The mRNA codon UUU, for instance, codes for phenyl alanine in all cells of all species. So genetic code is shared by all living things.
Genetic code is the term used to describe the instructions sent by a gene to a cell on how to manufacture a certain protein. The four DNA bases, adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), and thymine (T), are used in different ways by each gene's coding to create three-letter "codons" that describe the amino acid that is required at each gene location in a protein. biological code. The history of the genetic code encompasses biology and genetics in the 19th, 20th, and 21st centuries, along with the opportunities and dangers they presented. Oswald Avery, for instance, demonstrated the genetic code in 1944.
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fatigue caused by depletion of glycogen stores and declining blood glucose during exercise is sometimes called
Answer:
Neuroglucopenia is the right answer
Explanation:
Test 2022
until recently it was the widely accepted explanation of macroevolution. this model stated that small changes occur at a steady rate over many millions of years. this is the model of evolution.
Origins, diversifications, & extinctions are examples of macroevolutionary processes that occur on a large scale and require a long period, called geologic time.
Macroevolution includes both studying patterns on the tree of life just above species level and figuring out the mechanisms that are likely to have created these patterns.
Macroevolutionary thinking is useful for providing a more thorough knowledge of the primates' historical evolutionary extinctions. Examples of macroevolutionary processes that take place on a huge scale and require a lengthy period of time, known as geologic time, include origins, diversifications, and extinctions.
To understand such processes, one needs historical evidence, such as fossils from hundreds of millions of years ago or slowly evolving genetic sequences. Broad, protracted evolutionary changes are referred to as macroevolutionary.
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which two ecosystems are well known for the fact that they make excellent nurseries for infant and juvenile fish?
Answer:
Acquatic ecosystem and terrestrial ecos
what determines the difference in speed of contraction of the different types of skeletal muscle cells?
The rate of contraction varies depending on whether the myosin ATPase is fast or slow in the skeletal muscle cells.
Muscles are able to produce force and movement because they are organs that have cells that can contract. The skeleton's bones and skeletal muscles work together to produce body movements. It is connected to the diaphragmatic, esophageal, and ocular muscles as well. Skeletal muscle is used for a number of bodily functions, such as swallowing, breathing, and movement. Skeletal muscle contracts largely in reaction to voluntary input, in contrast to both smooth muscle and cardiac muscle.
The physical examination of a patient always includes a test to measure muscle strength and contraction. When a patient complains of weakness during a physical examination, generally in the context of a neurologic condition, the main goal of muscular strength testing is to assess and establish a differential diagnosis.
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Resident Microbiota Evaluate the statements below and select those that correctly apply to the role of the resident microbiota in the first line of defense. Check All That Apply Microbial antagoniam contributes to the first line of defense since resident dobioto compete for nutrients and oxygen limiting availability for pathogens. Commensal microbiota are problematic to human defentement should be kept at a minimum Research suggests that chronic ramatory code, che thought to be when the host defenses inappropriately attack the resident biote
The statement which apply to the role of the resident microbiota is option A)Microbial antagoniam contributes to the first line of defense since resident dobioto compete for nutrients and oxygen.
Microbiota are considered as the range of the microorganisms that may be commensal, symbiotic, or the pathogenic which found in and on all multicellular organisms, including plants.
Microbiota includes various type of microorganisms like bacteria, archaea, protists, fungi, and viruses, and have been found to be crucial for the development of immunologic, hormonal, and metabolic homeostasis of their host.
The microbiome and host emerged during the evolution as a synergistic unit from epigenetics and genetic characteristics, sometimes collectively called to as a holobiont. The presence of the microbiota in human and other metazoan guts has been critical in understanding the co-evolution between metazoans and bacteria.
Hence, correct option is A.
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(Complete question) is:
Evaluate the statements below and select those that correctly apply to the role of the resident microbiota in the first line of defense. Check All That Apply.
A)Microbial antagoniam contributes to the first line of defense since resident dobioto compete for nutrients and oxygen
B)Limiting availability for pathogens.
C)Commensal microbiota are problematic to human defentement should be kept at a minimum Research suggests that chronic ramatory code, che thought to be when the host defenses inappropriately attack the resident biote.
Suppose that, with regard to a particular gene with two alleles, a and a, we know that 60% of the alleles in the gene pool of a particular large population are a. We observe this population for five generations, during which we know that no mutation, selection, or migration has occurred. After this period, the frequency of the a allele is expected to be _____.
The frequency of the a allele is expected to be the appropriate response is: 0.4 .
Given that genotype and allele frequencies in populations are not changing, this is an illustration of the Hardy-Weinberg Principle in action. This indicates that frequencies don't change from generation to generation in the absence of evolutionary forces like founder effect, genetic drift, mate choice, natural selection, sexual selection, mutation, gene flow, and meiotic drive.
This concept also states that HW equilibrium exists: P2+2pq+q2=1 or p+q=1, where p is the frequency of one allele and q is the frequency of another allele; p2 is the frequency of one homozygous genotype (q2 of another), and 2pq is the frequency of heterozygous genotypes.
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a skeletal muscle fiber was bathed in thapsigargin, a ca -atpase inhibitor, then stimulated repeatedly to contract. what is the predicted result?
Decreased contraction force as result of a breakdown in Ca gradient across sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane. In steady state, quantity of calcium entering cell must match quantity pushed out on each cardiac muscle.
If not, either Ca would be gained or lost by the cell. Only momentary imbalances between Ca entrance and departure can influence the magnitude of the Ca transient, which in turn affects contractility. The electric excitation of the surface membrane is connected to contraction by a mechanism known as excitation-contraction coupling. Numerous studies conducted since the original observations in cardiac muscle have shown the underlying variations in cytoplasmic calcium concentration. Ca attaches to troponin, causing the thick and thin filaments to slide and the cells to shrink. This causes pressure to build up inside the ventricle and blood to be expelled. As a result, force is dependent on how much calcium is bound to troponin. This is going to depend on the height and length of the [Ca2+]i increase. It will also rely on the degree of Ca binding, which can be modified genetically, is regulated by elements like phosphorylation, and could serve as the foundation for therapeutic approaches. However, the amount of intracellular Ca is the main variable that controls contraction. It's crucial to keep in mind that normal cardiac function necessitates that force and that [Ca2+]i relaxes fast to low enough levels so that the heart can refill with blood. This is in addition to concentrating on the elevation of [Ca2+]i during systole. As a result, it is imperative to strictly manage both diastolic and systolic [Ca2+]i; this regulation is the focus of the current paper.
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diabetes and insulin signaling by kristy j wilson why does it make sense that mia’s grandfather may be more fatigued than a non diabetic
Mia's father would definitely be more fatigued because the body is unable to utilize the glucose available for energy.
What is diabetes?Diabetes is defined as the metabolic disorder whereby the pancreatic islet cells do not secrete insulin or secretes less insulin which should be used by the body for the metabolism of glucose.
The clinical manifestations found in an individual with diabetes include the following:
excessive hunger, excessive thirst, or fatiguefrequent urination, blurred vision, andpoor wound healing.The effective metabolism of glucose provides the body with ready energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) which is used for cellular activities such as muscular activities.
Therefore, Mia's grandfather may feel fatigued because of poor metabolism of glucose.
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the mrna molecules used in the moderna (mod) and the pfizer-biontech (p-tech) vaccines contain genetic information for what sars-cov-2 viral component?
The mRNA molecules used in the Moderna (mod) and the Pfizer-BioNTech (p-tech) vaccines contain genetic information for the Spike protein of the SARS-CoV-2 viral component
A protein that emerges from the enveloped virus's surface in the form of a large structure known as a spike or peplomer is referred to as a spike protein or peplomer protein.
Moderna and Pfizer vaccines are based on mRNA and contain genetic information for spike protein. This allows the body to develop immunity to spike protein and defend itself against viral infection.
The Spike protein of SARS-CoV-2 binds to the receptor on the host cell and causes virus-cell membrane fusion, which is essential for the virus's invasion.
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Streptococcus pneumoniae is an encapsulated gram-positive bacterium. What is the function of capsule in disease pathogenesis?.
Streptococcus pneumoniae is an encapsulated gram-positive bacterium the function of the capsule in these infections is to allow the bacterium to evade phagocytosis.
How does Streptococcus pneumoniae become pathogenic?
Millions of people around the world have died as a result of the infectious pathogen streptococcus pneumoniae. Pneumococcal diseases are those brought on by this bacterium. This pathogen initially colonizes its host's nasopharynx asymptomatically, but over time it has the potential to spread to healthy tissues and organs and cause infections.
How can bacterial caps help dangerous bacteria become more virulent?Because it increases bacteria's capacity to spread disease, the capsule is regarded as a virulence factor (e.g. prevents phagocytosis). The capsule can stop eukaryotic cells like macrophages from engulfing the cells. Phagocytosis can need the presence of a capsule-specific antibody.
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what is the most common type of white blood cell
Answer:
Neutrophils
Explanation:
Neutrophils kill and digest bacteria and fungi. They are the most numerous type of white blood cell and your first line of defense when infection strikes
sieve-tube elements are food-conducting plant cells that are part of the a) xylem. b) sclereids. c) tracheids. d) phloem.
Sieve-tube elements are food-conducting plant cells that are part of the d) phloem.
Phloem is a transport network that functions to transport and distribute food substances from photosynthesis from leaves to all parts of the plant. Phloem will transport dissolved substances, sap, around the plant. Phloem tissue is composed of pyramid-shaped cells. Phloem consists of fibers, companion cells, sieve tubes, and phloem parenchyma.
Sieve-tube elements are the main conducting cells in the phloem which have a special role. Conducting cells assist in the transport of molecules especially in long distance signaling and their pores allow connections between the cytoplasm and neighboring cells. The sieve will also serve as a conduit for transporting sugar over long distances.
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The sequence of nucleotides in a single strand of DNA is shown. TGA - GTG - AAT - CAT. Which of the following represents the complementary DNA strand?
CAG ACA GGC TGC
ACU CAC UUA GUA
ACT CAC TTA GTA
GTC TGT CCG ACG
Problem Set 4 Answers
1a. The template DNA strand, from which the mRNA is synthesized, is 5’ CAAACTACCCTGGGTTGCCAT 3’
(RNA synthesis proceeds in a 5’ à 3’ direction, so the template strand and the mRNA will be complementary to each other)
b. The coding DNA strand, which is complementary to the template strand, is 5’ ATGGCAACCCAGGGTAGTTTG 3’
c. The sequence of the mRNA is 5’ AUGGCAACCCAGGGUAGUUUG 3’
(the sequence of the mRNA is complementary to the template strand and identical to the coding strand with U substituted for T)
d. The third codon is 5’ ACC 3’. Therefore, the corresponding anti-codon is 5’ GGU 3’
2. Below is a table for the genetic code:
T
C
A
G
T
TTT Phe (F)
TTC "
TTA Leu (L)
TTG "
TCT Ser (S)
TCC "
TCA "
TCG "
TAT Tyr (Y)
TAC "
TAA Stop
TAG Stop
TGT Cys (C)
TGC "
TGA Stop
TGG Trp (W)
C
CTT Leu (L)
CTC "
CTA "
CTG "
CCT Pro (P)
CCC "
CCA "
CCG "
CAT His (H)
CAC "
CAA Gln (Q)
CAG "
CGT Arg (R)
CGC "
CGA "
CGG "
A
ATT Ile (I)
ATC "
ATA "
ATG Met (M)
ACT Thr (T)
ACC "
ACA "
ACG "
AAT Asn (N)
AAC "
AAA Lys (K)
AAG "
AGT Ser (S)
AGC "
AGA Arg (R)
AGG "
G
GTT Val (V)
GTC "
GTA "
GTG "
GCT Ala (A)
GCC "
GCA "
GCG "
GAT Asp (D)
GAC "
GAA Glu (E)
GAG "
GGT Gly (G)
GGC "
GGA "
GGG "
a. The following codons can be mutated by one base to produce an amber codon:
CAG Gln
AAG Lys
GAG Glu
TCG Ser
TTG Leu
TGG Trp
TAA Stop
TAT Tyr
TAC Tyr
b. From part a, CAG (Gln) and TGG (Trp) can become amber stop codons through EMS.
c. From part b, both of the resulting amber codons could be suppressed by amber nonsense suppressors generated by EMS.
3a. The codon is the three nucleotide sequence in the mRNA that indicates which amino acid should be incorporated in the growing polypeptide chain. The anticodon is the complementary three nucleotide sequence in the appropriate tRNA.
b. Template strand is the DNA strand off which the mRNA is synthesized. The coding, or non-template, strand is the DNA strand complementary to the template strand; it has the same sequence (except for T for U substitutions) as the mRNA.
c. The Pribnow box is a sequence of six nucleotides (TATAAT) positioned at -10 that signals where transcription initiation should begin in prokaryotic DNA. The Shine-Delgarno sequence is a short, purine-rich region in the mRNA that is complementary to the rRNA within the 16S ribosomal subunit. The sequence signals which AUG acts as the translation start in mRNA.
4a. False, a wobble allows the anticodon in the tRNA to hybridize with different codons in mRNA.
b. False, a frameshift mutation affects all the subsequent amino acids.
c. False, only one codon (AUG) encodes for the start of protein synthesis; three codons signal the end of protein synthesis.
d. False, the wobble is first base (5’ to 3’) in the anticodon.
e. True, RNA can be used as a template for DNA synthesis in a process known as reverse transcription.
f. True. For example, a single base substitution causing CAT to change to AAT would signal a termination.
g. False, the Wobble Hypothesis explains how alternate base pairing can occur with the first nucleotide (going from 5' to 3') in the anticodon.
5a. Digestion of RNA with alkali will cleave the strand after each 3’ phosphate. Therefore, the products remaining will consist of pppNp, Np, and N-OH
b. If RNA was synthesized in the 3’ to 5’ direction (i.e. by adding ribonucleotides to the 5’ end), then the pppNp and Np fragments should be labeled with tritium.
c. If RNA was synthesized in the 5’ to 3’ direction (i.e. by adding ribonucleotides to the 3’ end), then the Np and N-OH fragments should be labeled with tritium.
d. Since the N-OH fragments were labeled with tritium, RNA synthesis must occur in a 5' to 3' direction.
6. In a missense mutation, the new nucleotide alters the codon so as to produce an altered amino acid in the protein product. With a nonsense mutation, the new nucleotide changes a codon that specified an amino acid to one of the stop codons (TAA, TAG, or TGA). Therefore, translation of the messenger RNA transcribed from this mutant gene will stop prematurely.
examine the reconstruction of the ardipithecus ramidus pelvis below. what adaptations for bipedalism are seen in this pelvis?
The curvature in the lower back (lumbar lordosis) helps balance the upper body on the pelvis. In the upper half of the pelvis, the size, shape, and orientation of the iliac paddles differ between apes and humans in a way that reflects our commitment to the walking biped.
In Ardipithecus ramidus it has been tapered and flattened on the sides to support the legs and they also have a shorter and wider pelvis. The three skeletal adaptations that result in a platypelloid pelvis include: an elongated ilium that repositions the gluteal muscles, a shorter distance between the sacroiliac and hip joints, and a ventrally titrated pelvis that aligns the sacroiliac and hip joints. and ultimately produces lumbar lordosis Human bipedalism is promoted by a narrow pelvis. However, in mammals, the pelvis is also the passageway through which newborn babies pass, and the birth canal must be large enough to accommodate a birth. Bipedalism resulted in skeletal changes in the joints of the legs, knees, and ankles, spinal vertebrae, toes, and arms. Most significantly, the pelvis became shorter and rounder, with a smaller birth canal, making childbirth more difficult for humans than other primates.
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5. the phenotypic ratio for a monohybrid cross, a cross between parents that differ in only one character, for the f2 generation was found to be
The Phenotypic ratio in a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous parents in the f2 offspring is 3:1.
Gregor John Mendel who is considered the father of genetics gave the phenotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross.Phenotypic ratio is the quantifiable relationship between phenotypes that shows how often the frequency of one phenotype equals the frequency of another phenotype.Two homozygous crossed plants considering that the progeny was heterozygous.He called this cross a monohybrid cross. The phenotypic ratio in the f2 offspring differs from the original ratio due to this incomplete inheritance process.This can be explained by the Punnett square.
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the concentration of solutes in a red blood cell is about a third that of seawater – about 0.3 m. if red blood cells are immersed in pure water, they swell. calculate the osm
The osmotic pressure at 25 °c of red blood cells across the cell membrane from pure water is 7.34atm
What is osmotic pressure?
Osmotic pressure is defined as the pressure that must be applied to the solution side to stop fluid movement when a semipermeable membrane separates a solution from pure water.
What would happen if red blood cells were placed in seawater?
Seawater is hypertonic to the cytoplasm in vertebrate cells and in plant cells. If a red blood cell and a plant cell were placed in seawater, the red blood cell would burst, and the plant cell would shrink.
What is the solute concentration of red blood cells?
Red blood cells have a solute concentration of around 0.9%.
Thus, the osmotic pressure of red blood cells is 7.34atm
Given: Concentration of Red blood cell C=0.30M, R=0.0821, T=298k
Osmotic pressure =CRT
Osmotic pressure=0.3 × 0.0821 × 298
Osmotic pressure =7.33979 ≃ 7.34atm
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Root Words The root word of
the word codon is the word code.
Why does this root word make
sense?
Answer:
Explanation:
The reason why this root word makes sense is because the units used to code DNA are called codons. There is a unique protein for each codon used to compose the double helix of DNA.
in individuals homozygous for a tandem duplication, the two homologous chromosome with duplications can pair out of register during meiosis. such homologs can undergo a(n) crossing-over.
In individuals homozygous for a tandem duplication, two homologous chromosome with duplications can pair out of register during meiosis. Such homologs can undergo unequal crossing-over.
What is meant by unequal crossing over?Unequal crossing over is a type of gene duplication that deletes a sequence in one strand and replaces it with a duplication from its sister chromatid in mitosis or from homologous chromosome during meiosis
Repeated rounds of unequal crossing over causes homogenization of the two sequences. With the increase in the duplicates, unequal crossing over may cause dosage imbalance in the genome that can prove to be highly deleterious.
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compare the changes in blood ph, carbon dioxide, and oxygen during sustained exercise. what causes the large increase in respiratory minute volume during exercise
Exercise-induced changes in acid-base and ion balance in normoxic and normobaric hypoxia
Complex alterations in acid-base balance are brought on by both exercise and hypoxia. The current study's goal was to determine if the modified physicochemical approach provides a better understanding of the changes in acid-base homeostasis after vigorous physical activity in normoxic and hypoxia than the conventional Henderson-Hasselbalch technique.
Methods
In this prospective, randomized, crossover trial, 19 healthy males underwent two study days of normoxia (12%) and normobaric hypoxia (12% oxygen, equivalent to an altitude of 4500 m) and exercised on a bicycle ergometer until voluntary exhaustion. Following the exercise test, arterial blood gases were sampled and analysed using the modified physicochemical approach and Henderson-Hasselbalch approach, respectively.
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in an embryo with a complete deficiency of pyruvate kinase, how many net moles of atp are generated in the conversion of 1 mole of glucose to 1 mole of pyruvate?
In embryos with a complete deficiency of pyruvate kinase, the net moles of ATP converted from 1 mole of glucose to 1 mole of pyruvate is 0.
Pyruvate kinase is an enzyme involved in the last step of glycolysis that catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate group from phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) to adenosine diphosphate (ADP), yielding one molecule of pyruvate and one molecule of ATP.
The 2 molecules formed are used for several chemical reactions that are endergonic. Thus, the total ATP produced in this reaction is 2 ATP.
Net ATP = 2 ATP produced - needed 2 ATP = net 0 ATP produced.
Thus the net ATP production will be zero. It is unlikely that the embryo will survive with a complete lack of this enzyme.
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a more standardized protocol for the kirby-bauer method that allows for greater reliability in results would be to use : (a) agar plate media poured to a specific depth, and (b) bacterial cultures of specific cell densities (macfarland standards).True or False?
The standard protocol for Kirby-Bauer method will provide grater reliability when the media is poured to a specific depth and of specific density.
MH is an agar is used as a well-known medium for the Kirby-Bauer test. It have to be poured into the plate at a sure thickness and a sure pH to yield dependable results. The disk diffusion, or Kirby-Bauer, method, is a not unusualplace check used to decide antibiotic susceptibility . Diffusion checking out works through setting an antibiotic disc onto an agar plate containing bacteria.
Therefore, the given statement is true.
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last time we ran our simulation we examined factors like climate (rainfall), resources (food), and boundaries (fences). think about our last two lessons.... what are two factors we can add to our simulation to determine if some factors have a bigger effect on the ecosystem? answer text
Mountains can have an impact on the climate. As air is driven over the higher land, it cools, causing moist air to condense and fall out as rain, hence mountains receive more rainfall than low-lying locations.
The temperature will decrease as elevation above sea level increases. Temperature and precipitation are the two main determinants of a region's climate. Of course it matters what the area's average annual temperature is, but it also matters what the annual temperature range is. Numerous interrelated factors have an impact on a location's climate. Latitude, elevation, adjacent water, currents in the ocean, geography, vegetation, and prevailing winds are a few of these. Climate change's effects include rising temperatures, altered precipitation patterns, and an increase in the frequency or intensity of
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which evidence supports the hypothesis that four-limbed animals came from fish? select all that apply.
DNA analysis shows that fish are tetrapods' closest relatives. -The fossil record shows more and more tetrapod-like fish before the appearance of tetrapods about 365 million years ago. -Both fish and four-limbed animals are vertebrates.
The molecule of information is DNA. It holds the blueprints needed to create proteins, which are other big molecules. Each of your cells has these instructions, which are dispersed throughout 46 lengthy structures known as chromosomes. Numerous smaller DNA fragments known as genes make up each of these chromosomes.
Amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals are all classified as tetrapod's, a class of vertebrates. All extant vertebrates on land are classified as tetrapod's, as are certain extinct terrestrial animals that now live an aquatic lifestyle (such as whales, dolphins, seals, sea lions, sea turtles, and sea snakes)
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Order the structures that a pressure wave passes through in the cochlea, beginning from the oval window and ending at the round window. Oval window Pressure wave formation in the cochlear duct Nerve signal initiated Displacement of the basilar membrane Hair cells of the spiral organ are distorted Vestibular membrane moves Pressure waves generated in scala vestibuli Pressure waves transferred to the scala tympani Round window Reset
Pressure waves in the perilymph of the cochlea's scala vestibuli are produced by mechanical vibrations of the stapes footplate at the oval window.
These waves pass through the helicotrema at the cochlea's tip, the scala tympani, and the cochlea's tip before vanishing when they strike the circular window. Pressure waves are created in the scala vestibuli, the vestibular membrane shifts, pressure waves form in the cochlear duct, the basilar membrane is displaced, the spiral organ's hair cells are warped, a nerve signal is started, and pressure waves are then conveyed to the scala tympani. round window Cochlear duct pressure wave creation initiated by a nerve signal Moving of the basilar membrane Spiral organ hair cells are deformed. Motion of the vestibular membrane In scala vestibuli, pressure waves are produced The scala tympani received pressure waves. oval window Reset.
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Athletes who train at high altitudes increase their red blood cell count, which increases their oxygen supply during exercise. Increased oxygen supply results in __________. A. increased glycolysis B. increased use of myokinase C. longer aerobic respiration D. longer anaerobic fermentation E. reduced ATP consumption
C. Longer aerobic respiration.
High altitude physiology-
As we move away from the sea level with increasing altitude there is decrease in the atmospheric pressure. Decreased atmospheric pressure initially produce tissue hypoxia. The body adapts to this with cellular adaptations like increased RBCs, decreased affinity of oxygen to the hemoglobin and increased respiratory capacity. This phenomenon is also called acclimatization. Increased red blood cell count and various other adaptive measures lead to increased tissue oxygen supply.
Increased oxygen supply-
There are two pathways by which our body drives its energy needs. One is the aerobic pathway and other one being the anaerobic pathway. Anaerobic pathway which takes place in low oxygen conditions leads to formation of fatigue generating metabolites like lactic acid. Aerobic pathway is preferred as it gives high energy without production of dangerous metabolites. So increased oxygen supply leads to longer aerobic respiration.
So there will be a longer aerobic respiration.
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examine the age structure diagrams and determine whether each of the countries represented has a growing population, a stable population, or a declining population
The rate of births and deaths determines population increase. The populations pyramids of various nations are discussed in just this ecological systems theory lecture on age structure diagrams.
A model that forecasts the rate of population growth using a shape is an age structure diagram. The bars depict different age groups from newborns to teens to reproduce to post-reproductive, and the graph displays a comparative ratio for males to girls. An age-structure diagram offers a picture of the current population, can represent historical data, and may offer hints about prospective issues in the future. The breadth of the base should always be compared to the size of the population when evaluating age-structure graphs. Age structure diagrams in nations with rapid development have a pyramidal form, indicating a majority of younger people, many of whom are currently or soon will be of reproductive age.
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Janelle was telling her mom about a dream where she was being chased by wolves. She said she ran and ran and when she woke up, her heart was beating rapidly, and she was very tired. Which gland had secreted a hormone that caused her body to respond in this way?.
Janelle was relating to her mother a dream in which wolves were pursuing her. By testing her we can say its hypothyroidism
Your thyroid gland doesn't generate enough of a few important hormones when you have hypothyroidism (underactive thyroid).
Early on, hypothyroidism may not show any obvious signs. Obesity, joint discomfort, infertility, and heart disease are just a few of the health issues that untreated hypothyroidism can lead to over time.
To identify hypothyroidism, accurate thyroid function tests are available. Once you and your doctor determine the right dose for you, treatment with synthetic thyroid hormone is typically easy, secure, and efficient.
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the filtration membrane normally allows water, electrolytes, glucose, amino acids, and large proteins to pass through____
The filtration membrane normally allows water, electrolytes, glucose, and amino acids, including large proteins to pass through filters.
Water and small solutes can pass through this layer, the filtration membrane, but large proteins and blood cells cannot. The blood still contains those substances. From the glomerular capsule, the filtrate—the liquid that has traversed the membrane—flows deeper into the nephron. Membrane filters either remove the impurities contaminating the water or act as a barrier to separate contaminants from the water.
Under normal circumstances, the glomerular capillary filtration membrane's size barrier and charge barrier prevent high molecular weight proteins in the plasma (such as albumin and globulin) from passing through the filtration membrane.
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Which of the following is a characteristic of sexual reproduction? Select all that apply.
A. Requires two parent organisms
B. Offspring are identical to the parent
C. Results in increasing the survival rate of the population
D. Extremely efficient
E. Can occur internally or externally
F. Offspring are genetically unique
Answer:
A, C, F
Explanation:
What is the main structural difference between enveloped and nonenveloped viruses?.
A membrane fusion reaction transports the viral genome across the virus's lipid bilayer and a cellular membrane in enveloped viruses. The viral genome is typically delivered along a cellular membrane by a pore formed by protein components of a viral capsid in nonenveloped viruses.
Non-enveloped viruses, including such coxsackieviruses, rotaviruses, and polioviruses, can survive on surfaces for long periods of time, whereas enveloped viruses, such as H1N1 and human coronaviruses, continue to stay infectious on surfaces for several days. The persistence of dried viruses is influenced by a variety of environmental conditions and factors including such heat, moisture, pH, and surface type.
A virus with an outer envelope or wrapping. This envelope is produced by the infected cell, or host, through a process known as "budding off." During the budding process, recently created virus particles are "enveloped," or wrapped in an outer coat composed of a small piece of a cell's plasma membrane. Influenza A (H1N1) is a single-stranded RNA enveloped virus with a diameter of 80-120 nm that belongs to the Orthomyxoviridae family.
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