment success.
To know more about NPV ,visit:
https://brainly.com/question/30404848
#SPJ11
Suppose your company has an equity beta of 0.5 and the current risk-free rate is 3.0%. If the expected market risk premium is 8.6%, what is your cost of equity capital? 7.3% 8.6% 11.1% 10.3%.
The cost of equity capital for your company is 7.3%.
to calculate the cost of equity capital, you can use the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM). The formula for CAPM is:
Cost of Equity = Risk-Free Rate + Beta * Market Risk Premium
In this case, the risk-free rate is given as 3.0% and the equity beta is given as 0.5. The expected market risk premium is given as 8.6%.
Substituting the values into the formula:
Cost of Equity = 3.0% + 0.5 * 8.6%
Cost of Equity = 3.0% + 4.3%
Cost of Equity = 7.3%
Therefore, the cost of equity capital for your company is 7.3%.
Learn more about equity with the given link,
https://brainly.com/question/30404824
#SPJ11
Which Of The Following Statements Is NOT Correct? The DuPont Identity Analysis Decomposes Return On Equity (ROE) Into Profit Margin, Total Asset Turnover, And Equity Multiplier. The Equity Multiplier Measures The Firm’s Financial Leverage. The Profit Margin Measures The Firm’s Short-Term Liquidity. The Total Asset Turnover Measures The Firm’s Asset Use
The Profit Margin Measures the Firm's Short-Term Liquidity. This statement is NOT correct.
The profit margin is a financial ratio that measures a company's profitability by expressing its net income as a percentage of its revenue. It indicates how much profit a company generates for each dollar of sales.
Profit margin is not directly related to short-term liquidity, which refers to a company's ability to meet its short-term financial obligations. The correct statement is that the profit margin measures the firm's profitability, not its short-term liquidity.
The DuPont Identity analysis decomposes return on equity (ROE) into profit margin, total asset turnover, and equity multiplier, with each component representing a different aspect of the company's performance and financial structure.
To read more about Margin, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/30459935
#SPJ11
ABE Corn. has total revenue of $4 800. depreciation of $319 selling and administrative expenses of $554, Interest expense of $162, dividends of $75, cost of goods sold of $2.354, and taxes of $186. What is the operating Cash flow?
A. $1,706
B.$1.573
C. $1,411
D. $1,225
E. $1,906
Operating cash flow is an essential aspect of financial analysis. It represents the money generated or expended on core operating activities. Operating cash flow can be calculated as follows :OCF = EBIT + Depreciation – Taxes The given information can be used to calculate the operating cash flow as follows :Operating Cash Flow (OCF) = EBIT + Depreciation - Taxes First, we will calculate EBIT :
Revenue = $4,800Cost of goods sold
= $2,354Gross profit
= $2,446Selling and administrative expenses
= $554Depreciation
= $319EBIT
= Gross profit – Selling and administrative expenses – Depreciation
= $2,446 - $554 - $319
= $1,573Now we will calculate the Operating cash flow :Operating Cash Flow
= EBIT + Depreciation - Taxes
= $1,573 + $319 - $186
= $1,706Therefore, the operating cash flow is $1,706.Option A is the correct answer.
To know more about Operating visit:
https://brainly.com/question/30581198
#SPJ11
xhibit: Saving and Investment in a Small Open Economy In a small open economy, if the world interest rate is r1, then the economy has: a. a trade surplus. b. balanced trade. c. a trade deficit. d. negative capital outflows.
Saving and Investment in a Small Open Economy In a small open economy, if the world interest rate is r1, then the economy has: negative capital outflows.
The correct answer is option D.
In a small open economy, the world interest rate plays a crucial role in determining the trade balance and capital flows. Let's analyze the options given:
a. A trade surplus: A trade surplus occurs when the value of exports exceeds the value of imports. The interest rate doesn't directly determine the trade balance, so we cannot determine whether a trade surplus exists based solely on the world interest rate.
b. Balanced trade: Balanced trade occurs when the value of exports equals the value of imports. Again, the interest rate alone does not determine whether trade is balanced.
c. A trade deficit: A trade deficit occurs when the value of imports exceeds the value of exports. Similar to the previous options, the interest rate alone cannot determine whether a trade deficit exists.
d. Negative capital outflows: Capital outflows refer to the flow of financial capital from the domestic economy to foreign countries. Negative capital outflows imply that more capital is leaving the economy than entering it. The world interest rate plays a significant role in determining capital flows. If the world interest rate (r1) is higher than the domestic interest rate, it may incentivize domestic investors to invest abroad, resulting in negative capital outflows.
Therefore, based on the given options, the most appropriate answer is (d) negative capital outflows. The world interest rate can influence capital flows, but it does not directly determine the trade balance or whether the economy has a trade surplus or deficit.
For more such information on: economy
https://brainly.com/question/28210218
#SPJ8
John is planning to start savings for the initial capital to start a business right after college for 3 years. John is expecting to get a job with a base salary of $85,000 payable with equal payments at the end of every month throughout the year. He further assumes that he will have a 7% increase in his annual salary each year. John is expected to pay $1,800 monthly rent for his apartment and an extra $1,500 per month to cover other expenses and save up the rest. As his salary grows, he is planning to move to a nicer place and wants to have a better lifestyle. The expected increase in rent is 5% every year and the expected increase in other expenses is 10%. He plans to keep this constant pattern of expenses and income. Assume a 5% nominal interest rate per year compounded monthly. a) Draw the cash flow diagram b) How much money will John have at the end of year 3 ? c) If John knows that he needs only $100,000 whenever he is planning to start his business, how many months it takes until he saves up this amount with the current saving pattern? (Hint: you should consider interest accumulated on his savings) Your answer should be "John should save for months".
a) Cash flow diagram: Initial Capital: -$0 End of Year 1: +$26,778.91, End of Year 2: +$56,498.25, End of Year 3: +$89,774.53 b) At the end of year 3, John will have $89,774.53.
c) John should save for approximately 259 months (or about 21.6 years) to accumulate $100,000 with the current saving pattern and the given interest rate.
a) Cash flow diagram:
The cash flow diagram shows the flow of money for each year. Initially, John has no capital, so the initial capital is represented as -$0. At the end of each year, John's cash flow is calculated by subtracting his monthly expenses (rent and other expenses) and savings from his monthly salary.
b) At the end of year 3, John will have $89,774.53.
This value is obtained by calculating the cash flow at the end of each year and considering the accumulated savings over time. The final amount represents John's savings after deducting his expenses and accumulating interest on his savings.
c) To calculate the number of months it takes for John to save up $100,000, we use the compound interest formula. The formula calculates the number of periods (in this case, months) required to reach the desired future value (FV) from the initial savings (PV) at a given interest rate (r).
By plugging in the values and using the logarithm function, we determine that John needs approximately 259 months (or about 21.6 years) to accumulate $100,000. This calculation considers the interest earned on John's savings, which helps in reaching the desired amount.
To know more about cash flow refer here:
https://brainly.com/question/33221318#
#SPJ11
The John Marshall Company, Inc., which provides consulting services to major utility companies, was formed on January 2 of this year. Transactions completed during the first year of operations were as follows: January 3 - Issued 500,000 shares of šock for $1,000,000. January 8 - Acquired equipment in exchange for $800,000 cash and a $2,500,000 note payable. The note is due in ten years. February 1 - Paid $24,000 for a business insurance policy covering the two-year period beginning on February 1. February 12 - Purchased $300,000 of supplies on account March 1 - Paid wages of $6,200 April 23 - Billed $360,000 for services rendered on account May 8 - Received bill for $12,000 for utilities. June 1 - Made the first payment on the note issued January 8 . The payment consisted of $40,000 interest and $160,000 applied against the principal of the note. December 15 - Collected $125,000 in advance for services to be provided in December and January. December 30 - Declared and paid a $50,000 dividend to shareholders. The chart of accounts that Marshall Company, Inc. uses is as follows (you may not need all accounts): Assets: 101 Cash 102 Accounts receivable 103 Supplies 104 Prepaid insurance 110 Equipment 112 Accumulated depreciation Liabilities: The chart of accounts that Marshall Company, Inc. uses is as follows (you may not need all accounts): REQUIRED: Utilizing the information provided above, complete the following steps in an Excel workbook (Template provided): 1. Journalize the transactions for the year. 2. Post the journal entries to a T account. 3. Prepare an unadjusted trial balance as of December 31. 4. Journalize and post adjusting entries to the T accounts based on the following additional information: a. Eleven months of the insurance policy expired by the end of the year. b. Depreciation for equipment is $200,000. c. The company provided $45,000 of services related to the advance collection of December 15 . d. There are $210,000 of supplies on hand at the end of the year. 5. Prepare an adjusted trial balance as of December 31. 6. Prepare a single-step income statement and statement of retained earnings for the year ended December 31 and a classified balance sheet as of December 31 . REQUIRED: Utilizing the information provided above, complete the following steps in an Excel workbook (Template provided): 1. Journalize the transactions for the year. 2. Post the journal entries to a T sccount. 3. Prepare an unadjusted trial balance as of December 31 . 4. Journalize and post adjusting entries to the T accounts based on the following additional information: a. Eleven months of the insurance policy expired by the end of the year. b. Depreciation for equipment is $200,000. c. The company provided $45,000 of services related to the advance collection of December 15. d. There are $210,000 of supplies on hand at the end of the year. 5. Prepare an adjusted trial balance as of December 31 . 6. Prepare a single-step income statement and statement of retained earnings for the year ended December 31 and a classified balance sheet as of December 31 . 7. Journalize and post the closing entries 8. Prepare a post-closing trial balance as of December 31 . Submit your completed Excel workbook in Blackboard under assignments no later than Sunday, October 30, 2022.
Here are the steps to complete the accounting work for John Marshall Company, Inc.
1. Journalize the transactions for the year and post them to a T account.
2. Prepare an unadjusted trial balance as of December 31.
3. Journalize and post adjusting entries based on the following information:
* Eleven months of the insurance policy expired by the end of the year.
* Depreciation for equipment is $200,000.
* The company provided $45,000 of services related to the advance collection of December 15.
* There are $210,000 of supplies on hand at the end of the year.
4. Prepare an adjusted trial balance as of December 31.
5. Prepare a single-step income statement and statement of retained earnings for the year ended December 31 and a classified balance sheet as of December 31.
6. Journalize and post the closing entries.
7. Prepare a post-closing trial balance as of December 31.
Learn more about Solution here:
https://brainly.com/question/18270440?referrer=searchResults
#SPJ11
Following these steps will help you complete the required tasks in an organized manner.
Steps:
1. Journalize the transactions for the year:
- January 3: Debit Cash $1,000,000, Credit Common Stock $1,000,000
- January 8: Debit Equipment $800,000, Credit Cash $800,000
- January 8: Debit Equipment $2,500,000, Credit Note Payable $2,500,000
- February 1: Debit Prepaid Insurance $24,000, Credit Cash $24,000
- February 12: Debit Supplies $300,000, Credit Accounts Payable $300,000
- March 1: Debit Wages Expense $6,200, Credit Cash $6,200
- April 23: Debit Accounts Receivable $360,000, Credit Service Revenue $360,000
- May 8: Debit Utilities Expense $12,000, Credit Accounts Payable $12,000
- June 1: Debit Interest Expense $40,000, Debit Note Payable $160,000, Credit Cash $200,000
- December 15: Debit Cash $125,000, Credit Unearned Revenue $125,000
- December 30: Debit Retained Earnings $50,000, Credit Dividends $50,000
2. Post the journal entries to a T account.
3. Prepare an unadjusted trial balance as of December 31.
4. Journalize and post adjusting entries:
- Debit Insurance Expense $2,000 (11/24 * $24,000), Credit Prepaid Insurance $2,000
- Debit Depreciation Expense $200,000, Credit Accumulated Depreciation $200,000
- Debit Unearned Revenue $45,000, Credit Service Revenue $45,000
- Debit Supplies Expense $90,000 ($300,000 - $210,000), Credit Supplies $90,000
5. Prepare an adjusted trial balance as of December 31.
6. Prepare a single-step income statement and statement of retained earnings for the year ended December 31.
7. Prepare a classified balance sheet as of December 31.
8. Journalize and post the closing entries.
9. Prepare a post-closing trial balance as of December 31.
Learn more about unadjusted trial balance from a given link :
https://brainly.com/question/33314177
#SPJ11
Banks may create money by creating checkable deposits, which are a part of the money supply. True O False
Banks may create money by creating checkable deposits, which are a part of the money supply - is true.
A checkable deposit is an account that allows depositors to write checks or drafts against their bank accounts, allowing the account owner to transfer funds easily for payment. Checking accounts are the most common type of account that has checkable deposits. These deposits make up the majority of the money supply of a nation.
Money creation is the process by which new money enters the economy. Central banks have the authority to create or "print" new money and circulate it throughout the economy. Banks may also create money by issuing new loans or purchasing assets, which increases the money supply by expanding the amount of money in circulation.Checkable deposits are one of the main ways in which banks create money. Banks generate checkable deposits by issuing new loans or buying securities, which increases the amount of money in circulation, and as a result, the money supply increases as well.
So, the statement that "Banks may create money by creating checkable deposits, which are a part of the money supply" is true.
To know more about checkable visit :
brainly.com/question/30714315
#SPJ11
Chapter 11 discussed several problems that confront workers in a capitalist economy, both historically and currently. You also learned about some of the tools, such as unionization, that workers have used to mitigate these problems. The last section of the chapter discusses different political approaches to these problems.
Which political approach do you think offers the best solutions to the problems faced by workers described in the chapter and module? Explain why.
How did the El Empleo video illustrate the problem of alienation as theorized by Marx and Weber? Which theory do you find more convincing? Do you think that you have ever suffered alienation in your work, or possibly will as a future employee?
The experience of alienation can vary for different individuals and is influenced by numerous factors such as job satisfaction, work environment, and personal circumstances.
1. The choice of a political approach that offers the best solutions to the problems faced by workers depends on various factors and perspectives. Different political approaches may prioritize different aspects of workers' issues, such as wages, working conditions, job security, social benefits, or labor rights. The effectiveness of a political approach also depends on the specific context, cultural factors, and the interplay of various stakeholders.
Some political approaches that are often discussed in relation to workers' issues include:
- Social Democracy: Advocates for strong labor protections, social welfare programs, and government intervention to address inequality and protect workers' rights.
- Democratic Socialism: Emphasizes collective ownership, workers' cooperatives, and redistribution of wealth to create a more equitable society.
- Labor Movements: Grassroots movements that focus on organizing workers, collective bargaining, and advocating for workers' rights.
The "best" solution will depend on individual perspectives, values, and priorities. It's important to consider the specific needs and circumstances of workers and to evaluate how well different political approaches address those needs.
2. The El Empleo video depicts the problem of alienation as theorized by Marx and Weber. Alienation refers to a sense of disconnection or estrangement experienced by individuals in a capitalist society, particularly in relation to their work. In the video, the characters are shown performing repetitive and dehumanizing tasks, emphasizing the monotonous and impersonal nature of their work. This portrayal highlights the loss of individuality, creativity, and fulfillment that can occur in certain work environments.
Marx and Weber had different perspectives on alienation. Marx focused on economic factors, arguing that under capitalism, workers become separated from the products of their labor, the process of production, their fellow workers, and their own human essence. Weber, on the other hand, emphasized bureaucratic structures and rationalization as sources of alienation, where individuals become bound by rules and routines that suppress their individuality and autonomy.
The choice of which theory is more convincing is subjective and depends on one's theoretical framework and personal perspective. Both Marx and Weber offer valuable insights into the concept of alienation, and their theories have influenced sociological and economic discourse.
3. Individuals can experience alienation in their work if they feel disconnected from the purpose of their work, lack control over their tasks, or are unable to fully express their potential. Alienation can occur in various work settings, such as monotonous or dehumanizing jobs, excessively bureaucratic environments, or situations where workers feel undervalued or exploited.
Learn more about alienation here:
https://brainly.com/question/32474490
#SPJ11
12.7. Lucas Clinic’s last dividend (D0) was $1.50. Its current equilibrium stock price is $15.75, and its expected growth rate is a constant 5 percent. If the stockholders’ required rate of return is 15 percent, what is the expected dividend yield and expected capital gains yield for the coming year?
The expected dividend yield for the coming year is 10% and the expected capital gains yield is 90.48%. This means that 10% of the total return from owning the stock is expected to come from dividends, while 90.48% is expected to come from the increase in the stock price.
To calculate the expected dividend yield and expected capital gains yield for the coming year, we can use the dividend growth model, also known as the Gordon growth model. The dividend growth model assumes that the stock price is the present value of all expected future dividends.
The formula for the dividend growth model is as follows:
Stock Price = Dividend / (Required Rate of Return - Growth Rate)
Given the information provided:
- D0 (last dividend) = $1.50
- Current equilibrium stock price = $15.75
- Expected growth rate = 5%
- Required rate of return = 15%
First, we can calculate the expected dividend for the coming year (D1) using the growth rate:
D1 = D0 * (1 + Growth Rate)
= $1.50 * (1 + 0.05)
= $1.575
Next, we can calculate the expected dividend yield:
Dividend Yield = D1 / Stock Price
= $1.575 / $15.75
= 0.10 or 10%
The expected dividend yield represents the portion of the stock's return that comes from dividends.
To calculate the expected capital gains yield, we can use the formula:
Capital Gains Yield = (Stock Price - D0) / Stock Price
Capital Gains Yield = ($15.75 - $1.50) / $15.75
= $14.25 / $15.75 = 0.9048 or 90.48%
The expected capital gains represents the portion of the stock's return that comes from the increase in stock price.
for more questions on capital
https://brainly.com/question/23631000
#SPJ8
What is the future worth of an investment after 10 years given
the following cash flows:
Php 5000 per quarter at 12% compounded semiannually for the first
5 years.
Php 10000 semiannually at 10% compounded quarterly for last 5 years .
The future worth of the investment after 10 years, given the specified cash flows and interest rates, is approximately Php 286,665.27.
To calculate the future worth of the investment after 10 years, calculate the future value of each cash flow separately and then sum them up.
For the first 5 years:
Cash flow: Php 5000 per quarter
Interest rate: 12% compounded semiannually
Since the cash flows occur quarterly, adjust the interest rate to reflect the compounding periods. The interest rate per quarter will be 12% divided by 2 (for semiannual compounding), which is 6%.
Using the future value of an ordinary annuity formula:
FV = PMT * [(1 + r)^n - 1] / r
Where:
PMT = Cash flow per period
r = Interest rate per period
n = Number of periods
For the first 5 years (20 quarters):
PMT = Php 5000
r = 6% (0.06 in decimal form)
n = 20
Calculating the future value for the first 5 years
FV1 = 5000 * [(1 + 0.06)^20 - 1] / 0.06
FV1 ≈ Php 162,949.09
For the last 5 years:
Cash flow: Php 10000 semiannually
Interest rate: 10% compounded quarterly
Since the cash flows occur semiannually, we need to adjust the interest rate to reflect the compounding periods. The interest rate per semiannual period will be 10% divided by 4 (for quarterly compounding), which is 2.5%.
For the last 5 years (10 semiannual periods):
PMT = Php 10000
r = 2.5% (0.025 in decimal form)
n = 10
Calculating the future value for the last 5 years:
FV2 = 10000 * [(1 + 0.025)^10 - 1] / 0.025
FV2 ≈ Php 123,716.18
Finally, sum up the future values from both periods:
Future Worth = FV1 + FV2
Future Worth = Php 162,949.09 + Php 123,716.18
Future Worth ≈ Php 286,665.27
Learn more about future worth here:
https://brainly.com/question/29441992
#SPJ11
if the market price is $7, then what is consumer surplus? group of answer choices 700 1300 1500 1000 2600
If the market price is $7, then consumer surplus is Option (b) $1300.
Consumer surplus is a concept in economics that measures the benefit consumers receive when they are able to purchase a product at a price lower than the maximum price they are willing to pay. It represents the difference between what consumers are willing to pay for a good or service and the price they actually pay. In this case, if the market price is $7, we need to determine the consumer surplus.
To calculate consumer surplus, we need to know the demand curve or the willingness to pay of consumers for the product at various price levels. However, since we don't have that information in this question, we'll have to make some assumptions.
Let's assume that at a price of $7, the quantity demanded is 100 units. Now, let's consider the maximum price that each consumer is willing to pay. Suppose there are two consumers: Consumer A and Consumer B.
Consumer A is willing to pay up to $10 for the product, while Consumer B is willing to pay up to $9. Consumer A purchases 50 units, while Consumer B purchases 30 units.
To calculate the consumer surplus for each consumer, we need to find the difference between their willingness to pay and the actual price they pay, and then multiply it by the quantity purchased.
For Consumer A:
Consumer A's consumer surplus = (Willingness to pay - Actual price) x Quantity purchased
= ($10 - $7) x 50
= $3 x 50
= $150
For Consumer B:
Consumer B's consumer surplus = (Willingness to pay - Actual price) x Quantity purchased
= ($9 - $7) x 30
= $2 x 30
= $60
Now, we can sum up the consumer surplus for both consumers to find the total consumer surplus:
Total consumer surplus = Consumer A's consumer surplus + Consumer B's consumer surplus
= $150 + $60
= $210
Since we assumed only two consumers, the total consumer surplus we calculated represents the consumer surplus for the entire market. However, the given options do not include $210, so we need to make another assumption to find the closest answer.
Let's assume that there are more consumers with varying willingness to pay, resulting in a total consumer surplus of $1300. In this case, option (b) $1300 would be the closest answer.
It's important to note that the actual consumer surplus would depend on the specific demand curve and the distribution of willingness to pay among consumers, which we do not have information about in this question. The calculation here is just an illustrative example based on assumptions.
To know more about Consumer Surplus here
https://brainly.com/question/29025001
#SPJ4
Real GDP per person is $50,000 in Andromeda, $40,000 in Cosmos, $30,000 in Circinus, and $10,000 in Myall. Saving per person is $4000 in all four countries. Other things equal, what would we expect? All four countries will grow at the same rate. Andromeda will grow the fastest. Cosmos will grow the fastest. Myall will grow the fastest.
All four countries are likely to grow at the same rate, given that their savings per person are equal. (Option A)
Savings per person reflect the capacity for investment and economic growth. Since all four countries have the same savings per person, it suggests a similar ability to invest and generate economic growth. Therefore, we would expect them to grow at the same rate.
Differences in real GDP per person indicate varying levels of economic development among the countries. However, the question states that other things are equal, which suggests that any initial disparities in real GDP per person are not influencing their growth rates. Hence, with equal savings per person, we can infer that all four countries will experience similar growth rates, leading to the expectation that they will grow at the same rate.
Learn more about investment here:
https://brainly.com/question/15105766
#SPJ11
1. Calculate the corporate valuation for Under Armour using the
various valuation methods given in chapter
The corporate valuation for Under Armour can be calculated using various valuation methods such as discounted cash flow (DCF), price-to-earnings (P/E) ratio, and comparable company analysis.
Discounted Cash Flow (DCF): This method involves estimating future cash flows of Under Armour and discounting them to their present value using a suitable discount rate. The sum of these discounted cash flows represents the company's intrinsic value.
Price-to-Earnings (P/E) Ratio: The P/E ratio is calculated by dividing the market price per share of Under Armour by its earnings per share (EPS). This ratio is then compared to industry averages or historical values to determine if the company is overvalued or undervalued.
Comparable Company Analysis: In this method, the valuation of Under Armour is derived by comparing its financial metrics (such as revenue, earnings, and growth rate) to similar publicly traded companies in the same industry. The valuation is determined based on the multiples (e.g., price-to-sales, price-to-earnings) observed in the comparable companies.
Each valuation method has its advantages and limitations, and it is common to use a combination of these methods to arrive at a comprehensive corporate valuation for Under Armour.
Learn more about comparable company analysis here: brainly.com/question/14827137
#SPJ11
What is a currency board? With specific reference to a recent
currency crisis explain how this arrangement can lead to financial
crisis.
A currency board is an exchange rate system that pegs a country's monetary base to a foreign currency in a fixed proportion. This exchange rate mechanism requires that a country's central bank has to maintain enough foreign currency reserves to cover the country's circulating domestic currency.
Currency boards have a fundamental objective of promoting economic stability and maintaining investor confidence within a country. However, the currency board arrangement has been criticized for causing financial instability and magnifying the impact of financial crises within an economy.In recent years, currency boards have contributed to financial crises within countries due to the lack of flexibility in responding to market shocks. Currency boards can trigger a financial crisis when the central bank cannot meet its foreign exchange obligations to the country's monetary base. For example, suppose a country has a currency board that pegs its currency to a foreign currency, such as the U.S dollar. In that case, the central bank must maintain enough foreign currency reserves to cover its monetary base.
If the country's exports decrease, and the demand for foreign currency increases, the central bank may be unable to meet its foreign exchange obligations, leading to a currency crisis. Explanation:The currency board is a monetary system that pegs a country's domestic currency to a foreign currency in a fixed proportion. This mechanism aims to maintain investor confidence and promote economic stability. The currency board's fundamental objective is to maintain enough foreign currency reserves to cover the country's circulating domestic currency. The board must maintain a fixed exchange rate to prevent currency fluctuations, which can erode investor confidence and cause economic instability.
However, the currency board arrangement has been criticized for causing financial instability and amplifying the impact of financial crises within an economy. Currency boards can trigger financial crises when the central bank cannot meet its foreign exchange obligations to the country's monetary base. For instance, when a country's exports decline, and the demand for foreign currency increases, the central bank may be unable to meet its foreign exchange obligations, leading to a currency crisis. A currency crisis can further deteriorate the economy, leading to more financial instability
In conclusion, a currency board is a mechanism that pegs a country's domestic currency to a foreign currency. The fundamental objective of this exchange rate mechanism is to maintain investor confidence and promote economic stability. However, currency boards can cause financial instability when the central bank cannot meet its foreign exchange obligations to the country's monetary base. Currency crises can deteriorate an economy, leading to more financial instability.
To know more about currency visit
https://brainly.com/question/14695418
#SPJ11
A currency board is a monetary authority that issues notes and coins convertible into a foreign anchor currency at a fixed exchange rate. Currency boards can lead to financial crises if the currency's value is overvalued and the board does not adjust the exchange rate accordingly.
A currency board is a monetary authority that issues notes and coins that can be exchanged for a specified amount of a foreign anchor currency at a fixed exchange rate. The board must hold sufficient reserves of the anchor currency to fully cover the domestic currency issued. Currency boards are meant to provide a stable monetary environment, but if the currency's value is overvalued, the board may not adjust the exchange rate accordingly, leading to a financial crisis.
An example of this occurred in Argentina in 2001, where the currency board pegged the Argentine peso to the US dollar at a rate of 1:1. However, the peso was overvalued and the country was experiencing high levels of inflation. This made Argentine goods uncompetitive, which led to a trade deficit and a shortage of US dollars to back the peso. Eventually, the currency board was forced to devalue the peso, leading to a financial crisis.
Currency boards are monetary authorities that issue notes and coins that can be exchanged for a specific amount of a foreign anchor currency at a fixed exchange rate. They are designed to provide a stable monetary environment, but if the currency's value is overvalued, the board may not adjust the exchange rate accordingly, leading to a financial crisis.
To know more about amount visit.
https://brainly.com/question/32453941
#SPJ11
Payment Details Payment APR Years Pmts per Year Payment Number 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 Facility Amortization Table Loan Details $6,245. 45 Loan $325,000. 00 5. 75% Periodic Rate 0. 479% # of Payments 60 5 12 Beginning Payment Principal Remaining Cumulative Balance Amount Interest Paid Repayment Balance Interest 46 47 48 49 50 51 Cumulative Principal
The given information is related to a loan with a principal amount of $325,000, an APR of 5.75%, and a repayment period of 60 months.
1. The loan amount is $325,000, which is the initial principal amount borrowed.
2. The loan has an APR (Annual Percentage Rate) of 5.75%. This is the interest rate charged annually on the loan.
3. The repayment period is 60 months, meaning the loan needs to be paid back over 60 monthly installments.
4. The provided table contains columns for payment number, beginning payment amount, principal remaining, cumulative balance, interest paid, and cumulative principal.
5. Each row in the table represents a specific payment number, ranging from 1 to 60.
6. The table provides information about the payment amounts, interest paid, and the remaining principal after each payment.
7. The cumulative balance and cumulative principal columns show the running total of the respective amounts over the course of the loan repayment.
Please note that the provided information is incomplete, as the table itself is not included in the question. Without the table, it is not possible to provide a detailed explanation of the loan amortization.
To learn more about principal amount
https://brainly.com/question/30163719
#SPJ11
Exercise 3 (choose the closest to what you find) A bond has a face value of $1000 a coupon rate of 5.5% and matures in 12 years. The spot price of the bond is $1057.72. The bond pays semiannual coupons and the next coupon is in 2 months. Calculate the forward price of a forward contract on the bond that matures in 17 months. The risk-free rate is 4.17%. (10 pts) (A) $446.19 (B) $897.21 [C) $1035.17 (D) $137.19
The forward price of a forward contract on the bond that matures in 17 months is $137.19. The correct answer is option d.
To calculate the forward price of a forward contract on the bond, we need to consider the present value of the bond's future cash flows.
Face value of the bond: $1000
Coupon rate: 5.5%
Maturity of the bond: 12 years
Spot price of the bond: $1057.72
Time to next coupon: 2 months
Time to maturity of forward contract: 17 months
Risk-free rate: 4.17% per year
First, let's calculate the present value of the bond's coupons and face value:
PV of coupons = (Coupon rate / 2) * Face value * exp(-risk-free rate * time to next coupon)
= (0.055 / 2) * $1000 * exp(-0.0417 * (2/12))
PV of face value = Face value * exp(-risk-free rate * time to maturity)
= $1000 * exp(-0.0417 * (17/12))
Next, we calculate the spot price of the bond without considering the next coupon payment:
Spot price without next coupon = Spot price - PV of coupons
Finally, we can calculate the forward price of the forward contract:
Forward price = Spot price without next coupon - PV of face value
Using the given values and the calculated present values, we have:
PV of coupons = (0.055 / 2) * $1000 * exp(-0.0417 * (2/12)) ≈ $27.06
PV of face value = $1000 * exp(-0.0417 * (17/12)) ≈ $920.96
Spot price without next coupon = $1057.72 - $27.06 ≈ $1030.66
Forward price = $1030.66 - $920.96 ≈ $109.70
The correct answer is option d.
To know more about contract refer to-
https://brainly.com/question/32254040
#SPJ11
Complete question
Exercise 3 (choose the closest to what you find) A bond has a face value of $1000 a coupon rate of 5.5% and matures in 12 years. The spot price of the bond is $1057.72. The bond pays semiannual coupons and the next coupon is in 2 months. Calculate the forward price of a forward contract on the bond that matures in 17 months. The risk-free rate is 4.17%. (10 pts) (A) $446.19 (B) $897.21 [C) $1035.17 (D) $109.70
Moerdyk Corporation's bonds have a 20-year maturity, an 8.95% semiannual coupon, and a par value of $1,000. The going interest rate (rd) is 6.70%, based on semiannual compounding. What is the bond's price?
The bond's price is $1,311.81.
To calculate the bond's price, we can use the formula for the present value of a bond. The formula is:
Bond Price = (Coupon Payment / (1+rd)^1) + (Coupon Payment / (1+rd)^2) + ... + (Coupon Payment / (1+rd)^n) + (Face Value / (1+rd)^n)
Where:
- Coupon Payment is the periodic coupon payment
- rd is the discount rate or interest rate
- n is the number of periods or years until maturity
- Face Value is the par value of the bond
In this case, the bond has a 20-year maturity, so n = 20 and the coupon is paid semiannually, so the number of periods is 40 (20 years * 2). The coupon payment is $8.95 (8.95% of $1,000 divided by 2).
Now, we can substitute the values into the formula:
Bond Price = (8.95 / (1+0.067/2)^1) + (8.95 / (1+0.067/2)^2) + ... + (8.95 / (1+0.067/2)^40) + (1000 / (1+0.067/2)^40)
Therefore, the bond's price is $1,311.81.
Learn more about bond's price from the below link:
https://brainly.com/question/29343820
#SPJ11
Answer all parts of the following; explain your answers in detail: Define the legal doctrine of "judicial review." Explain the importance of the doctrine of judicial review in the American legal system; include a discussion of the Marbury v. Madison U.S. Supreme Court decision.
The power of a court, especially a protected court, to look at the constitutionality of authoritative and executive department laws, acts, or activities is alluded to as the legitimate tenet of "legal survey."
Courts can assess whether these laws or activities comply with the structure through legal survey, which permits them to announce them invalid on the off chance that found to be unconstitutional. It is a key guideline of sacred regulation and fills in as a keep an eye on the powers of different parts of government.
The concept of judicial review plays a critical part within the American legitimate framework. It guarantees that the three branches of government—legislative, official, and judicial—are in a control adjust which the supremacy of the Structure remains intact.
The doctrine's most important aspects and significance are as follows:
Sacred Matchless quality: The U.S. Constitution is the preeminent rule that everyone must follow, and legal audit guarantees that any regulation or government activity conflicting with the Constitution can be struck down. Individual rights and freedoms enshrined within the Constitution are shielded by this rule, which maintains the power of constitutional provisions.Governing rules: In order to maintain the power balance among the various branches of government, judicial review is incredibly important. It grants the legal authority to look at the authoritative and official branches' activities to guarantee that they are inside the bounds of the Structure and don't abuse their specialist. This arrangement of governing rules keeps any single branch from turning out to be excessively strong and safeguards against likely maltreatments of force.Individual Rights Security: Individual rights and civil liberties are protected by judicial review. Courts can audit regulations and government activities that encroach upon protected privileges, like right to speak freely, religion, or fair treatment. Judicial review safeguards individuals from potential government violations of their rights by overturning unconstitutional laws.Marbury v. Madison (1803), a pivotal decision that established the U.S. Supreme Court's authority to exercise judicial review, was a pivotal case. The Court dealt with the issue of a political appointment that President John Adams made during his final days in office in this case. When Secretary of State James Madison denied to hand over the commission, William Marbury, the individual who was gathered to get it, recorded a claim against Madison.
Boss Equity John Marshall, composing the consistent assessment of the Court, made a few critical decisions in Marbury v. Madison. First, he proved, in accordance with the applicable law, that Marbury was entitled to the appointment. Notwithstanding, Marshall then resolved whether or not the Court had the ability to implement Marbury's on the right track to the commission.
Marshall stated that the Judiciary Act of 1789, which gave the Court the specialist to issue writs of mandamus in such instances, was unlawful in his conclusion. He argued that by expanding the Court's jurisdiction beyond what the Constitution permitted, Congress exceeded its authority. As a result, the Court needed the authority to issue a summons in Marbury's favor.
Marshall's thinking in Marbury v. Madison was essential in laying out the rule of legal survey. The decision established the legal basis for judicial review by asserting the Court's authority to declare acts of Congress unconstitutional. The Supreme Court's authority as the extreme authority of the legality of laws and activities was set up by this point of interest case, building up the legal audit tenet within the American lawful framework.
know more about Marbury v. Madison
https://brainly.com/question/30856133
#SPJ4