Find the total surface area of the figure.

Answer:

$260,437.50

$108,750

Step-by-step explanation:

Here is the complete question :

Fill in the book value at the end of year 1 under each depreciation method when residual value is $36,000 and useful life is 4 years: Depreciation method:

Straight-line           $335,250

Units-of-Output

Double-declining $217,500

Book value = cost of the asset - first year depreciation expense

Straight line depreciation expense = (Cost of asset - Salvage value) / useful life

(335250 - 36,000) / 2 = $74,812.50

Book value =  $335,250 - $74,812.50 = $260,437.50

Depreciation expense using the double declining method = Depreciation factor x cost of the asset

Depreciation factor = 2 x (1/useful life) = 2/4 = 0.5

$217,500 x 0.5 = 108,750

Book value = $217,500 - 108,750 = $108750

Answer:

D 6x4

Step-by-step explanation:

so i had this in a test and this was the correct answer, so i wanna help others.

  its D 6x4

Answer:

[tex]\lim_{n \to \infty} a_n \int\limits^a_b {x} \, dx[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

$183.20/(8 hours) = $22.90/hour

13 hours × $22.90/hour = $297.70

Answer:

Square

Rectangle

Step-by-step explanation:

In rectangle and square "Diagonals are congruent to each other"

Answer:

0.625

Step-by-step explanation:

i think it's 0.625

Answer:

30

Step-by-step explanation:

6/7=x/35

35/7=5

6x5=30

x=30

Answer:

The expression represents the amount of money in the bank account after the increase is: x=1.158n.

Step-by-step explanation:

With the information provided, you can say that the amount of money in the bank after the increase would be equal to multiplying the amount at the beginning of the year for the result of adding up 1 plus the percentage of the increase, which would be:

x=n*(1+0.158)

x=n*1.158

x=1.158n, where:

x is the amount of money in the bank account after the increase

n is the amount of money at the beginning of the year

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C=6.28 m | A=12.56 m²

explanation:

C=3.14×d

C=3.14×2

C=6.28 m

A=3.14×r²

A=3.14×2²

A=3.14×4

A=12.56 m²

Answer:

A. The answer is 165.85.                                                                                        B. The best answer is 1.435 ·103 because while they both are really small for a rail road track that one is bigger. the final answer for that is 147.805mm.

Step-by-step explanation:

(3.9 x 10³³) / 1  =  X / (2.45 x 10⁵)  .

Solve that proportion for ' X ' in the usual way.

If you can't remember how to solve a proportion, then  

THAT's what you have to go look up.  It's much more

important to you right now than how much energy the  

sun is putting out.

7.4 x 10⁴ mm is the same size as about 243 feet !

If the tracks on a DVD were that far apart, there would not be  

room for very many tracks on a DVD.  That's not reasonable.

If the tracks are  7.4 x 10⁻⁴ mm apart, then there are about  

34,000 tracks in a stripe that's 1-inch wide.  I have no idea

how they do this, but it's certainly more reasonable than the  

other choice.                                                                                                                      Hope this helps! Can you please give me Brainleist?

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

You need to use trigonometry. tana=opposite side divided by adjacent side so

tan32=11/x

x=11/(tan32)

x=17.6

Answer:

I think the answer is 236,544.

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps you! :D

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

There is an x², so the equation is a parabola, not a line.

Set of events " rolling a six-sided cube and drawing 6 marbles out of a bag " have an equally like chance of occurring.

Option B is correct.

Probability of series of experiments shown below;

A. When spinning a spinner with 3 sections then probability of one section is [tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex] .

 When tossing a coin, then probability of getting head or tail is [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

So that, set A has not equally like chance of occurring.

B. When rolling six-sided cube, probability of getting one number is [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex]

   When one marble is drawn out of 6 marble in a bag, then  probability is [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex]

Therefore, set B has equally like chance of occurring.

Learn more about the probability here:

https://brainly.com/question/24756209

Answer:

32

Step-by-step explanation:

ok told you ahhhhhhhhhhhh

Answer:

sorry i need points but i hope you find what your looking for!

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

20 of the M&M's are blue.

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] \frac{2}{3} \times 30 \\ = 20[/tex]

Answer:

doge

Step-by-step explanation:

EAnswers avatar

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Answer: Hi i hope your doing good well the answer is 55

Step-by-step explanation: Angles one and two are complementary. So we know the sum of their measures is 90 degrees. So, to find the measure of angle two, subtract the measure of angle one from 90 degrees. We substitute in the given value of the measure of angle one, which is 35 degrees. Subtracting, we find that the measure of angle two equals 55 degrees.

 Hope i helped :)

Answer:

13.5 is the next term

4, 6, 9, 13.5

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a geometric sequence since there is a common ratio between each term. In this case, multiplying the previous term in the sequence by 3/2

formula= an=a1⋅r^n-1

Answer:

45.5625

Step-by-step explanation:

The pattern seems to be x + (x/2) = y where x is the previous number and y is the next number.

4 + (4/2) = 6

6 + (6/2) = 9

therefore we continue the pattern. In doing so we get:

30.375 + (30.375/2) = 45.5625

Answer:

a

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]f(x)-g(x)=2x^2+3x+2-x-1\\ \\ f(x)-g(x)=2x^2+2x+1[/tex]

Answer:

4

Step by step:

This is if the question is saying you completed 87.5% of the exercises. Otherwise, I don't know what it is asking.

87.5% of 32=28

32-28=4

Answer:

C 90 ft³

Step-by-step explanation:

surface area = 2 (h · l + h · w + l · w)

The measurements of this rectangular prism is:

h = 2

w = 5

l = 5

2 (2 · 5 + 2 · 5 + 5 · 5)

Using PEMDAS, we have:

2 (10 + 10 + 25)

2 (45)

90 ft cubed

Mary earns $11.5 per hour.

The unitary technique involves first determining the value of a single unit, followed by the value of the necessary number of units.

For example, Let's say Ram spends 36 Rs. for a dozen (12) bananas.

12 bananas will set you back 36 Rs. 1 banana costs 36 x 12 = 3 Rupees.

As a result, one banana costs three rupees. Let's say we need to calculate the price of 15 bananas.

This may be done as follows: 15 bananas cost 3 rupees each; 15 units cost 45 rupees.

We have,

Mary earns $247.25 for gardening.

Mary worked for 21.5 hours.

So, Mary earns per hour

= 247.25 / 21.5

= $11.5

Thus, Mary earns $11.5 per hour.

Learn more about Unitary Method here:

https://brainly.com/question/22056199

#SPJ2

Answer:

i tried my best. But its not worth it

sowwy

Answer:

Let's get this show on the road!

Step-by-step explanation:

I'm not sure how to explain it, i was just thinking of phrases that fit the spaces.

Answer:

0.5

Step-by-step explanation:

We can calculate the probability of picking a red marble by:

- adding all the marbles together

- then subtract the amount of red marbles by the number found previously.

2 + 3 + 5 = 10

10 - 5 = 5

5 is what of 10?

5 is 50% of 10.

50% means 0.5 out of 1.

Your answer is 0.5.

Hope this helps. Have a nice day.

Answer:

the whole thing would be  (-5,4)

Step-by-step explanation:

1 would be -5

2 would be 4

3 would be (-5,4)

4 would be (4,-5)

Answer:

4000 [tex]m^{3}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

V = 1/3(Bh)  where B is the area of the base and h is the height of the pyramid

B = 20(20) = 400      h = 30

V = 1/3(400)(30) = 4000 [tex]m^{3}[/tex]