Answer:
These cells will be atrophied because muscle contractions can't occur.
Explanation:
In muscle cells, ATP binding causes a conformational change in the structure of myosin, thereby these filaments move to a high-energy configuration. The muscle contraction is caused when this high energy state is amplified in the actin filaments that bind to myosin, in a process dependent on the ATP hydrolysis. The myosin-actin cycle is repeated by binding another ATP molecule on the myosin head, producing the contraction of muscle cells.
At the neuromuscular junction, _______ must enter the synaptic end bulb to stimulate the release of ____________, which binds to ligand gates so ________ can enter the muscle fiber.
Answer:
At the neuromuscular junction, calcium must enter the synaptic end bulb to stimulate the release of acetylcholine, which binds to ligand gates so sodium ions can enter the muscle fiber.
Explanation:
Skeletal fiber contractions are based on different physiological and biochemical phenomena that happen in every cell. These phenomena are due to stimulation produced by somatic motor neurons, which axons get in contact with muscle fibers through a neuromuscular synapse. In rest, attraction strengths between myosin and actin filaments are inhibited by the tropomyosin. When an action potential is originated in the central nervous system, it travels to the somatic motor neuron membrane: the muscle fiber, and activates the calcium channels releasing it in the neuron. Calcium makes vesicles to fuse with the membrane and release the neurotransmitter named acetylcholine (Ach) into the synaptic space in the juncture. Then, Ach binds to its receptors on the skeletal muscle fiber. This causes the ion channels to open, and positively charged sodium ions cross the membrane to get into the muscle fiber (sarcoplasm) and potassium get out. The difference in charges caused by the migration of sodium and potassium makes the muscle fiber membrane to become more positively charged (depolarized). The action potential caused by this depolarization enters the t-tubules depolarizing the inner portion of the muscle fiber. This activates calcium channels in the T tubules membrane, that make the calcium be released into the sarcolemma. At this point, tropomyosin is obstructing binding sites for myosin on the thin filament. When calcium binds to the troponin C, the troponin T alters the tropomyosin by moving it and then unblocks the binding sites. Myosin binds to the uncovered actin-binding sites, and while doing it ATP is transformed into ADP and inorganic phosphate. Z-bands are then pulled toward each other, thus shortening the sarcomere and the I-band, and producing muscle fiber contraction.
5 Points
Great Britain would have a much colder climate than it does if not for the
O A. polar easterlies
B. gulf stream
C. trade winds
D. jet stream
SUBMIT
Hello There!
Answer:
B. Gulf stream
Explanation:
Great Britain would have a much colder climate than it does if not for the gulf stream.
2. Where does cellular respiration take places in the cell?
Answer:
Explanation:mitochondria
The enzymatic reactions of cellular respiration begin in the cytoplasm, but most of the reactions occur in the mitochondria. Cellular respiration occurs in the double-membrane organelle called the mitochondrion. The folds in the inner membrane are called cristae.
Answer:
IT TAKES PLACE IN THE CYTOPLASM BUT MOST OF THE REACTIONS TAKE PLACE IN THE MITOCHONDRIA
Explanation:
Cellular respiration occurs in the double-membrane organelle called the mitochondrion
HOPE IT HELPS
How Can Regulation be Accomplished? Chemotaxis by Pseudomonas aeruginosa requires regulation of macromolecules in response to signals. Protein regulation is very important and can be grouped into two categories: those that are based on protein activity and those that are based on the amount of protein present ,write the type of regulation described that does not affect the amount of protein present.
1. regulating amount of mRNA made
2. catabolite repression
3. post-translational modification small RNA (sRNA) regulation regulation of transcription
4. attenuation controlling whether mRNA is translated
Answer:
3. post-translational modification small RNA (sRNA) regulation regulation of transcription
Explanation:
The post-translational modification does not affect the amount of protein present because this type of change is only done to the protein when the translation process has finished, and there is a protein as a result. After the translation, the final product can suffer modifications such as the addition of different components, or enzymatic modifications. In other words, they are chemical changes that the protein experiences that do not affect the amount of protein present.
Rutherford tracked the motion of tiny, positively charged particles shot through a thin sheet of gold foil. Some particles traveled in a straight line and some were deflected at different angles. Which statement best describes what Rutherford concluded from the motion of the particles? Some particles traveled through empty spaces between atoms and some particles were deflected by electrons. Some particles traveled through empty parts of the atom and some particles were deflected by electrons. Some particles traveled through empty spaces between atoms and some particles were deflected by small areas of high-density positive charge in atoms. Some particles traveled through empty parts of the atom and some particles were deflected by small areas of high-density positive charge in atoms.
Answer:
Some particles traveled through empty parts of the atom and some particles were deflected by small areas of high-density positive charge in atoms.
Explanation:
Rutherford concluded from his experiment that there are empty spaces present in most parts of the atom while a heavy positive charge is present in the nucleus of an atom due to which the tiny positively charged particles deflects because of positive-positive charge repulsion. Most of positively charged particles passes undeflected which indicated the presence of empty spaces in the atoms. The electrons revolve around the nucleus have no effect on the deflection of positively charged particles.
Rutherford conducted a legendary experiment to determine atomic structure in which he bombarded a thin gold foil with alpha particles. In the aftermath of the experiment he concluded that; Some particles traveled through empty parts of the atom and some particles were deflected by small areas of high-density positive charge in atoms.
The gold foil experiment showed that the atom is composed of a massive core which contains positively charged particles.
This massive core is at the center of the atom surrounded by electrons that move in orbits. Hence, the resulting model of the atom was called the planetary model.
The deflected positively charged particles were deflected by this small area of high-density positive charge in atoms.
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-Lab-
"Why are cells so small"
Answer:
Explanation:
Because we need a lot of cells and if they were big only a small about would fit.
How are lysosomes pro-nuclear dense bodies?
Answer:i hope this answers ur question
Explanation:
Where does most of the phosphorus cycle take place?
in humans unattached earlobes are dominant over attached earlobes. which could be the genotybe for someone with attached earlobs/Answer/a is Ee/b is e/c is ee/D is E
Answer:
C. ee
Explanation:
attached earlobes isn't the dominant trait, if it isn't dominant then it'll have lower case letters to represent it
Answer:
C
Explanation
hopes this helps :]
The largest taxon and consists of all the other taxis called
Answer:
Domain
Explanation:
What occurs when two species have the
need for the same resource?
Answer:
Competition. Additionally, with competition comes survival of the fittest.
Explanation:
Competition is formed when more than one species must fight for the same resource/commodity.
The allosteric effector molecule 2,3-BPG facilitates transfer of oxygen between maternal and fetal blood in the placenta. Which of the following correctly describes the role of BPG in this process?
a. Fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is unable to cross the placenta into fetal blood, causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the R state.
b. Fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is present at similar levels in fetal and maternal blood, but it binds poorly to fetal hemoglobin, causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the R state.
c. Fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is present at similar levels in fetal and maternal blood, but it binds poorly to fetal hemoglobin, causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the T state.
d. Fetal hemoglobin releases oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is present at similar levels in fetal and maternal blood, but it binds more effectively to fetal hemoglobin causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the T state.
Answer:
b. Fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen better than maternal hemoglobin because BPG is present at similar levels in fetal and maternal blood, but it binds poorly to fetal hemoglobin, causing more fetal hemoglobin to be in the R state.
Explanation:
BPG is a chemical compound which is found in red blood cells. It is known for decreasing the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen and thus helps in unloading oxygen from hemoglobin.
Owing to the structural difference, fetal hemoglobin binds to BPG with less affinity as compared to maternal hemoglobin thus it shifts the oxyhemoglobin curve to the left i.e. causes fetal hemoglobin to be in the R state. Due to this, fetal hemoglobin can carry up to 30% more oxygen as compared to maternal hemoglobin. As a result of this, oxygen is readily transferred to fetal blood when maternal blood enters placenta which restricts hypoxia in fetus.
when the community climax in an ecosystem has only a single type of climax, the development of the climax community is controlled by ___ of that region.
a) the climate
b) the life forms
c) the soil texture
d) the pioneer community
Answer:
A.
Explanation:
because the climax community is composed of species beat adopted to average conditions in that area
When the community climax in an ecosystem has only a single type of climax, the development of the climax community is controlled by the climate of that region. Option A is correct.
The climate of a region is the most important factor that controls the development of a climax community. The climate determines the temperature, precipitation, and other abiotic factors that influence the growth and survival of plants and animals.
In a region with a single type of climax community, the climate is relatively uniform and there is little variation in the abiotic factors. This means that the same species of plants and animals will be able to survive and thrive in the region, regardless of the specific location. The life forms, soil texture, and pioneer community can all influence the development of a climax community, but they are not as important as the climate. Option A is correct.
To know more about the Ecosystem, here
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What brings greater concentrations of dissolved nutrients to the ocean surface?
Answer: Upwelling
Explanation:
Upwelling is a process of movement of dense, cold and nutrient rich water from the bottom of the ocean to the surface layers due to wind currents. This process replaces the warm and nutrient deficient water from the surface.
This process is useful for the growth of phytoplanktons and other sea plants growing in the surface layer of oceanic water.
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Which statement accurately describes long-term environmental changes?
Long-term environmental changes cause changes in genetic makeup.
Long-term environmental changes happen suddenly with little warning,
Long-term environmental changes occur in hundreds of years.
Long-term environmental changes immediately affect organisms in the environment
Answer:
A. or #1 -- Long-term environmental changes cause changes in genetic makeup
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation:
who is Charles darwin
Answer:
Charles Darwin came up with the theory of evolution.
Charles Darwin is a writer who wrote the book Orgin of species . He is the one that gave the idea of evolution . his proposition that all species of life have decended over time from common ancestors. He is a english naturalist, geologist and biologist
Imagine that you have added a fluorescent tag to all of the amino acids inside of a bacterium. You then infect the bacterium with a phage. At the end of the phage's lytic cycle, you examine the new phage particles for fluorescence. Which of the following new phage particle components would you expect to exhibit the fluorescent tag?A. phage DNAB. phage RNAC. phage capsomeresD. A and BE. A, B, and CF. none of the above
Answer:
The answer is A.
Explanation:
The bacteriophage is an organism that attacks bacteria and uses them to replicate it's DNA to reproduce and multiply.
If all the amino acids of the bacteria are flagged with fluorescent tag, then the new bacteriophage's DNA will exhibit the fluorescent tag because it will be constructed using the bacteria's protein molecules in the first place. So the answer is A.
I hope this helps.
Which gas is a major contributor to ocean acidification? A. oxygen B. sulfur dioxide C. carbon dioxide D. nitrogen
Answer:C, carbon dioxide.
Explanation:Carbon Dioxide reacts with water forming Carbonic acid. This acid increases the acidity of the ocean.
Answer:
Explanation: got it correct
Some present-day bacteria use a system of anaerobic respiration characterized by an electron transport chain analogous to that found in aerobic organisms. Which of the following correctly characterizes the anaerobic electron transport chain?
a. It uses oxygen as a final electron acceptor.
b. It is embedded in the outer mitochondrial membrane rather than the inner mitochondrial membrane.
c. It establishes a proton gradient between the cytoplasm and the extracellular fluid.
d. It establishes a proton gradient between the intermembrane space and the cytoplasm.
e. None of these answer options accurately characterizes the anaerobic electron transport chain.
Answer:
The correct answer would be:
Neither of these response options accurately features the anaerobic electron transport chain.
Explanation:
The anaerobic respiration system vibrated by an electron transport chain is a mechanism that anaerobic bacteria have to maintain their respiration.
This mechanism does not require oxygen in the atmosphere, that is why it is said to be an anaerobic mechanism.
Bacteria do not all need oxygen in the environment to live, some need that oxygen is not exactly present (strict anaerobes) or that it is at low partial pressures (facultative anaerobes).
This mechanism is very characteristic in its location since it is located in the inner membrane of the mitochondria, that is why it will decide to indicate that option as the correct one.
During which phase of the cell cycle do chromatids form?
In 1668 Francesco Redi did a series of experiments on spontaneous generation. He began by putting similar pieces of meat into eight identical jars. Four jars were left open to the air, and four were sealed. He then did the same experiment with one variation: instead of sealing four of the jars completely, he covered them with gauze (the gauze will exclude the flies while allowing the meat to be exposed to air). In both experiments, he monitored the jars and recorded whether or not maggots (young flies) appeared in the meat.
Refer to the paragraph on Redi's experiments. In both experiments, fies appeared in all of the open jars and only in the open jars. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. The experiment was inconclusive because it did not nun long enough
B. The experiment supports the hypothesis that spontaneous generation occurs in rotting meat.
C. The expertment supports the hwpothesis that maggots arise only from eggs laid by adult flhes
D. The experiment was inconclusive because Redi used only one kind of meat
Answer:
The experiment supports the hypothesis that maggots arise only from eggs laid by adult flies; that is only from reproduction and development.
Explanation:
The objective of this experimental set up by Francesco Radi was to demonstrate the concept of spontaneous generation. He concluded that, Maggots are not spontaneous generated from rotten meats, rather they are products of eggs laid by houseflies who visited the rotten meat to lay eggs. The maggots (larva) are products of complete metamorphosis, from egg to larva to pupa and adult. This is an indication that, new organisms are not formed form spontaneously, but are products of well-defined process of reproduction and development which in this case is a complete metamorphosis.
Based on this premise he concluded that, if maggots were products of laid eggs, then they should appear only when rotten meat is exposed to open air.However,if they are f products of spontaneous generation they should appear irrespective of the meat exposure to air or not.
Which of the following is NOT a product of the light reaction?
Answer:
all but the last one
Explanation:
NADH is not a product of the light reaction of photosynthesis.
• The role of NAD+ is that it acts as an electron carrier.
• NADH is formed from NAD when it oxidizes the compound by accepting electrons and adding hydrogen ions to the compound.
What do NADH mean?
NADH stands for "Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide (NAD) + Hydrogen (H)." This chemical occurs naturally in the body and plays a role in the chemical process that produces energy.People use NADH supplements as medicine.Learn more about NADH here.
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Why would damage to the nervous tissue in the spinal cord lead to paralysis?
Damage results in the loss of signals to muscles to produce movement.
Damage results in the inability of the body to differentiate between voluntary and involuntary movement.
Damage results in the inability of the body to produce connective tissue to support movement.
Damage results in the decreased production of actin and myosin for contraction
Answer:
B. Damage results in the inability of the body to differentiate between voluntary and involuntary movement
Explanation:
Answer:
b
Explanation:
Explain why detritivores, decomposers and omnivores are not assigned trophic level
Answer:
They can be found in several trophic levels, as they are related with several trophic level, hence, they cannot be placed on a specific trophic level.
Explanation:
A trophic level is a specific position occupied by a group of organisms on a good chain in relation to their nutrition.
Dentrivores feed on the waste of other organisms and cannot be really placed on a specific trophic level, likewise decomposers, of which they feed and decompose the body of organisms.
Omnivores feed on both plants and animals, which includes producers and consumers. Placing omnivores on a specific trophic level would not be really straightforward also.
Which of the following is a known limiting factor for good nutrition
Answer:
seems you forgot the "followings" but here are some known limiting factors
Explanation:
Exercise,Physiology, Mindset, Nutrition and Genetics.
The ___ cycle is not a nutrient cycle.
Answer:
water cycle
Explanation:
The function of the plasma membrane is....
Answer:
to protect the cell from it's surroundings
Explanation:
the plasma membrane is selectively permeable to ions and organic molecules and regulates the movement of substances in and out of cells
Explanation:
The primary function of the plasma membrane is to protect the cell from its surroundings.
Sorry if the ans is wrong
Colistin is an antibiotic used to treat infections in the bloodstream. Some bacteria are resistant to Colistin. Explain how these bacteria have become resistant to Colistin.
Answer:
They have adapted to it
Explanation:
Explain TWO strategic ways employed by microbes of extreme environments that enable them withstand harsh environmental and physical conditions
Answer:
Explanation:
Some microbes are thermophiles and they can survive in area with high temperature between 45 -80°C, they are chemoautotroph in nature, oxidizing sulphur to products acids such as sulfur in the environment. This acid also help them to better adapt to the environment as many thermophiles likes acidic environment.
Thermophiles body has saturated and straight chain fatty acid that helps prevent denaturation which enables them grow and thrive in harsh weather condition by providing the fluidity that is needed in membrane function.
Thermophiles are also small in sizes this ensure there stability.
3. Mutations that occur in the BPG binding cavity on deoxyhemoglobin can at times result in the substitution of lysine and histidine residues present with aspartic acid and phenylalanine residues. Explain how these changes would impact BPG binding to deoxyhemoglobin along with the impact it would have on oxygen transport with hemoglobin
Answer:
It affects the oxygenation of the tissues in a negative way, that is, causing tissue hypoxias.
Explanation:
What will happen is that BPG, having a different relationship with deoxyhemoglobin, hemoglobin will not give oxygen to organs or tissues during glycolysis at times when the sympathetic nervous system is activated or even in the maintenance of physiological tissue vitality, therefore it will trigger a drop in the partial pressure of the gas both in the blood and in the tissues since they will be retained in the hemoglobin structure without being able to release it.