exposure of microbial populations to antibiotics leads to the selection of organisms that are able to resist the antibiotic

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Answer 1

Exposure of microbial populations to antibiotics leads to the selection of organisms that are able to resist the antibiotic, then it is natural selection(survival of the fittest).

What is the survival of the fittest?

When bacteria are exposed to an antibiotic,  most susceptible to the antibiotic will die quickly, leaving any surviving bacteria to pass on their resistant features to the succeeding generations.

There are two ways for bacterial cells to acquire antibiotic resistance : one is through mutations that occur in DNA of the cell during replication and another way that bacteria acquire resistance is through horizontal gene transfer.

Antibiotic resistance refers to resistance to bacteria whereas antimicrobial resistance refers to resistance to bacteria, viruses, fungi and parasites.

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Related Questions

the nurse recognizes that metoclopramide is often used in treatment of nausea and vomiting associated with antineoplastic drug therapy or radiation therapy in patients due to what action of the medication?

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The nurse recognizes that metoclopramide is often used in treatment of nausea and vomiting associated with antineoplastic drug therapy or radiation therapy in patients due to It promotes motility in the small intestine action of the medication.

Medicines used to treat cancer are known as antineoplastic drug. Anticancer, chemotherapy, chemo, cytotoxic, and hazardous pharmaceuticals are alternate names for antineoplastic medications. These medications can be found in liquid or pill form, among others. Set up a consultation with your doctor if: Vomiting can persist up to two days in adults, 24 hours in children under two, and 12 hours in newborns. You've experienced episodes of nausea and vomiting for more than a month. Unexpected weight loss, nausea, and vomiting have all occurred.

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a middle-aged man has presented for care to a nurse practitioner because his seasonal allergies are detracting from his quality of life. what should the nurse teach this patient about allergic rhinitis?

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Regarding allergic rhinitis the nurse must tell him that Immunotherapy may have the potential to provide long-term relief from symptoms.

What is allergic rhinitis ?

An allergic reaction to an allergen, such as pollen, dust, or specific animals, is what causes allergic rhinitis.

Rhinitis frequently subsides on its own. For many people, it goes away on its own within a few days. In some people, particularly those who have allergies, rhinitis can be a persistent issue. When something is chronic, it nearly always exists or recurs frequently.

The percutaneous skin test and the allergy-specific immunoglobulin E (IgE) antibody test are the two most often used diagnostic procedures for allergic rhinitis.

Although there is no known treatment for allergic rhinitis, the symptoms can be alleviated with the help of antihistamines and nasal sprays. Immunotherapy is a treatment approach that has the potential to bring about long-term alleviation.

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a client is admitted with the diagnosis of total placenta previa. which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Answers

After 20 weeks, painless vaginal bleeding is the most significant sign of placenta previa.

During the pitocin infusion, which side effect should the nurse keep an eye out for?

The medicine should be administered with consideration for the potential for increased blood loss and afibrinogenemia. A 24-hour period of gradual oxytocin infusion has been linked to severe water intoxication, convulsions, and coma.

During the fourth stage of labor, which nursing intervention is most important?

Identification and prevention of hemorrhage during the fourth stage of childbirth are top nursing priorities. 24. The nurse tending to a patient who is unsure of whether she is actually in labor will try to promote cervical effacement and intensify contractions in the patient by: a.

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which of the following persons is in a state of positive energy balance? multiple choice an 89-year-old man who spends most of his day in a wheelchair or bed. a 29-year old woman who has maintained her weight for six months. a 22-year old man who consumes 1900 kcal/day and is losing weight. a 25-year-old woman who is in her 6th month of pregnancy.

Answers

The persons who is in a state of positive energy balance is a 29-year old woman who has maintained her weight for six months.

Energy balance is outlined because the state achieved once the energy intake equals energy expenditure. this idea could also be wont to demonstrate however bodyweight can modification over time in response to changes in energy intake and expenditure. once the body is in energy balance, bodyweight is stable.

When a person is in energy balance , energy intake equals energy expenditure, and weight ought to stay stable. Positive energy balance happens once energy intake is larger than energy expenditure, sometimes leading to weight gain.

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. a patient with obstructive sleep apnea (osa) is being discharged. what patient statement indicates the need for further teaching?

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A glass of wine before bed will relax my airways, the patient said, indicating the need for additional teaching.

What is obstructive sleep apnea (OPA)?

The most prevalent breathing condition associated with sleep is obstructive sleep apnea. Your breathing will occasionally pause and resume while you are asleep as a result. The most common type of sleep apnea among the various varieties is obstructive sleep apnea.

How to prevent developing OPA?

Steer clear of smoking and excessive alcohol use. To lessen the effects of sleep apnea, refrain from excessive alcohol and cigarette consumption. If you have sleep apnea, the relaxing effects of alcohol on your neck muscles may make it even more difficult for you to breathe normally.

Therefore, if a patient states that he needs a glass of wine at bedtime, he needs some more teaching and should not consume alcohols and wine.

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The complete question is:

A patient with obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) is being discharged. What patient statement indicates the need for further teaching?

a. I hope to lose some weight.

b. My antidepressants seem to be helping.

c. I will try the oral appliance that the doctor suggested.

d. A glass of wine at bedtime will help relax my airways.

Which of the following assessment findings should concern the EMT the MOST when assessing a child who experienced a seizure?
Neck stiffness

Answers

The correct answer is Neck Stiffness.

A child who has missed getting some vaccines and has a febrile seizure could have a higher risk for meningitis. Get medical care right away if your child has any signs of meningitis, such as a stiff neck.

What is Meningitis?

Meningitis is an infection and inflammation of the fluid and membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. These membranes are called meninges.

The inflammation from meningitis typically triggers symptoms such as headache, fever, and a stiff neck.

Most cases of meningitis in the United States are caused by a viral infection. But bacteria, parasites, and fungi also can cause it. Some cases of meningitis improve without treatment in a few weeks. Others can cause death and require emergency antibiotic treatment.

Seek immediate medical care if you suspect that you or someone in your family has meningitis. Early treatment of bacterial meningitis can prevent serious complications.

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during a shift, a new nurse spent five hours of her time observing procedures, three hours working in oncology department, and four hours doing paperwork. during the next shift, she spent four hours observing procedures, six hours in the oncology department, and two hours doing paperwork. what was the percent change for each task between the two shifts?

Answers

The assertion claims that during an shift, a nurse practitioner spent 50% of her time on paperwork, 100% of her time on oncology.

What does a nurse do?

From birth till the end of life, caregivers are present in every community, big and small. Nurses do a variety of duties, from providing direct patient care and managing cases to setting nursing practice standards, creating quality control procedures, and managing intricate nursing care systems.

Briefing:

Observation period: 5 to 4 hours

= 1 hrs.

=1/5 x 100 = 20%

Oncology hours: 3 hrs - 6 hrs

=3 hrs.

= 3/3 x 100 = 100%

Paperwork hours: 4 hrs - 2 hrs

= 2 hrs.

= 2/4 x 100 = 50%

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when administering ferrous sulfate to a patient, the nurse plans to give this medication with what fluid to increase absorption of the iron?

Answers

The absorption of iron can be enhanced when it is given with ascorbic acid (vitamin C), which is present in orange juice.

What is the purpose of ferrous sulfate?

As treat or prevent iron deficiency anemia, a drug called ferrous sulfate—sometimes written sulphate—is taken is administered.The body uses iron to strengthen its red blood cells, that carry oxygen throughout the body.Your iron supply may become too low as a result of blood loss, pregnancy, and consuming insufficient amounts of iron.

What negative impacts does ferrous sulfate have?

The stomach discomfort that some people feel, which can vary from heartburn to nausea and vomiting, can be avoided or at least lessened by taking ferrous sulfate with food.Also common are black or green stools or constipation.

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What is the osmolarity of the fluid in the interstitial space of the renal medulla? is it the same throughout that space?.

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The sodium that is pumped from the ascending tubule to the interstitial space creates an osmotic pressure in the interstitial space of 300–500 mOsm/l.

Is the inner or outer medulla where the interstitial fluid has the maximum osmolarity?

The interstitial fluid's osmolarity is significantly greater in the kidney's medulla and may gradually rise to between 1200 and 1400 mOsm/L in the pelvic tip of the medulla. This indicates that a significant amount of water-soluble solutes have accumulated in the renal medullary interstitium.

Why is the medulla more osmolar?

Additionally, urea pumps installed in collecting ducts actively pump urea into the interstitial regions.

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most studies of health care systems have determined that health care spending is not correlated with which factor?

Answers

Changes in patient volumes across various departments, which can affect service line budgeting.
Rising interest rates.
Inflation.
Higher capital acquisition costs.

a client asks the nurse if a cervical cap is better than a diaphragm for contraception. what should the nurse explain is the advantage of a cervical cap?

Answers

The cervical cap can be left in place longer since it is smaller than the diaphragm. The diaphragm can be utilised for 30 hours and the cervical cap for up to 72 hours.

What distinguishes a diaphragm from a cervical cap?

Because both a diaphragm and a cervical cap function to protect your cervix and prevent pregnancy, it can be challenging to distinguish between them.

Cervical caps, however, differ from diaphragms in size and form. Cervical caps resemble a sailor's hat, whereas diaphragms have a bowl-like form.

A little plastic dome known as the cervical cap fits snugly over the cervix and is held in place by suction.

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the registered nurse is teaching the student nurse about writing nursing interventions. ' which intervention written by the student nurse indicates effective learning?

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By concentrating on statistical and numerical data, quantitative nursing research (QNS) focuses with exact measurement and qualification. It also works with statistical data analysis to eliminate bias from results.

What do the terms quantitative and qualitative nursing research mean?

In general, quantitative research tests hypotheses to understand the causal or correlational link between variables, whereas qualitative research uses interviews and observation to understand a phenomenon in its real-world setting.

Which study design is most effective for nursing?

qualitative research methods

The nurse researcher must choose the qualitative research strategy that will best address the research issue, much like with quantitative research. Phenomenology, ethnography, and grounded theory are the three methodologies most frequently employed in qualitative nursing research.

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By concentrating on statistical and numerical data, quantitative nursing research (QNS) focuses with exact measurement and qualification. It also works with statistical data analysis to eliminate bias from results.

What do the terms quantitative and qualitative nursing research mean?

In general, quantitative research tests hypotheses to understand the causal or correlational link between variables, whereas qualitative research uses interviews and observation to understand a phenomenon in its real-world setting.

Which study design is most effective for nursing?

qualitative research methods

The nurse researcher must choose the qualitative research strategy that will best address the research issue, much like with quantitative research. Phenomenology, ethnography, and grounded theory are the three methodologies most frequently employed in qualitative nursing research.

a full term infant is transferred to the nursery from labor and delivery. which information is most important for the nurse to receive when planning immediate care for the newborn?

Answers

The baby's current condition (i.e., the Apgar scores at 1 and 5 minutes) and any therapy or resuscitation that was recommended will most likely determine whether or not they need immediate care.

What kind of job are nurses expected to do?

Registered nurses (RNs) oversee and carry out medical procedures, educate the public about different health conditions, and offer patients and their families emotional support. In a number of contexts, the majority of registered nurses work in conjunction with physicians and other healthcare professionals.

Can a nurse carry out the job?

They are responsible for a number of post-operative surgical therapeutic duties. Many surgical nursing professionals choose to focus on that particular area whether it comes to obstetrics, pediatric surgery, or cardiac surgery.

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a client with chest pain, dizziness, and vomiting for the last 2 hours is admitted for evaluation for acute coronary syndrome (acs). which cardiac biomarker should the registered nurse (rn) anticipate to be elevated if the client experienced myocardial damage?

Answers

serum troponin is the most sensitive and specific test for myocardial damage.

In muscle tissue, troponin is located in the groove between actin filaments and is connected to the protein tropomyosin. Tropomyosin obstructs the myosin cross bridge's attachment site in a relaxed muscle, limiting contraction. An action potential causes calcium channels in the sarcoplasmic membrane to open, releasing calcium into the sarcoplasm and causing the muscle cell to contract. A portion of this calcium binds to troponin, changing its shape and revealing myosin binding sites (active sites) on the actin filaments. When myosin binds to actin, a crossbridge forms, signaling the start of muscle contraction.

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the physician has ordered a patient controlled analgesia (pca) pump for a client. which assessment finding would cause the nurse to question the order?

Answers

Due of the patient's uncertainty regarding the time and place, the doctor recommended a client regulated analgesia (pca) pump.

Disorientation is a symptom of what illness?

Delirium and dementia are two prevalent conditions that lead to disorientation. Delirium is brought on by abruptly aberrant brain activity.

It doesn't last long at all, Medication side effects, infections, and trauma can all cause it.

What causes human infection?

the spread and development of bacteria inside the body,Bacterial, viruses, yeast, fungi, and other microbes are examples of possible germs,Infections can start any part of the body and have the potential to spread everywhere, Depending on where in the body it develops, an infection might result in fever and other medical issues.

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during the eye assessment, a nurse performs part of the neurologic examination for which cranial nerve?

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In the neurological examination the overall eye assessment is done in Cranial nerves II, Cranial nerves III, Cranial nerves IV, Cranial nerves VI

The optic nerve II is the sensory nerve that controls vision, or cranial nerve II.

Cranial Nerve III: The oculomotor nerve has two distinct motor functions: pupil response lets you regulate how big your pupil is when it reacts to light, and muscle function controls six muscles around your eyes.

Cranial nerve VI: The lateral rectus muscle is a muscle connected to eye movement that is controlled by the abducens nerve. This muscle controls how the eyes travel outward.

Cranial Nerve VI: Your superior oblique muscle is under the trochlear nerve's control. This muscle controls the downward, outward, and inward motions of the eyes.

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which recommendation will the nurse include when teaching an older patient about self-management during bathing

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Use deodorant soap, and then completely rinse the soap off the skin. every other day, take a full bath. Before taking a bath, add oil to the water.

Wet the skin of the patient before applying a tiny amount of soap gently. Make sure the patient is comfortable with the warmth and that you are not rubbing too vigorously. Make care to thoroughly rinse off the soap before patting the area dry, being sure to get into the skin folds and crevices.

What do you consider to be the guiding principles of wound care?

This include managing and preventing infection, cleaning the wound, removing dead tissue, preserving moisture balance, reducing odour, safeguarding the wound and surrounding area, and reducing or eliminating discomfort.

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in the course of recording patient information in the electronic health record, the medical assistant noticed that an error was made. describe the correct procedure for making the correction?

Answers

The correct procedure for making the correction is : Draw a single line through info, note recorded in area, initial and date.

What constitutes the medical reports ?

A patient's medical history, clinical findings, diagnostic test results, pre- and postoperative treatment, patient progress, and medication are all explained in detail in their medical records. If notes are properly documented, they will support the doctor's assessment of the efficacy of the treatment.

Important elements of a medical record:

information on the patient's age, sex, nationality, etc.

social assessments of people's occupations, etc.

details regarding their genetic makeup.

We currently have a medical history and a diagnosis.

a list of drugs.

a list of the patient's vaccinations.

lab test outcomes.

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an adolescent describes a dysfunctional home life to the nurse and reports smoking marijuana to help cope with the situation. how will the nurse identify this form of coping?

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The nurse will identify the form of coping as maladaptive.

Maladaptive is a form of coping strategy. It's the behaviors that stop someone from adapting to new or difficult circumstances. If it goes on, it can become a self-destructive pattern.

Some examples of maladaptive behaviors include:

Avoidance, where the person is avoiding unpleasantness.Withdrawing from social interaction.Passive-aggressive attitude.Self-harm.Uncontrolled anger problems.Substance use.

In the case above, the adolescent seems to do the avoidance behavior, where they avoid the unpleasant and stressful situation of a dysfunctional home life using marijuana.

Maladaptive behavior can be treated with several ways, such as meditation, therapies, counseling, and relaxation techniques.

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the nurse reviews the record of a child who is suspected of having glomerulonephritis and expects to note which finding that is associated with this diagnosis?

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the nurse reviews the record of a child who is suspected of having glomerulonephritis and expects to note Brown-colored urine that is associated with this diagnosis.

Glomerulonephritis is a term used to describe a category of kidney diseases that are characterized by inflammatory injury to the glomerulus. A typical sign of glomerulonephritis is gross hematuria, which produces urine that is black, smoky, cola-colored, or brown-colored urine . Additionally typical is hypertension. Possible elevation of blood urea nitrogen levels. Glomerulonephritis is characterized by a mildly to severely increased urine specific gravity. Urine can turn dark brown as a result of various liver, kidney, and uti infections. Excessive exercise. Extreme exercise-induced muscle damage can lead to kidney impairment, pink or cola-colored urine or  brown-colored urine, and muscle injury.

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you are attempting to provide care to a patient experiencing paranoia when a friend mentions that the patient uses recreational drugs. you would suspect which drug group as being most likely involved?

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you are attempting to provide care to a patient experiencing paranoia when a friend mentions that the patient uses recreational drugs. you would suspect  as being most likely involved  D. Stimulants

Drugs in the stimulant family boost up communication between the brain and body. They may enliven, awaken, reassure, or energise a person. Caffeine, nicotine, amphetamines, and cocaine are examples of stimulants. When faced with difficulties or long waits, as well as problems or tough individuals, patient is able to maintain composure and avoid getting irritated. Long queues are something I detest. I'm just not a patient person. The teacher was kind and understanding toward her pupils.

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From its earliest inception as a primarily compliance-type function, human resource management has further expanded and evolved into its current state as a key driver of human capital development.
True

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True, Human resource management has increased and changed over time from its original status as essentially a compliance-type role to its current position as a crucial factor in the development of human capital.

Although this administrative aspect of HR still exists today, it is frequently carried out differently thanks to technology and outsourcing options. The effectiveness of HR's capacity to manage administrative procedures and resolve administrative difficulties contributed to the value of HR services & HR's trustworthiness.

Wave 2 concentrated on the creation of cutting-edge HR practice areas like sourcing, learning, communication, and pay. To develop a unified perspective on human resource management, the HR specialists in several practice areas started collaborating and exchanging ideas. Delivering best-practice HR solutions was what gave HR credibility in Wave 2.

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a client's assessment and diagnostic testing are suggestive of acute pancreatitis. when the nurse is performing the health interview, what assessment questions address likely etiologic factors? select all that apply.

Answers

The assessment question that addresses likely etiologic factors are:

How many alcoholic drinks do you typically consume in a week?Have you ever been diagnosed with gallstones?

Etiological factors are generally defined as the non-genetic factors that have been associated with a disease.

Pancreatitis is an inflammation of the pancreas. The pancreas itself is an organ that produces enzymes that helps regulate the way the body processes sugar as well as help digestion.

Factors that increase the risk of pancreatitis are:

Smoking cigarette.Obesity.Diabetes.Family history of the disease.Excessive alcohol consumption.

Pancreatitis can also cause serious complications, one of which is kidney failure which may lead to the occurrence of gallstones.

The question above seems to be incomplete, but most likely the completed version is as follows:

A patient's assessment and diagnostic testing are suggestive of acute pancreatitis. When the nurse is performing the health interview, what assessment questions address likely etiologic factors? Select all that apply.

A) How many alcoholic drinks do you typically consume in a week?
B) Have you ever been tested for diabetes?
C) Have you ever been diagnosed with gallstones?
D) Would you say that you eat a particularly high-fat diet?
E) Does anyone in your family have cystic fibrosis?

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when a female client demonstrates thickening, scaling, and erosion of the nipple and areola, the nurse recognizes that the client is exhibiting signs of which disease process?

Answers

Nipple and areola erythema are two early symptoms of Paget illness. The nipple and areola might swell, scale, and erode as late indications.

How is Paget's breast disease identified?

By taking a small sample of breast tissue and closely examining it in the lab, a biopsy can be used to diagnose Paget disease of the breast. Sometimes the entire nipple may need to be cut off. That it is cancer cannot be determined without a biopsy.

What percentage of women have breast Paget's disease?

This indicates that although there were cancer cells discovered during the biopsy, they were entirely confined inside the duct lining of the breast. It is quite uncommon to get Paget's illness. 1 to 4 out of every 100 breast cancer cases had it, on average.

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the nurse screening for diabetes mellitus at a health fair obtains these results. which client should be referred to a primary health care provider for further evaluation?

Answers

Clients with significant levels of anxiety, COPD who take steroids, and newly discovered limb fractures should be referred to a primary healthcare practitioner for additional assessment.

What exactly is diabetic mellitus screening?

Regardless of risk factors, the American Diabetes Association48 suggests that all persons 45 years of age and older undergo routine screening for prediabetes and diabetes utilizing a fasting plasma glucose level, 2-hour plasma glucose level during a 75-g oral glucose tolerance test, or HbA1c level.

What test is advised for detecting type 2 diabetes mellitus?

Glycated hemoglobin (A1C) testing is typically used to identify type 2 diabetes. The results of this blood test show your average blood sugar level over the previous two to three months.

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A two-year-old boy was brought to the emergency department because of vomiting. About 30 minutes prior, he was found by his parents with an open bottle containing ferrous fumarate tablets. The mother estimates about five tablets are missing, and each tablet contains 65 mg of elemental iron. The boy had three episodes of non-bloody vomiting. The physical examination is essentially normal except for tachycardia. Which of the following is the next best step?
get serum iron level four hours after ingestion
The patient has symptoms and a history compatible with iron toxicity. The severity of an exposure is related to the amount of elemental iron ingested. Ferrous sulfate contains 20 percent elemental iron, ferrous gluconate has 12 percent, and ferrous fumarate contains 33 percent. Iron is directly corrosive to the GI mucosa, which can lead to hematemesis, melena, ulceration, infarction, and potential perforation. For significant ingestions (> 20 mg/kg of elemental iron), especially when tablets are identified on the abdominal radiograph, whole-bowel irrigation with a polyethylene glycol electrolyte lavage solution (PEG-ELS) is routinely recommended. Iron toxicity is described in four stages. The initial stage, 30 minutes to six hours after ingestion consists of profuse vomiting and diarrhea, abdominal pain, and significant volume losses, leading to potential hypovolemic shock. The second stage, six to 24 hours after ingestion, is the quiescent phase where GI symptoms typically resolve. In the third stage, occurring 12 to 24 hours after ingestion, patients develop multi-system organ failure, shock, hepatic and cardiac dysfunction, acute lung injury, and profound metabolic acidosis. Symptomatic patients and patients with a large exposure by history should have serum iron levels drawn four to six hours after ingestion. Serum iron concentrations of < 500 µg/dL four to eight hours after ingestion suggest a low risk of significant toxicity, whereas concentrations of > 500 µg/dL indicate significant toxicity.

Answers

Obtaining a serum iron level 4 hours after consumption would be the best course of action.

The GI mucosa is immediately corroded by iron, which can result in hematemesis, melena, blistering, infarction, & possible perforation. The quantity of elemental iron consumed affects how severe the exposure is. 20 percent of the elemental iron is present in ferrous sulfate, 12 percent is present in ferrous gluconate, and 33 percent is present in ferrous fumarate.

Serum iron levels should be measured 4 to 6 hours after intake in individuals who are symptomatic or who have had significant exposure in the past. From 4 to 8 hours after administration, serum iron levels of less than 500 g/dL indicated a low risk of substantial toxicity, but values of more than 500 g/dL signify serious toxicity.

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a 24-hour-old newborn has a pink papular rash with vesicles superimposed on the thorax, back, and abdomen. what action should the nurse implement?

Answers

A 24-hour-old newborn has a pink papular rash with vesicles superimposed on the thorax, back, and abdomen therefore the action which the nurse should implement is to document the finding in the infant's record.

Who is a Nurse?

This is referred as a healthcare professional who specializes in taking care of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery is achieve in other to prevent different forms of complications.

A nurse also helps in the documentation process in the healthcare system and it is usually based on different types of observations and symptoms so as to ensure that the other professionasl such as the Doctor are able to trest them.

This is therefore the reason why documenting the finding in the infant's record is the most approrpiate thing to do in this type of scenario.

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a health care provider prescribed fluticasone for a client with a severe case of allergic rhinitis. the client took a first dose on february 2. what is the latest date by which the drug will be fully effective?

Answers

Fluticasone was prescribed by a doctor for a patient who had a severe case of allergic rhinitis. The patient took their first dose on February 2, and the medication won't start working its full effect until at least February 15.

What is allergic rhinitis and what is the cure of it?

An allergen, including such pollen, dust, mold, and skin flakes from specific animals, causes allergic rhinitis, an inflammation of the interior of the nose. It is a relatively prevalent illness, affecting an estimated one in five persons in the UK.

Other sorts of drugs may also be suggested by your doctor for therapy. A surgical cure for allergic rhinitis does not exist. However, there may be surgical alternatives to assist in enhancing nasal airflow.

How do I stop allergic rhinitis and what are the triggers of rhinitis?

Antihistamines & nasal sprays can help with the symptoms of allergic rhinitis despite the lack of known cure. One method of treatment with the potential to provide long-term relief is immunotherapy. By taking certain precautions, allergens can be avoided.

Rhinitis is a reaction that affects the eyes, nose, & throat that results from the body's release of histamine in response to airborne allergens. Some of the most frequent causes of rhinitis include pollen, dust mites, mold, cockroaches feces, animal dander, odors and odours, hormonal changes, and smoke.

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the nursing education coordinator is creating employee orientation materials for staff nurses who plan to work at a clinic that serves a lower socioeconomic neighborhood. what information should the educator include regarding the clinic's client population? (select all that apply.)

Answers

Information the educator include regarding the clinic's client population are

(a) Basic physiologic needs of this population are often unmet

(b) Clients who are homebound will qualify for Medicaid

(c) Nonadherence to healthcare recommendations is likely

What is nurse responsibility ?

In order to maximise patients' comfort and families' comprehension and adaptation, nurses are responsible for identifying patients' symptoms, taking actions to administer medications within the bounds of their scope of practice, offering other measures for symptom relief.

Nurses tend to patients' injuries, administer medications, perform diagnostic tests, operate medical equipment, draw blood, perform frequent physical examinations, record thorough medical histories, monitor blood pressure and heart rate, and admit and discharge patients in accordance with doctor's orders.

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. a patient who is diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder is isolative, does not speak to her peers, and sits through the community meeting without speaking. her mother describes her as shy and having few friends. which would be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient?

Answers

Impaired social interaction related to unfamiliar environment as evidenced by isolation and not talking with peers

People with schizoid personality disorder, avoid social situations and avoid interacting with others. Additionally, their capacity for expressing emotion is constrained.

Symptoms include preferring solitude and preferring to engage in activities alone; avoiding close relationships; feeling little to no desire for sexual relationships; feeling as though pleasure is beyond your reach; having trouble expressing emotions and appropriately responding to situations; and appearing humorless, indifferent, or emotionally cold to others. May come out as unmotivated and without ambitions. Doesn't respond to compliments or criticism from others

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Some glucose produced by gluconeogenesis is stored in the body as glycogen. Order the steps of glycogen synthesis. Not all description accurately describe glycogen synthesis; therefore, not all the descriptions will be used. Pyrophosphates converts PPi and water into Pi. Glycogen synthase adds a glucose unit from UDP-glucose to glycogen, producing a a larger glycogen molecule and UDP. Glycogen synthase removes a glucose unit from a glycogen molecule producing a smaller glycogen molecule and UDP. ADP-glucose pyrophosphorylase catalyzes the reaction of glucose-1-phoshate and ATP to ADP-glucose and PPi. UDP-glucose-1-phosphate and and UTP to UDP-glucose and PPi. given f (x) = 2x + 7 describe how the value of k affects the slope and y intercept of the graph of g compared to the graph of f 9 (x) = (2x +7) - 6 So far, you proved that one pair of parallel sides in a parallelogrammust be congruent. Add to your proof to prove that both pairs ofparallel sides in a parallelogram must be congruent. Geometry a journalist is writing an article on prison overcrowding in the u.s. and wants to use the estimate that shows the highest amount of overcrowding. which definition of prison capacity would she most likely choose to use? design capacity operational capacity rated capacity confinement capacity compute the future value of the following deposits made today: a. $10,000 at 6.75% compounding annually for 10 years b. $10,000 at 6.75% compounding quarterly for 10 years c. $10,000 at 6.75% compounding monthly for 10 years 26. (Figure: Monopolies Versus Competitive Industries) Based on the graph, under a monopoly consumer surplus is and producer surplus is _____.f ; e+h+ge+f+i ; g+h+jf ; e+g+h+i+je+f ; g+h27. Under what condition would perfectly competitive firms experience losses?P>M CAT C>PAT C>MCP>ATC laser corporation had $275,000 in invested assets, sales of $330,000, operating income amounting to $33,000, and a desired minimum return on investment of 7.5%. the return on investment (rounded to one decimal place) for blaser corporation is How did major works produced during the Renaissance affect European culture? specific shares of college admissions, government contracts, and jobs set aside for population groups that have suffered from past discrimination. a hammer taps on the end of a 5.0-m-long metal bar at room temperature. a microphone at the other end of the bar picks up two pulses of sound, one that travels through the metal and one that travels through the air. the pulses are separated in time by 9.00 ms . amy meets her new coworker for the first time and realizes they went to high school together. which type of receptor most likely allowed for this realization? Who was accused of firing the shots that killed president kennedy?jack rubylee harvey oswaldlyndon johnsonfidel castro. a dulcimer string is supposed to vibrate at 247 hz. instead it is vibrating at 260 hz. ef picup part description answer save status a. determine the percent decrease in tension in the dulcimer string so that it vibrates at the correct frequency. (include units with answer) format check click here to check your answer 7.14 pts.100% 2% try penalty hindi essay on "pariksha pranali aur nakal ki samasya ", " After being overwhelmed throughout college, jenna read seven habits of highly effective people by steven covey. She discovered that if she learned to say no to the many little demands in life that made her inefficient, she could say yes to the actions that would lead her to becoming truly effective. What habit of the seven that covey introduces does this fall under?. a fisherman catches and removes one trout from each of two ponds. pond a contains 100 trout and pond b contains 1,000 trout. which population is more affected by the fisherman Solve the equation for y.x = 4y-2y= a business owner wants to sell a line of coffee mugs to celebrate the company's 25 years in business. the owner wants to see each part of the conversion that brought a person to buy a mug, so the owner wants to use the attribution modeling tool. which attribution model should be used to accomplish the goal? the nurse is providing teaching to a client with acne who is using isotretinoin therapy. which statement should the nurse make? a) how many pairs of sunglasses (in thousands) should be sold to maximize profits? (if necessary, round your answer to three decimal places.)