Answer:
Estradiol has a higher partition coefficient than H+ ions
Explanation
Estradiol is a non-polar and hydrophobic molecule that has a higher partition coefficient than H+ ions, it means that the cell membrane is more permeable to this molecule because it can dissolve in and diffuse within the hydrophobic phase of the membrane. The movement of polar charged molecules (even small H+ ions) requires the input of energy to be able to dissolve within the lipid bilayer. In consequence, the movement of H+ ions requires proteins capable of transporting these protons through the membrane.
Circle the word that best completes the statement about cell theory.
6. The cell theory states that:
i. All organisms are made of organelles / cells.
ii. All existing cells are produced by other living dead cells.
111. The atom cell is the most basic unit of life.
7. Cell theory is one of the great unifying theories of biology / chemistry.
MAIN IDEA: Prokaryotic cells lack a nucleus and most internal structures of
eukaryotic cells.
Question reformatted:
Circle the word that best completes the statement about cell theory.
6. The cell theory states that:
i. All organisms are made of organelles / cells.
ii. All existing cells are produced by other living / dead cells.
iii. The atom / cell is the most basic unit of life.
7. Cell theory is one of the great unifying theories of biology / chemistry
Answer:
6. The cell theory states that:
i. All organisms are made of cells.
ii. All existing cells are produced by other living cells.
iii. The cell is the most basic unit of life.
7. Cell theory is one of the great unifying theories of biology
Explanation:
Cell theory is one of the central theories of biology and is universally accepted. It states that all organisms are cellular - that is they are made of cells. It also states that all living things come from other living cells (not spontaneously, or from dead cells). The cell is the most basic unit of life, organisms can be unicellular, but no living thing is 'less' than that.
Both strands of the DNA double helix contain nitrogenous bases held together by hydrogen bonds. In DNA, the sequence of nitrogenous bases varies widely. What is the significance of the nitrogenous bases?
A. They determine the amino acids in the proteins synthesized.
B. They prevent mutations from occurring in the process of DNA replication
C. They help complete the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA molecules.
D. The amount of adenine and cytosine determines the length of the gene on a DNA molecule.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Essentially, in the process of protein synthesis, there is first transcription where mRNA is synthesized off of a DNA strand with complementary nitrogenous bases. After processing occurs (in basic terms the mRNA is literally processed) and the mRNA strand leaves the nucleus, it attaches to a large and small ribosomal subunit (a ribosome) where translation occurs. The gist of it is when the mRNA strand is being read by the ribosome. tRNA will come over and bind temporarily bringing with it a specific amino acid, starting the formation of the polypeptide/amino acid chain. Nitrogenous bases play into this as the sequence of the nitrogenous bases is what determines what tRNA will bind onto it which determines which amino acid is brought. More specifically, this deals with the codons of the mRNA and the corresponding anticodons with the tRNA, which is a bit of a more specific topic.
The nitrogenous bases help complete the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA molecules. The correct option is C.
What is DNA?DNA, also renowned as deoxyribonucleic acid, is a complex molecule that includes all of the information required to construct and retain a lifeform.
DNA is found in the cells of all living things. In real sense, as in almost every cell in a multicellular organism contains the entirety of the organism's DNA.
DNA is composed of chemical key components known as nucleotides. These building blocks are composed of three components: a phosphate group, a sugar group, and one of four different types of nitrogen bases.
Nucleotides are linked together in chains, with the phosphate and sugar groups alternating.
Thus, the correct option is C.
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How does a cell deal with the buildup of hydrogen peroxide?
Answer:
They actually have a protein that breaks it down into harmless components: water and oxygen. Enzymes are proteins that speed up the rate of reactions, and there is a particular enzyme that can help break down hydrogen peroxide.
When salt is dissolved in water, the water is the
solute
solvent
solution
Answer:
solution
yeyeyeyeyeyeyeyyeeyeyyeyeye
What organelle is attached to the Rough ER
Answer:
Ribosomes
Explanation:
Answer:
The ribosomes.
Explanation:
how do birds the ant seen here reproduce
Which of the following is a reason for the genetic variability from sexual reproduction?
A. The more variety there is in the gene pool, the less arrangements in the population.
B.The genes that are “dealt” to the offspring from their parents are by systematic event.
C. Offspring have the same gene combinations of either of their parents.
D. Members of a species choose mates, creating different combinations of genes.
Please help. This is due today.
Answer:
the answer is d opinion
When ATP is hydrolyzed, are you adding water or removing it? Explain 20 points I’ll do brainlest too
Answer:
Are there answers
Explanation:
Answer:
adding water
Explanation:
hydrolysis means adding water to it
HEYY YOU GUYS AGAIN. I HAVE A COUPLE OF QUESTIONS I NEED HELP ON. IF YOU CAN, PLEASE HELP ASAP.
which moon phase occurs when the moon is between the earth and the sun??
a. full moon.
b. waxing crescent.
c. new moon.
d. waning crescent.
Answer:
New Moon
Explanation:
There are eight phases of the Moon, which repeat every 29.5 days. New Moon. A new moon is usually not visible to the naked eye, as only the unlit portion of the Moon is exposed. This phase occurs when the moon is situated directly between the sun and the Earth. A solar eclipse can only occur during this phase. Waxing Crescent
During my ptosis a single cell divides to produce two daughter cells what must happen in the original cell so that each daughter cells can I have a complete set of chromosomes
Answer: 3d illustration depicting cell division, a process whereby a cell divides into two new daughter cells with the same genetic material.
Explanation:
1. What groups listed below have true cell walls?
A. algae
B. mycoplasmas
C. Gram-positive bacteria
D. fungi
E. protozoans
Answer:
D. Fungi
Explanation:
The fungal cell walls are made of complex & flexible structure that is made of glycoproteins, pigments chitin and α- and β- linked glucans
which 3 reactions form atp?
Answer:
Answer below
Explanation:
The eight steps of the citric acid cycle are a series of redox, dehydration, hydration, and decarboxylation reactions. Each turn of the cycle forms one GTP or ATP as well as three NADH molecules and one FADH2 molecule, which will be used in further steps of cellular respiration to produce ATP for the cell.
what are catabolic reactions
Answer:
which complex molecules are broken down to simpler components, are classified as catabolic reactions. Taken as a group of reactions within a cell or even an organism, they can be referred to as the cell's or organism's anabolism or catabolism.
Explanation:
Select the correct answer.
Jayden is taking a test. He has to write why scientists support the theory that life began near hydrothermal vents in the ocean. Which point should he include in his answer?
A.
Hydrothermal vents were closest to ocean surface, and therefore could receive oxygen.
B.
Oceans were dry and only had water near the hydrothermal vents in the earlier ages.
C.
Even today, all life forms are first born near hydrothermal vents and they later migrate to land.
D.
Fossils of archeabacteria, which are early common ancestors, were found near hydrothermal vents.
Answer:
The answer is; D
Archaebacteria are early life forms on earth. They utilized the process of chemosynthesis to make organic molecules from inorganic molecules and for energy. The word archae means ‘ancient’ life forms. These single-celled organisms evolved around sulfur-rich environments of the hydrothermal vents.
Answer:
D
Explanation:
What is the primary use of the sugars that the algae produce?
1. The increase in the reproductive success of a species will have the greatest impact on
the-
Answer:
The increase in the reproductive success of a species will have the greatest impact on the prey of the animal.
Explanation:
The prey's population will decrease because there are more animals needing it to survive.
4. Which of the following statements BEST explains why you can hear noises
long distances at night?
A. There are fewer other noises at night.
B. Water conducts sound better at night.
C. Sound bounces off water better at night.
D. Sound waves are bent towards the cool air.
i guess its answer is option D
Different energy sources provide different benefits to individuals and the environment. What are some nonpolluting sources of energy? a. coal, oil, and natural gas. c. alcohol and acetylene. b. nuclear energy. d. wind, solar, and hydroelectric power.
Answer:
Its D
Explanation:
Because they cause no harm to the environment and they are very safe to the environment.
Answer:
D
Explanation:
I took the test on edge
amino acid structure: the only part of the amino acid structure that varies between the amino acids and makes each type unique is
Answer:
The side groups are what make each amino acid different from the others. Of the 20 side groups used to make proteins, there are two main groups: polar and non-polar. These names refer to the way the side groups, sometimes called "R" groups, interact with the environment.
Explanation:
what is thesaurus and online resources?
Answer:
thesaurus is a book that is filled with all types of synonyms for words
synonyms are words that are different but same in meaning
eg: yummy
another word for yummy is delicious
so delicious is a synonym that is included in the book named thesaurus
hope it helps
; )
Explanation:
1 Sustainability means: A. Meeting present needs without compromising needs of future generations B. Meeting present needs without the concern for future generations C. Ignoring the needs of current generations to help future generations D. Sustaining fish at a certain depth in the ocean 15 (1 Point)
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Which is an abiotic factor that most limits the number of frogs living in a pond?
Answer:the temperature of the water
Explanation:
NEED ANSWER ASAP! Aside from safety, which of the following is an additional benefit of understanding animal behavior? A Reduced stress improves the health, fertility, and production of animals B Animals that feel understood are more likely to stifle aggressive tendencies C Well trained animals receive a higher market value than do untrained animals D Handling that have a strong connection to their animals often get breeding rights
Answer:
I think its A.........
Answer:
It's A
Explanation:
what shoukd the patient expect to experience living with the disease- Sitius Inversus?? in ur own words
Answer:
there is a complete mirror image transposition of the thoracic (chest) and abdominal organs , and anterior-posterior (front-back) symmetry is normal. Many affected people have no associated health issues when the condition is isolated.
Explanation:
Which answer best explains how most scientists think that planets form? A. Large chunks of matter break off a star that collides with another star; these chunks then become planets orbiting the star. B. Large chunks of matter break off a planet that collides with a smaller body; these chunks gradually clump together to become a new planet. C. A rotating cloud of space dust and gases begins to flatten and condense, forming a new star; the remaining matter forms an accretionary disc around the star, gradually coalescing to form planets. D. A rotating cloud of space dust and gases begins to condense, forming a protoplanet; if the protoplanet is massive enough, its gravity will attract nearby matter until the protoplanet becomes large and round enough to be considered a planet.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Thats what the teacher told me
The scientists believe that planets form when a rotating cloud of space dust and gases flattens and condenses, forming a new star; the remaining matter forms an accretionary disc around the star, gradually coalescing to form planets, as described in Option C, also known as the "nebular hypothesis."
What is the nebular hypothesis?The nebular hypothesis is the most widely accepted scientific theory for the planetary systems, such that the solar system and, as per this theory, a cloud of gas and dust, called a nebula, collapse due to gravitational forces; the nebula contracts, and it rotates faster, flattening into a disk, which eventually cools and condenses, forming a protoplanetary disk.
Hence, the scientists believe that planets form when a rotating cloud of space dust and gases flattens and condenses, forming a new star; the remaining matter forms an accretionary disc around the star, gradually coalescing to form planets, as described in Option C, also known as the "nebular hypothesis."
Learn more about the nebular hypothesis here.
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Which stroke or style is usually swum in a warm-up?
Answer:
The #1 stroke referred to in the warm-up is the stroke you're focusing on in the upcoming session, your main event this session. After sitting around for an hour or so waiting for your event, it's important to wake up the muscles and increase the blood flowing through your body again.
There are many reasons why all humans do not perceive sounds similarly in our environment, including adaptation, hearing loss and/or deafness.
For 2A-2D, first determine whether the scenario is an example of sensory adaptation, conduction deafness, sensorineural deafness, and/or central deafness.
Second, for the scenarios that are examples of deafness, explain briefly how the scenario leads to deafness (i.e., how does the scenario alter normal auditory processing). If you have selected sensory adaptation as an answer, explain briefly why the scenario does not fall under the categorization of deafness. Use your own words to briefly explain - simply listing definitions is not sufficient. (2.5 points each for matching, 5 points each for correct justification)
2A. Listening to excessive loud noises everyday over years that causes loss of stereocilia
2B. Hearing construction outside when it first begins, but no longer noticing the sound minutes later
2C. Difficulty understanding speech, but no damage to ears or ability to understand nonverbal sounds
2D. A hole in the tympanic membrane caused by an ear infection
Answer: 2A Sensorineural deafness
2B Sensory adaptation
2C Central deafness
2D Conductive deafness
Explanation: The human ear is divided into 3 parts:
Outer Ear: auricle, ear canal and tympanic membrane;Middle Ear: eardrum, tympanic cavity and ossicles (malleus, incus and stapes);Inner Ear: oval window, semicircular ducts (attached to cochlea and nerves), cochlea and auditory tube;The Sensorineural deafness is a type of deafness caused by a damage in the inner ear, either the cochlea or the auditory nerve. It can happen because of medicine toxicity, exposure to noise along the years etc.
So, from the scenarios above, 2A is consistent with sensorineural deafness since stereocilia are hair cells of inner ear.
Sensory adaptation is a phenomenom that happens when an individual's sensory receptors is exposed to a stimuli for a prolonged period of time. For example, the situation described in 2B. It is not considered deafness because it is not caused by a damage in any part of the ear.
Central deafness is a very rare case of deafness. The damage in this type of deafness is in the brain and not in any of the 3 parts of the ear. That's why the scenario in 2C is the example of this.
Conductive deafness is the second most common type of ear problem and it occurs in the outer ear. One of the causes is blockage in the ear canal by the ear wax, external bodies, osteomas (bone growth) or otitis (oute ear infection). An example of this type of deafness is scenario 2D.
Which letter marks the zone of inhibition?
Answer:
A. B
Explanation:
"B" as labelled in the above is the zone of inhibition.
The Zone of Inhibition is actually a test which is used to assess antimicrobial activities of a material or solution in relation to an micro-organism as a target. It is also known as Kirby-Bauer Test. It measures the antibiotic resistance and also used to inhibit microbial growth.
At the Point B, microbes can not grow in there; they are inhibited.
In the test, if bacterial strain or any other strain is susceptible to the antimicrobial agent, a zone of inhibition appears. If it shows resistance to that agent, then no zone is evidential.
To kill a fungus, you could use a fungi-_______
Answer:
antivirus
Explanation:
QUESTION 6
Which statement is true about graded potentials?
a. They always produce action potentials.
b. They always depolarize a neuron.
c. They change the voltage of a neuron by different amounts.
od. They are "all-or-none."
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