September 29, 2018: Total liabilities = $269.1 billion; Total assets = $365.2 billion; Debt ratio = 73.7%. September 30, 2017: Total liabilities = $229.2 billion; Total assets = $323.3 billion; Debt ratio = 71.1%. It employed more financial leverage in September 30, 2017.
What is financial leverage?
The theory used in this question is financial leverage, which is the use of debt to increase the return on equity. The company's debt ratio is used to measure the amount of financial leverage employed. A higher debt ratio indicates that the company has employed more financial leverage.
The steps for this process are as follows:
Step 1: Refer to Apple’s financial statements in the Appendix A.
Step 2: Look for the total liabilities and total assets for each of the fiscal years ended September 29, 2018 and September 30, 2017.
Step 3: Calculate the debt ratio for each of the fiscal years by dividing total liabilities by total assets.
Step 4: Compare the debt ratio for each fiscal year. The fiscal year with the higher debt ratio indicates that the company employed more financial leverage.
Detailed answer given below
For the fiscal year ended September 29, 2018, Apple reported total liabilities of $257.8 billion and total assets of $377.9 billion.
For the fiscal year ended September 30, 2017,
Apple reported total liabilities of $230.8 billion and total assets of $348.9 billion.
The debt ratio for the fiscal year ended September 29, 2018 is 68.3% (257.8 / 377.9).
The debt ratio for the fiscal year ended September 30, 2017 is 66.2% (230.8 / 348.9).
Apple employed more financial leverage in the fiscal year ended September 30, 2017.
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which of the following statements is correct regarding the effect of the generation-skipping transfer tax (gstt) and the transferor's spouse? a) only an individual who is currently married to the transferor will always be deemed to be in the same generation as the transferor regardless of the difference in their ages. b) only an individual who is currently married to the transferor at the time of the transfer will always be deemed to be in the same generation as the transferor. c) any individual who has been married at any time to the transferor is always deemed to be in the same generation as the transferor regardless of the difference in their ages or whether they are married or have been divorced at the time of the transfer. d) a transferor may make a generation-skipping transfer to any individual who has been married at any time to the transferor without restriction.
Only an individual who is currently married to the transferor will always be deemed to be in the same generation as the transferor regardless of the difference in their ages statements is correct regarding the effect of the generation-skipping transfer tax (gstt).
What is generation-skipping tax?
The generation-skipping tax (GST), sometimes known as the generation-skipping transfer tax, forbids you from intentionally omitting your children from your estate plan in favor of younger generations in order to avoid any estate taxes that might be owed once your children pass away. When someone transfers assets to a "skip person," either during their lifetime or after death, the generation-skipping tax is activated.
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Assume that a company produced 10,000 units and sold 8,000 units during its first year of operations. It has also provided the following information: Per Unit Per Year Selling price $ 240 Direct materials $ 85 Direct labor $ 60 Variable manufacturing overhead $ 10 Sales commission $ 11 Fixed manufacturing overhead $ ? Fixed selling and administrative expense $ 250,000 If the company’s unit product cost under absorption costing is $208, then what is the amount of fixed manufacturing overhead per year?
The amount of fixed manufacturing overhead per year is $390,000
How to Calculate the unit cost?Cost of goods sold and unit costs are equivalent terms (COGS).
The costs both fixed and variable involved in producing a good or service are all included in this accounting measure.
Direct material per unit = $85
Direct labor per unit = $60
Variable manufacturing overhead per unit = $10
Fixed manufacturing overhead per unit = ?
Unit product cost = $194
Unit product cost = Direct material per unit + Direct labor per unit + Variable manufacturing overhead per unit + Fixed manufacturing overhead per unit
194 = 85 + 60 + 10 + Fixed manufacturing overhead per unit
Fixed manufacturing overhead per unit = $39
Number of units produced = 10,000
Total Fixed manufacturing overheads = Fixed manufacturing overhead per unit x Number of units produced
= 39 x 10,000
= $390,000
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mohammad ishaque has checked his credit report with experian and believes there is an error in it. which consumer protection law specifies that he has the right to have incorrect information reinvestigated and removed?
According to the Fair Credit Reporting Act, he has the right to have false information examined and erased.
What precisely is the Fair Credit Reporting Act?The Fair Credit Reporting Act is a piece of law adopted by the United States Federal Government to improve the truth, fairness, and privacy of consumer information kept in the files of consumer reporting organizations. It was designed to protect customers from the intentional and/or careless inclusion of incorrect data in their credit reports. The FCRA governs the acquisition, transmission, and use of consumer information, including consumer credit information, to that goal. The FCRA, together with the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act, is the cornerstone of consumer rights legislation in the United States. It was enacted in 1970 and is enforced by the Federal Trade Commission, the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, and private plaintiffs in the United States.
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in a swot analysis, the prospect of entering new markets and launching new products would be listed under _______.
a. threats b. weaknesses c. opportunities d. strengths
Opportunities in a SWOT analysis might include the potential for expanding into new markets and introducing new goods.
What are some applications of SWOT analysis?The SWOT analysis measures a company's strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. The internal strengths and weaknesses of your business are aspects over which you have some control and where improvements may be made. Examples include your team members, your patents and intellectual property, and where you are.
Which four areas does SWOT analysis cover?Strength, Weakness, Opportunity, and Threat, or SWOT, are its initials. A SWOT analysis helps you pinpoint the advantages and disadvantages (S-W) of your company as well as potential threats and opportunities (O-T). Gaining a more complete understanding of the issue is beneficial for both strategic planning and decision-making.
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while moving on the production possibilities frontier, if the opportunity cost of producing one good is 1/2, the opportunity cost of producing the other good (in the same range) is
The opportunity cost of producing one good is the amount of the other good that must be given up in order to produce an additional unit of the first good.
If the opportunity cost of producing one good is 1/2, it means that for every additional unit of the first good produced, half a unit of the second good must be given up. On a production possibilities frontier, this is represented by a slope of -1/2.
The opportunity cost of producing the other good in the same range would also be 1/2. This is because the production possibilities frontier represents the maximum output of one good that can be produced for every possible level of output of the other good. If the opportunity cost of producing one good is 1/2, it means that the two goods are close to each other in terms of production efficiency, so the opportunity cost of producing the other good would also be 1/2.
In other words, the slope of PPF is negative and equal to the ratio of the opportunity cost of one good over the other. As the slope is -1/2, this implies that the opportunity cost of producing one good is 1/2, and the opportunity cost of producing the other good is also 1/2.
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4. assets taken out of a business for the personal use of the owner are called (a) net income. (b) net loss. (c) investments. (d) withdrawals.
Assets taken out of a business for the personal use of the owner are called (c) investments.
Investments could include withdrawing funds from a business account to purchase items for personal use, or taking out a loan from the business in order to make a personal purchase.
The tax implications of such investments should be carefully considered, as the owner may be liable for tax on the income generated from these investments. It is also important to remember that the funds taken out of the business must be repaid in order for the business to remain financially viable.
Taking out investments without proper planning could lead to significant financial losses for the business.
Assets taken out of a business for the personal use of the owner are called investments. These can range from stocks and bonds to real estate and cash. Investing in your business is a great way to ensure its long-term growth and success.
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sarah is an actively licensed broker for xyz realty, a registered real estate brokerage corporation. she has an opportunity to buy an existing real estate corporation, bbd realty, inc., in a town which is located 25 miles away. sarah wants to become the only broker for both corporations; however, she does not wish to change the name or combine the two corporations. how may sarah accomplish this?
She has the chance to purchase BBD Realty, Inc., an existing real estate company in a town 25 miles away.
Which company can legitimately apply to become a real estate brokerage?Joint ventures and corporations cannot register as real estate brokers. To provide brokerage services, a general partnership may apply for registration with the DBPR. True partnerships do not exist in apparent or quasi-partnerships.
What responsibilities does the broker have to the client?When a broker becomes a client's fiduciary, he or she has a duty to treat the client's account with the utmost good faith, reasonable care, and loyalty. The broker also has a responsibility to stay informed of market changes that could affect the interests of the client, to act responsibly to protect those interests, and to keep the client's account in good standing.
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the central bank of hamsterville requires banks to keep 20 % 20 , percent of deposit accounts on reserve at the central bank. assume all money is kept in banks and banks keep no excess reserves. what is the maximum increase in the money supply that occurs if the monetary base increases by $ 100 $100dollar sign, 100? choose 1 answer: choose 1 answer: (choice a) a $ 20 , 000 $20,000dollar sign, 20, comma, 000 (choice b) b $ 100 $100dollar sign, 100 (choice c) c $ 500 $500dollar sign, 500 (choice d) d $ 1 , 000 $1,000dollar sign, 1, comma, 000 (choice e) e $ 400 $400
$500 is the maximum increase in the money supply that occurs if the monetary base increases by $100
What is meant by money supply?The entire amount of money owned by the general population at a specific period is referred to as the money supply in macroeconomics.There are many ways to define "money," but common measures typically comprise circulation-level money and demand deposits. The total amount of money—cash, coins, and balances in bank accounts—in circulation is referred to as the money supply. The money supply is typically thought of as a collection of secure assets that individuals, businesses, and governments can use to make payments or hold as short-term investments. The money aggregates, sometimes known as M1, M2, and M3, are measurements of the US money supply. Money in circulation (M1) also includes bank checkable deposits. M2 consists of M1 plus savings deposits (less than $100,000) and money market mutual funds.To learn more about money supply refer to:
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you meet a friend of yours for lunch. he is a supplier of coffee machines. while talking business, you mention to him that you've decided to use the principles of supply and demand to determine the market price for the coffee you plan to sell at your kiosk on campus. he suggests that you're making a lot of work for yourself, and you should just set your price based on the prices charged by your competitors. however, you're apprehensive about using that approach. which would be the best argument in favor of your decision to use the principles of supply and demand? select an option from the choices below and click submit. the market price that you determine by using the principles of supply and demand will be accurate and will ensure a high market share. using the principles of supply and demand, data is less expensive than spending time and resources to learn about the prices charged by your competitors. the price your competitors charge is based on the costs that they incur and the market in which they operate, and these may be different from yours.
The price your competitors charge is based on the costs that they incur and the market in which they operate, and these may be different from yours would be the best argument in favor of your decision to use the principles of supply and demand.
What is the law of supply?
The supply rule is a micro - economic principle that states that if the price of a good or provider rises, suppliers will provides more of those products or services, and vice versa.
What is the demand guiding principles?
Consumers will demand fewer units of a good at a higher cost, according to the demand rule, which is a cornerstone of economics. Demand is driven by the law of diminishing marginal utility which states that consumers use economic commodities to satisfy their most pressing wants first.
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diane made a one-year loan to john that specified a 10 percent nominal interest rate. at the end of one year, the inflation rate was 20 percent. this caused diane to receive a negative ex post real interest rate. diane was a victim of:
Diane experienced a negative ex post real interest rate as a result. Diane suffered from: the social cost of unexpected inflation.
An interest rate is the percentage of a loan, deposit, or borrowing that must be paid in interest each period (called the principal sum). The total amount of interest charged depends on the amount lent or borrowed, the interest rate, the frequency of compounding, and the length of time it was lent, deposited, or borrowed. The annual interest rate is the rate that is determined over a year. Other interest rates, such as monthly or daily rates, also apply but are typically annualized. A dollar of now [income] is preferred over a dollar of future [income], and this preference is reflected in the interest rate.
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All of the following are part of the FASB conceptual framework: (Select all that apply).A,Multiple select question.B,ElementsC, ObjectivesD, Recognition and measurementE, Assumptions
A,C,D, and E are all part of the FASB conceptual framework. The elements of the framework include assets, liabilities, equity, income, expenses, and gains and losses
What is liabilities ?Liabilities are a company's financial obligations or debts. They are usually listed on a company's balance sheet and can include items such as accounts payable, loans, mortgages, deferred revenues, and accrued expenses. Liabilities also represent the future sacrifices of economic benefits that an entity is required to make to other entities in order to settle a present obligation.
The objectives of the framework are to provide the basis for making accounting decisions, to guide the selection of accounting policies, and to provide a useful tool for resolving accounting issues. The recognition and measurement component of the framework includes the recognition and measurement of assets, liabilities, and equity, as well as the recognition and measurement of income and expenses. Finally, the assumptions component of the framework includes the economic entity assumption, the going concern assumption, the periodicity assumption, and the monetary unit assumption
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net income is the amount you get paid before taxes.
It is calculated by subtracting all of your expenses from your total revenue. Net income is also known as "net profit" or "net earnings".
What is net income calculated by?
Net income is determined by deducting total expenses from total revenue. Total expenses include all costs associated with running a business, such as purchases, wages, and taxes.
Total revenue includes all of the money a company brings in from sales, investments, and other sources. Net income is calculated by taking the total revenue and subtracting all of the expenses associated with running the business.
This calculation is important because it provides a measure of how profitable the company is. It can be used to inform decisions on how to allocate resources and help identify areas of improvement. Additionally, it is used to calculate dividends and other distributions of company profits.
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if the function describing one of the charlie's indifference curves is 100/a what is the equation for the mrs for this indifference curve?
U(Xa, Xb) can be used to denote a utility function. You can calculate MRS by using (Xa, Xb) as a point on the indifference curve to determine the MRS. MRS, for instance, equals -Xa/Xb.
What is the indifference curve's formula?
In algebraic terms, g(t, c) is a decreasing and convex function of t for a given c if we rewrite the equation for an indifference curve U(t, y)=c in the form y=g(t, c).
How is the MRS of a utility function determined?
Therefore, the MRS can be calculated by multiplying this expression by -1 and dividing the utility function's partial derivative with respect to x1 by its partial derivative with respect to x2.
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Type the correct answer in the box. Spell all words correctly. Karan works at a shoe store where the latest trends in shoes are displayed. Down the road from his store, two more stores opened up and began selling similar styles of shoes. His store no longer has a monopoly in shoes on that road. What would happen to the price of shoes in Karan's area?
The correct answer is price "de-escalation".
I got it right.
select the three approaches marketers use to change consumer attitudes toward products and brands. multiple select question. change how consumers interact with the product or brand change the perceived importance of attributes change beliefs about the extent to which a brand has certain attributes add new attributes to the product
The three approaches marketers use to change consumer attitudes toward products and brands are changing beliefs about the extent to which a brand has certain attributes
2. changing the perceived importance of attributes;
3. adding new attributes to a product
Option B,C and D is correct.
What factors have changed consumers' attitudes?A consumer's attitude is also influenced by their state of mind, such as sadness, happiness, rage, or stress. Conative Component: The final component is the conative component, which is a person's likelihood or intention toward a specific product.
What three factors influence consumer attitudes?There are three components to the tri component model of attitudes: a cognitive, emotional, and interpersonal component. A consumer's knowledge and perceptions (i.e., beliefs) regarding products and services are captured by the cognitive component.
Question is incomplete:
select the three approaches marketers use to change consumer attitudes toward products and brands. multiple select question.
A. change how consumers interact with the product or brand
B. change the perceived importance of attributes
C. change beliefs about the extent to which a brand has certain attributes
D. add new attributes to the product
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yellow co. received a large worker's compensation claim of $90,000 in the third quarter for an injury occurring in the third quarter. how should yellow account for the transaction in its interim financial report?
Yellow account for the transaction in its interim financial report $90,000 in the third quarter
What is GAAP?The U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission adopted the accounting standard known as Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, and businesses with U.S. locations often employ it by default. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP or US GAAP) is a group of widely used standards and accounting regulations for financial reporting.GAAP aims to harmonize the categorizations, presumptions, and accounting practices utilized throughout US businesses. The information on an organization's finances is meant to be comprehensible, reliable, and comparative. Objectivity, materiality, consistency, and prudence are the four fundamental limitations imposed by GAAP. Aspects of objectivity include things like the independence of the auditor and the verifiability of the data. The FASB has established a set of accounting standards known as GAAP, which U.S. businesses must adhere to when creating financial statements. The goal of GAAP is to make financial information more understandable, reliable, and comparable.To learn more about GAAP refer to:
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how did southern democrats most likely react to stephen douglas’s freeport doctrine?
A Federal Slave Code was demanded by the South as a result of the Freeport Doctrine. They demanded that the Federal Government ensure the right to slavery in all territories.
Why was Douglas Plan a source of ire for politicians from the southern states?Democrats in the South worried Stephen Douglas' support for popular sovereignty would not go down well with southern voters. While popular sovereignty gave people the power to decide whether to allow slavery in their country, it did not guarantee that newly created states would agree to allow slavery to spread throughout the west.
What possible harm could the Freeport Doctrine do to Douglas' political reforms in the South?Douglas's reaction, in which he claimed that slavery could only continue in places with support from local police restrictions, is where the Freeport Doctrine was derived.
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write
the full abbreviation of franco
Applied to several adjectives and nouns, with or against France war between France and Germany.
What is an acronym's entire form?a printed word or phrase that has been abbreviated and substituted for its entirety. Amount is denoted by the abbreviation "amt. the act or outcome of shortening something: abridgment. "USA" is an abbreviation for "United States of America.
What is Paris's complete name?The Industrial Property Rights Paris Convention.
What does the term "foreign office" stand for?Over 14,000 individuals serve in approximately 270 diplomatic offices across The Foreign & Commonwealth Office's (FCO) global network of embassies and consulates.
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True or False
1. Dividends paid to corporate stockholders have already been taxed once as corporate income
2. One advantage of the corporate form of organization is that income received by stockholders is not taxable since the corporation already paid taxes on the income distributed.
3. A corporation must have more than 100 stockholders to qualify for Subchapter S designation.
4. Corporate governance issues have become less important to the financial community during the first decade of the new millennium.
5. Agency theory assumes that corporate managers act to increase the wealth of corporate shareholders.
6. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act is primarily intended to increase public scrutiny of private companies that had previously been exempt from many public disclosure requirements.
7. The primary market includes the sale of securities by way of initial public offerings
Answers are 1. False, 2. False, 3. False, 4. False, 5. True, 6. False, and 7. True.
Why the statements true or false in the given question?1. True - Dividends paid to corporate stockholders have already been taxed once as corporate income. This is because when a corporation earns income, it must pay corporate income taxes on that income. Any remaining profits are then distributed to shareholders in the form of dividends, which are then taxed again as dividend income.
2. False - One advantage of the corporate form of organization is that income received by stockholders is not taxable since the corporation already paid taxes on the income distributed. This is not true because when a corporation distributes its profits to shareholders, those profits are taxed as dividends at the individual shareholder's income tax rate.
3. False - A corporation must have more than 100 stockholders to qualify for Subchapter S designation. This is not true because a Subchapter S corporation can have as few as one shareholder.
4. False - Corporate governance issues have become less important to the financial community during the first decade of the new millennium. On the contrary, corporate governance has become increasingly important as corporate scandals have become more prevalent.
5. True - Agency theory assumes that corporate managers act to increase the wealth of corporate shareholders. This is because it is the fiduciary responsibility of corporate managers to act in the best interest of shareholders.
6. False - The Sarbanes-Oxley Act is primarily intended to increase public scrutiny of private companies that had previously been exempt from many public disclosure requirements. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act is actually intended to increase the accountability and transparency of public companies by increasing the requirements for disclosure and reducing the freedom of corporate managers to make decisions without oversight.
7. True - The primary market includes the sale of securities by way of initial public offerings. An initial public offering (IPO) is when a company first offers its securities to the public. It is the first time the company has offered securities to the public and is the primary market for the company's securities.
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which peripheral device is best for capturing a customer's signature when they check out at a convenience store or supermarket?
Electronic signature pads and ID card design software can be used to add signatures to the front or back of ID cards and badges.
What is a signature pad used for?Signatures can be added to the front or back of ID cards and badges using electronic signature pads and ID card design software. In addition to these additional uses, signature pads are also used to sign papers that are stored electronically. Input devices, output devices, and storage devices make up the three categories of peripherals that are most frequently used.
An external or internal device that is directly connected to a computer or other digital device is referred to as a peripheral device if it has a purpose other than the computer's main one, which is to perform computations. It facilitates the usage of a computer's features by end users.
A computer's peripheral, also known as a peripheral device, is an auxiliary tool used to input and output data.
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in addition to cost, quality and access, which can be considered a building block of health systems?
Answer:
Another building block of health systems is organization and governance. This includes the structure and management of the health system, as well as the policies and regulations that govern it. Additionally, Human Resources for Health (HRH) is also considered as one of the building block of health systems. This includes the availability and training of healthcare personnel, as well as their distribution and deployment within the system.
If I helped you, could you please make my answer as best?
what is the purpose of the auditor? multiple choice question. to report taxable income to the irs. to provide investment advice. to add credibility to the financial statements.
The auditing is done to give the financial statements more credibility and to give the users of the financial statements an independent auditor's view on whether or not the financial statements are presented fairly in compliance with the applicable financial reporting framework.
An independent auditor's opinion on whether the financial statements are honestly presented in compliance with the appropriate financial reporting framework is provided to users of financial statements as part of the audit process. An audit is the examination of an organization's accounting records by an auditor, who may then physically examine the inventory to ensure that transactions are accurately documented and tally with what is stated in the book of accounts. To assess the veracity of financial accounts, work is being done.
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does the miner pool have to actibvely verify that a transaction is valid or do the computers automatically do it
The block is invalid if a miner includes an invalid transaction in it, so they must either validate the transaction themselves or believe that it wouldn't have traveled across the network to get to them if it weren't genuine.
Due to the fact that every Bitcoin node on the network validates transactions and refuses to transmit them to other nodes if they are invalid, the latter technique isn't truly terrible. The likelihood of an incorrect transaction reaching a miner after being broadcast to a randomly chosen node is vanishingly small.
Due to the fact that finding the next valid block is effectively a "race" amongst all miners, the latter is what the majority of them do.
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4. how much would you have to deposit into an account earning 8% if you wanted to be able to withdraw $100 per year, forever?
The answer in this case would be $1,250. This amount would have to be deposited to reach the required withdrawal amount of $100 each year. If you wanted to withdraw $100 per year from an account that earns 8% interest, you would need to deposit at least $1,250.
This is because you would have to take the required withdrawal amount ($100) and divide it by the rate of return (8%). That $1,250 would then earn 8% interest, providing $100 in income. That $100 of income would be available for withdrawal each year, while the remaining balance would remain in the account earning 8% interest. This process would be repeated each year, providing the required withdrawal amount of $100.
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which of the following illustrates a major problem with using gross domestic product as a measure of national productivity? group of answer choices it ignores resource depletion and pollution. it ignores population growth. it is highly unreliable. it overvalues environmental costs.
The correct response is a. it ignores resource depletion and pollution.
Pollution is the term for when pollutants are introduced into the natural processes of the environment and cause negative change. Any substance, whether solid, liquid, or gas, or energy, can be considered a kind of pollution (such as radioactivity, heat, sound, or light). The constituents of pollution, known as pollutants, might be either naturally existing contaminants or substances or energy that are not of our own making. Despite the fact that natural disasters can result in environmental contamination, the word pollution often suggests that the toxins are manmade, or that they came from human activity. The two primary types of pollution are point source pollution and nonpoint source pollution. In 2015, pollution was responsible for the deaths of nine million people globally. (one death for every six) In 2019, there was no real evidence of effort being made to reduce pollution, so this situation persisted. 34 of these previous deaths were brought on by air pollution.
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Which of the following illustrates a major problem with using gross domestic product as a measure of national productivity?
a) It ignores resource depletion and pollution. b) It ignores population growth.
c) It is highly unreliable. d) It overvalues environmental costs.
a 3-year 6% bond pays its coupons semi-annually, and is currently trading at 90.36, what is the yield to maturity on the bond
In this case, the YTM of the bond is 6.7%. This means that if an investor buys the bond at its current market price of 90.36 and holds it until maturity, he will earn a yield of 6.7%.
Annual Coupon rate = 6%
Semi-annual coupon rate = 3%
Par Value = $100
Price = 90.36
Now, we need to use the formula to calculate the YTM
YTM = i = (2*C + P - F)/(2*F + P)
where C = coupon payment, P = current market price, and F = face value
i = (2*3 + 90.36 - 100)/(2*100 + 90.36) = 0.067
YTM = 6.7%
A bond's yield to maturity (YTM) is the rate of return achieved by an investor who buys a bond at its current market price and holds it until the maturity date. In this case, the bond is a 3-year 6% bond that pays its coupons semi-annually and is currently trading at 90.36. By plugging in the required inputs (coupon rate, market price, face value, maturity, and frequency of payments), we can determine the bond's YTM.
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awareness of the purposes of insurance coverage and how to best use the types of insurance available is called
The level of risk or responsibility that an individual or business has via the use of insurance services is known as insurance coverage.
The insurance policy, which establishes the claims that the insurer is legally obligated to pay, is a contract between the insurer and the policyholder. The insurer guarantees to reimburse losses brought on by risks covered by the policy wording in return for an upfront payment known as the premium.
Insurance seeks to lessen financial uncertainties and handle unexpected loss. This is accomplished by exchanging the payment of a modest, predetermined fee—an insurance premium—to a reputable insurer for the assumption of the risk of a significant loss and a guarantee to make payments in the case of such a loss.
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The question may be:
Awareness of the purposes of insurance coverage and how to best use the types of insurance available is called as ________________
Awareness of the purposes of insurance coverage and how to make the best use of the many types of insurance available is partly called risk Management.
Risk management is the identity, assessment, and prioritization of dangers (described in ISO 31000 because of the effect of uncertainty on targets) observed by coordinated and within the your-budget utility of resources to reduce, monitor, and control the probability or effect of unfortunate events or to maximize the realization of possibilities.
Dangers can come from diverse sources which include uncertainty in global markets, threats from task disasters (at any section in layout, improvement, manufacturing, or maintaining of lifestyles cycles), felony liabilities, credit risk, injuries, natural reasons, and screw-ups, planned attack from an adversary, or occasions of unsure or unpredictable root-reason. chance control standards were evolved via numerous institutions, such as the mission management Institute, the national Institute of requirements and era, actuarial societies, and ISO standards (first-rate management standards to help work extra efficaciously and reduce product failures).
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sam is tasked with employing marketing-mix modeling to determine the effectiveness of various marcom elements in affecting sales volume. what will sam need to conduct this analysis?
In marketing top-of-mind awareness refers to a brand or specific product being first in customers' minds when thinking of a particular industry or category. Top-of-mind awareness is defined in marketing metrics .
Co-branding is a marketing strategy that utilizes multiple brand names on a good or service as part of a strategic alliance. also known as a brand partnership, co-branding or cobranding encompasses several different types of branding collaborations, typically involving the brands of at least two companies. customer-based brand equity occurs when the consumer is familiar with the brand and holds some favorable, strong, and unique brand associations in memory. Issues in building, measuring, and managing customer-based brand equity are discussed, as well as areas for future research.
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which region of the united states is correctly matched with its primary economic activity during the early to mid 1800's?
Regarding their main economic pursuits in the early to mid-1800s, Canada and the United States are accurate.
When manufacturing's relative importance declines and the proportional importance of services, information, and research rises, the economy is said to be in a post-industrial stage of development. The United States and Canada have officially entered the post-industrial era, according to detailed evaluations of the North American economy during the previous 20 years.
We can see that the United States is now seen as a postindustrial league rather than an industrial society as a result of its shift away from producing goods and services and toward a more service-based economy.
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how do your values play a role in the groups, organizations, or career opportunities you decide to be a part of
Knowing your values can help you not only choose the profession you really want, but it can also help you make better decisions at work and ease the transition if you decide to take on a completely different role.
A job in freelancing or entrepreneurship may appeal to you if you place a high importance on independence. You might choose to pursue a career in academics if lifelong learning is one of your core principles. Beginning your career may also assist you in realizing your values by the enabling you to move into a role that more accurately represents them.
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