To lessen the risk of urinary tract degeneration in children with myelomeningocele and neurogenic bladder, consider intermittent catheterization.
How are intermittent urinary catheters used for catheterization?The catheter's lubricated end should be inserted into the urethra with strong, moderate pressure. Place the catheter's other end over the toilet or other container. Slide the catheter slowly toward the bladder until urine begins to drain from the tube. Insert the catheter one or two more inches.
Which procedures detail catheterization of a female patient's urinary system?Between the patient's thighs, place the drainage basin with the catheter inside. With your dominant hand, pick up the catheter. Enter the urinary meatus with the catheter's lubricated tip. the catheter is advanced.
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an obese adult has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. the nurse knows that the most likely treatment plan for this client will include which topics?
The nurse is aware that for this client, a weight-loss, glucose monitoring, and oral hypoglycemic medication will probably be part of the treatment plan.
What is type 2 diabetes' first line of defence?The first drug typically administered for type 2 diabetes is metformin (Fortamet, Glumetza, etc.). It primarily works by reducing the amount of glucose produced by the liver and increasing your body's sensitivity to insulin so that it is utilised more efficiently by your body.
What are the three requirements for a diabetes diagnosis?Increased urination, increased thirst, and unexplained weight loss are symptoms. Anytime can be a good time to perform a random blood sugar (plasma glucose) test. When you last ate doesn't matter.
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a patient has chronic arthritis. whoch questions would the nurse ask in order to assess the patient's pain?
A patient has chronic arthritis, then the questions that the nurse would ask in order to assess the patient's pain is : "What is the exact location of pain?"
What is chronic arthritis?A chronic inflammatory disorder affects many joints and including those in the hands and feet.
In rheumatoid arthritis, the immune system attacks its own tissue, including the joints.
Rheumatoid arthritis has many physical and social consequences and can also to lower quality of life. It causes pain, disability, and premature death and premature heart disease. People are also at a higher risk for developing other chronic diseases like heart disease and diabetes.
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a client arrives at the orthopedic clinic and reports suspecting a stress fracture of the right foot. the physician orders an x-ray with negative results. what does the nurse understand that these negative results can mean?
It can take a few weeks before the stress fracture is seen on an x-ray.
Customers are not clients.Since there are two different types of customers, a person who utilizes a company's goods or services is referred to as a user as opposed to a client. Customers buy solutions and advice instead of the typical things that consumers buy.
Would you mind giving an example of a particular kind of customer?A customer is somebody who makes a purchase of products or services. Customers might be companies or other institutions. Customers typically have a relationship or agreement with the seller, whereas clients do not.
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a 6 year who suffered a head trauma is unconscious and intubated. you are the nurse caring for him and are monitoring his motor response carefully. you notice that he is responding to pain by abnormal flexion of his extremities. this is called:
The correct option is A. Decorticate posturing.
A person who is stiff, having bent arms, with clenched legs and fists held out straight, is said to be in decorticate posture. The fingers and wrists are held on the chest while the arms are bowed inward toward the body. Posturing in this way indicates severe brain injury.
What causes Decorticate posturing?Decorticate posture can be caused by a number of conditions, including brain tumors, infection (such as malaria), traumatic brain injury (TBI), increased pressure in the brain, stroke, bleeding in the brain, brain issues due to infection, drug use, poisoning, or liver failure.
What are the risks of Decorticate Posturing?Decorticate posturing indicates severe brain damage. If you do not seek medical attention immediately, you could die. Decorticate posture can also result in decerebrate posture. Decerebrate posturing is associated with more serious health issues. It's possible that the problems that led to your decorticate posturing will persist. The effects of brain damage may last for years. Even after receiving treatment, paralysis, seizures, headaches, and other issues could persist.
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The correct format of the question is:
A 6 year who suffered a head trauma is unconscious and intubated. you are the nurse caring for him and are monitoring his motor response carefully. you notice that he is responding to pain by abnormal flexion of his extremities. this is called:
A. Decorticate posturing.
B. Degenerative posturing.
C. Decerebrate posturing.
D. Determining posturing.
a nurse is maintaining a client's continuous bladder irrigation. when appraising the effectiveness of this therapy, the nurse should prioritize what assessment?
Make an evaluation of your abdomen. If there is stomach soreness or bladder distention, the nurse may be able to tell by palpating the bladder.
What does nursing continuous bladder irrigation entail?Using sterile fluids to flush the bladder is a medical treatment known as continuous bladder irrigation (CBI). After surgery on the urinary system, it is used by medical professionals to prevent or dissolve blood clots. A tiny tube that delivers sterile solution then removes the bladder's contents and collects them in a bag.
Which conditions call for catheter irrigation?In general, doctors would advise bladder irrigation if blood is present in the urine and this causes it to seem black or if there are indications of a catheter obstruction. Reduced urine production is one indication when a catheter is clogged.
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a client has a decreased secretion of erythropoietin from the kidneys due to end-stage kidney disease. the nurse explains that the decrease in erythropoietin will have what effect?
The solution is B. In the bone marrow, EPO (erythropoietin) aids in the production of red blood cells. EPO is produced by the kidneys, and when the kidneys are impaired by CKD, they may produce less EPO.
What issue is most likely to arise for a patient with end-stage renal disease?A wide range of symptoms may appear in patients as renal failure worsens. These symptoms include weakness, sleepiness, decreased urine or the inability to urinate, dry skin, itchy skin, headache, nausea, bone pain, changes to the skin and nails, and easy bruising.
Which element causes severe anemia in those with chronic renal failure?The hormone erythropoietin (EPO), which instructs your bone marrow—the spongy tissue within most of your bones—to manufacture red blood cells, is less produced by damaged kidneys.
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a 9-year-old boy has just been diagnosed with the nephritic syndrome. the first stage of his disease will result in:
kidney disorder that causes your body to pass too much protein in your urine.
What is the earliest sign of paediatric nephrotic syndrome?
In the morning, you can see puffiness around your child's eyes. That's frequently the first indication. You might notice swelling in your child's ankles, feet, or belly as the edoema progresses and lasts all day.
Nephritic syndrome frequently manifests as:
Urine with blood in it (urine appears dark, tea-colored, or cloudy)
reduced urine production (little or no urine may be produced)
swelling of the abdomen, hands, feet, legs, arms, cheeks, eye sockets, or other parts of the body.
elevated blood pressure
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a nurse is caring for a client who uses a hearing aid for amplifying sound. during the rinne test for checking the bone conduction of the sound, where should the nurse place the stem of the vibrating tuning fork?
To check for bone conduction of sound waves in the tested ear, the nurse should place the stem of the vibrating tuning fork on the mastoid area behind the ear.
Explain mastoid of the ear:The posterior (rear) portion of the temporal bone, one of the skull's bones, is called the mastoid portion. Numerous muscles can be attached to it (through tendons) thanks to its rough surface, which also possesses blood vessel holes. The mastoid portion articulates with two other bones from its edges.
For articulation with the mastoid angle of the parietal, the upper border of the mastoid section is large and serrated.
Between the lateral angle and jugular process, the posterior border, which is likewise serrated, articulates with the inferior border of the occipital.
The mastoid section enters into the creation of the ear canal and tympanic cavity below and is united anteriorly with the descending process of the squama above.
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prednisone (deltasone) is prescribed for a patient with an acute exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis. which laboratory result will the nurse monitor to determine whether the medication has been effective?
The nurse should monitor C-reactive protein level to determine whether the medication has been effective.
What is C-reactive protein ?A decline in the inflammatory marker C-reactive protein would indicate that the corticosteroid therapy was successful.
To look for prednisone side effects, blood glucose and serum electrolyte levels will also be checked. The liver function of people on corticosteroids is not frequently examined.
The amount of c-reactive protein (CRP) in a sample of your blood is measured by a c-reactive protein test. Your liver produces the protein known as CRP.
An elevated CRP test result indicates an acute inflammatory state. It could be brought on by a severe accident, prolonged illness, or infection.
When there is inflammation throughout the body, the level of CRP increases. It is one of a category of acute phase reactants of proteins that increase in response to inflammation.
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the patient's renal system secretes renin, it is a direct activation of what substance that increases blood pressure? patho
Nitric oxide and prostanoids generated by nearby endothelium and macula densa cells both help to increase renin release.
What causes the blood pressure to rise when renin is secreted?Renin itself has no effect on blood pressure. Instead, it does this in conjunction with aldosterone and angiotensin. Aldosterone causes your blood vessels to constrict, and angiotensin causes your kidneys to retain water and salt. This causes your body to retain more fluid, which in turn raises your blood pressure.
Renin's main purpose is therefore to eventually raise blood pressure, which then helps to restore the kidneys' perfusion pressure. Juxtaglomerular kidney cells that are sensitive to variations in renal perfusion pressure secrete renin through stretch receptors in the vascular walls.
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the nurse is caring for a client who is recovering from a moderate sedation procedure for closed reduction of a forearm fracture. the nurse includes what discharge instructions for this client?
Answer:
Contact the surgeon for clarification because this is not a complete order.
Explanation:
the nurse is evaluating the urinalysis results of a client presenting with polyuria and lower abdominal pain due to a suspected urinary tract infection (uti). which finding should the nurse report as evidence of a uti?
Finding should the nurse report as evidence of UTI is positive urine culture.
Urinary Tract InfectionUrinary tract infection is a condition in which viral, bacterial or fungal infections occur in the urinary tract, both the upper and lower urinary tract.
Symptoms of upper and lower urinary tract infections are different. Where an upper UTI besides local symptoms (symptoms only at the site of infection) there will be symptoms that include systemic symptoms (symptoms all over the body). Meanwhile, the symptoms of a lower UTI are usually only local.
Upper UTI:
Local
Back/Pelvic/Groin pain Urgency DysuriaSystemic
FeverChillMalaiseLower UTI :
Urgency DysuriaSuprapubic/ lower abdominal painIf there is a suspect of UTI, then a simple investigation that can be done is urinalysis. Urine will be checked using a dipstick and the color of the dipstick will be matched to the standard after being dipped in the urine. In addition to the dipstick, microscopic examination can also be carried out. Outcomes leading to a UTI are:
Dipstick:
Proteins (+)Nitrite (+)Leukocyte esterase (+)Microscopy:
WBCs > 5 per high power fieldBacteria (+)However, the gold standard for infection is culture, whereas the urine sample for a UTI is.
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fluid transfers from the glomerulus to bowman's capsule and .a) is a result of blood pressure in the capillaries of the glomerulusb) results from active transportc) transfers large molecules as easily as small onesd) results from passive transport
The correct option (D)is mainly a consequence of blood pressure in the capillaries of the glomerulus.
A fluid transfer system is the complete collection of components required to move a fluid — often oil or gasoline — from one location to another. These systems are widely employed in the manufacturing, shipping, automotive, and aerospace sectors, and their capabilities vary substantially depending on the application.
What is heat transfer fluid called?
Inhibited Antifreeze, Geothermal Fluid, Geothermal Antifreeze, Thermal Transfer Fluid, Glycol, and Brine are all components of geothermal heat pump systems. Inhibited Antifreeze, Heat Pump Fluid, Air Source Heat Pump Antifreeze, Thermal Transfer Fluid, Glycol, and Brine are all used in air source heat pump systems.
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Full Question :37) The transfer of fluid from the glomerulus to Bowman's capsule
A) results from active transport.
B) transfers large molecules as easily as small ones.
C) is very selective as to which subprotein-sized molecules are transferred.
D) is mainly a consequence of blood pressure in the capillaries of the glomerulus.
E) usually includes the transfer of red blood cells into Bowman's capsule
a client is prescribed demeclocycline. the nurse would teach the client to be alert for which signs or symptoms?
While treatment or for up to two or more months after discontinuing demeclocycline , watery or bloody stools, stomach pain, or fever.
Which over-the-counter medications should a patient avoid when taking doxycycline, according to the nurse?Be advised that doxycycline is interfered with and rendered less effective by items containing magnesium, aluminum, or calcium, calcium supplements, iron products, and laxatives. Doxycycline should be taken one to two hours before or after taking antacids, calcium supplements, and magnesium-containing laxatives.
What are three possible negative effects of antibiotic use on patients?All of the antibiotics examined can have gastrointestinal side effects, including nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, stomach pain, appetite loss, and bloating, frequently as a result of disruption of the gut flora. Antibiotics with a broad spectrum are also likely to promote the growth of additional Candida species.
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a newborn has required resuscitation due to hypoxia. which finding would the nurse use as evidence of effective resuscitation?
The evidence of an effective resuscitation a nurse can see after a newborn resuscitation is pink tongue.
What are the signs of an effective newborn resuscitation?Lack of oxygen to an infant before, during, or after birth is referred to as hypoxia. Cardiac resuscitation should be started if the infant's heart rate is missing or if, after 30 seconds of effective ventilation, the heart rate is still below 60 bpm.
The initial steps of resuscitation are- the newborn should be placed under a radiant heat source to offer warmth. The baby should then be dried off, their airway should be cleared with a bulb syringe / suction catheter if necessary, and their breathing should be stimulated.
An increase in heart rate is the most accurate sign that a reaction to each step was successful. Also, the appearance of pink tongue is also a sign of an effective resuscitation.
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which of the following medication routes has the slowest rate of absorption? question 6 options: a) oral b) rectal c) inhalation d) sublingual
The slowest method of absorption for medications is by oral consumption. Since there aren't many blood arteries in subcutaneous tissue, the drugs that are injected are absorbed slowly and steadily.
The most typical method of medicine administration is oral (by mouth). Your oral medications may be eaten, chewed, or put absorption under your tongue to dissolve, depending on what your doctor ordered. The components absorption of oral medications typically oral medication enter the bloodstream only after they have reached the stomach or bowel. The most practical, economical, and popular method of pharmaceutical delivery is oral medications .
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a patient applies a transdermal nitroglycerin patch at 0800 am. what additional instructions should be provided about the patch?
Wherever you want to apply your patch, pick an area of your upper body or upper arms.Applying the patch to skin folds, your legs below the knees, or the back of your arms is not recommended.The patch should be applied on hairless, clean, dry skin that is not inflamed, scarred, burned, fractured, or calloused.Each day, pick a new location.
What are the top 3 directions for a patient using transdermal nitroglycerin?Apply the patch on a spot of clean, dry skin that has little to no hair and isn't irritated, cut, or scarred.Before putting on a new patch, always take out the old one.If the initial patch becomes slack or comes off, apply a fresh one.To avoid causing skin irritation, apply each patch to a new location.
What safety measures are implemented when giving nitroglycerin?The sublingual tablets of nitroglycerin must not be eaten, crushed, or inhaled.When absorbed through the mouth's lining, they function significantly more quickly.The tablet should be dissolved by placing it beneath the tongue or in the space between the cheek and gum.While taking a pill, avoid eating, drinking, smoking, and chewing tobacco.
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the nurse is performing an initial admission assessment from a client. what subjective data gathered from the client will the nurse document? select all that apply.
Vital signs, the results of a physical examination, and laboratory findings are examples of subjective data.
What nursing intervention occurs first throughout the admissions process?The assessment phase is the first step in the nursing process. At this point, the nurse compiles and arranges patient-related information. Information that is pertinent to a patient's health and wellbeing may include details about the patient, his or her family, carers, or the patient's community or environment.
What was the patient's initial evaluation?3 Initial Evaluation for Within an hour of admission, an assessment of the patient is to be made by the RMO, the treating physician, or a member of their team (as appropriate) to evaluate the patient's immediate care needs and to choose a plan of treatment.
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It is not appropriate to introduce solid foods into an infant's diet before 4-6 months of age for the following reason(s):
A) Kidney function is limited
B) Starch-digesting enzymes are not very active
C) Head and neck control are not established
D) All of the above
The correct answer (D) All of the above
Along with grains and potatoes, make sure your kid gets vegetables and fruits, legumes and seeds, a little energy-rich oil or fat, and, most importantly, animal foods (dairy, eggs, meat, fish, and fowl) every day. Eating a variety of foods every day ensures that your kid gets all of the nutrients he requires.
The kidneys mature between the fifth and twelfth weeks of pregnancy, and by the thirteenth week, they are routinely generating urine. Renal agenesis occurs when the embryonic kidney cells fail to mature. It is frequently detected on fetal ultrasound due to a lack of amniotic fluid.
Head and neck control are not established fortunately, this begins to change around 3 months of age, when most babies develop enough neck strength to keep their heads partially upright. (Full control is usually achieved after 6 months.)
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the nurse is caring for new parents. during her education session, the nurse instructs the parents on a newborn's sleep patterns. which statement is accurate about a newborn's sleep patterns?
The nurse is telling to a first-time parent that newborns sleep for about 8 to 9 hours during the day and for about 8 hours at night.
What is a typical sleeping schedule?
A sleep cycle lasts on average 90 minutes. To feel refreshed and relaxed, you should have four to six cycles of sleep per 24 hours. There are four distinct stages in each cycle, three of which make up NREM sleep and one of which is REM sleep.
What sleep state is the most difficult to awaken from?
Non-rapid eye movement (non-REM) sleep is made up of these four stages, with stage IV's slow waves being its standout characteristic. Slow-wave sleep is said to be the most challenging type of sleep to awaken people from because it is the
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a hospitalized toddler, previously bowel trained, has been having incontinent stools. what would the nurse tell the parents about this behavior?
Propulsion times are improved when fiber intake is increased. The fiber aids in hastening the movement of feces through the colon. Because the feces are softer and simpler to pass, it also lessens the difficulty of urinating.
What treatments are available to a patient with diarrhea?Consume lots of liquids, including water, juices, and broths. Beware of caffeine and alcohol. Introduce semisolid and low-fiber foods gradually as your bowel movements start to return to normal. Try chicken, toast, eggs, rice, soda crackers, or other foods.
What techniques can be used to help with bowel control?While there are many techniques to manage bowels, the most important ones involve a high-fibre diet, enough hydration intake, and a regular schedule for stool emptying. Additionally, there are oral and/or topical medications, digital stimulation.
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the nurse is providing client education for the parents of an obese child diagnosed with obstructive sleep apnea. what treatment measures would the nurse explain during the education session? select all that apply.
The nurse could encourage daily exercise, give a back massage, and help the client with progressive relaxation in order to encourage sleep in a patient.
What is obstructive sleep apnea ?Because your brain fails to properly communicate with the breathing muscles, central sleep apnea develops. This disorder is distinct from obstructive sleep apnea, in which the upper airway is blocked and you are unable to breathe normally. Obstructive sleep apnea is more frequent than central sleep apnea.
Although it is a typical query among those who have been diagnosed with sleep apnea, the answer is no. Although there is no known treatment for this chronic ailment, you can lessen the symptoms by making certain lifestyle adjustments and procedures.
When the muscles in the back of your throat relax too much, it causes obstructive sleep apnea, which prevents normal breathing.
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a nurse on the cardiovascular operating team has been asked to develop a policy for the use of a new drug-eluting stent. which aspects of the policy should the nurse consider to ensure quality?
Answer:
Availability of device and Ability to meet the needs of all patients
Explanation:
the nurse cares for a client with a chronic neurologic condition that decreases the peristalsis. what concern will the nurse use to plan care for this client's most likely risk?
A client with a persistent neurologic disease that reduces peristalsis receives therapy for constipation.
What triggers the stomach's peristalsis?
Through the myenteric plexus, the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) stimulates peristalsis. The myenteric plexus' afferent (sensory) nerves transmit data to interneurons inside the plexus. Interneurons interact with efferent nerves to cause smooth muscle cells to produce an action potential (spike-wave).
How is peristalsis controlled, and what is it?
Peristalsis is a specific, wave-like type of muscle contraction that is used to move solids or liquids inside the digestive and urinary systems' tube-like structures. Peristalsis cannot be consciously controlled because it is not a voluntary muscular activity
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the nurse is planning the comprehensive head-to-toe assessment of a client. what assessment should the nurse usually conduct last?
The nurse should typically undertake the examination of the genitalia and rectum last.
What does a thorough evaluation of a patient entail?
An instrument used by nurses to examine a patient's overall health status is a comprehensive health assessment. This encompasses the patient's socioeconomic status, lifestyle, and physical and mental health. Making an assessment is the first step in creating a care plan.
By performing a thorough examination, this evaluation aids in your understanding of the needs and issues of a patient. Typically, that entails a complete medical history and a full physical examination of all main body systems (this is where it gets its name).
Although the nurse should alert the doctor, she must first check the patient's vital signs.
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a client at 30-weeks gestation, complaining of pressure over the pubic area, is admitted for observation. she is contracting irregularly and demonstrates underlying uterine irritability. vaginal examination reveals that her cervix is closed, thick, and high. based on these data, which intervention should the nurse implement first?
First, the nurse asks the client to Obtain a specimen for urine analysis,to check Pregnancy.
What is Cervex?The bottom portion of the uterus (womb) of the human female reproductive system is called the cervix or cervix uteri (Latin for "neck of the uterus"). The cervix typically measures 2 to 3 cm (1 inch) in length and has a generally cylindrical form, however this can fluctuate throughout pregnancy. Along its entire length, the uterine cavity and vaginal lumen are connected by the small, central cervical canal. The external os is the opening into the vagina, and the internal os is the opening into the uterus. he vaginal portion of the cervix, also called the ectocervix, protrudes into the top of the vagina. Since Hippocrates, more than 2,000 years ago, the anatomy of the cervix has been recorded.To learn more about Cervex refer to:
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in an effort to decrease complications for the infant right after birth, the nurse would expect to administer which medication for prophylaxis of potential eye conditions?
Tetracycline ophthalmic ointment would be the drug the nurse would expect to deliver as a prophylactic for any potential eye conditions.
What would the nurse do to aid in the early bonding of new parents?By fostering interaction between the mother and the newborn, nurses can encourage a healthy bonding and attachment experience, which will help to develop a good emotional state. One of the finest strategies to encourage mother-newborn bonding is to breastfeed for the first hour after delivery.
Following vitamin K administration to a baby, which side effect would the nurse watch for?The most typical side effects are a skin rash or urticaria, along with discomfort and erythema at the injection site. Additional possible side effects include hypersensitivity reactions and hyperbilirubinemia, which is more likely to happen in premature infants.
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a child has chickenpox. the parent asks how to care for the lesions. what should the nurse tell the parent?
When lesions crust over, the nurse should notify the parents that the child is no longer contagious.
What are the responsibilities of a nurse?Here are some examples of what nurses do on a regular day:
Perform physical examinations. Take comprehensive medical histories. Listen to patients and assess their physical and emotional requirements. Patients should receive counseling and health education. Care should be coordinated with other health care professionals and specialists. Registered nurses (RNs) offer and organize patient care, educate patients and the general public about various health concerns, and counsel patients and their families. Nurses treat injuries, dispense prescriptions, do routine medical exams, record complete medical histories, monitor heart rate, and so on.
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3. a 24-year-old woman who uses injectable illegal drugs asks the nurse about preventing aids. the nurse informs the patient that the best way to reduce the risk of hiv infection from drug use is to
The patient's nurse explains that the greatest way to reduce your chances of getting HIV from drug use is to stop injecting drugs.
What are 7 types of drugs?The seven categories of drugs that DREs classify include cannabis, inhalants, magic mushrooms, dissociative anaesthesia, synthetic opioids, central nervous (CNS) opiate, and CNS stimulants.
What is drugs and its types?Drugs like stimulant, depressants, antidepressant, ativan, antipsychotics, and hallucinogens are separated into separate categories. All around world, several psychoactive medications have been proven to be effective in treating a variety of medical ailments, including psychological illnesses.
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a good example of a structural improvement to increase physical congruence in an older adult's home would be to
The competence-environment press model is a structural upgrade that would increase physical congruence in a home for older adults.
What exactly is person-environment compatibility?The Person Environment (P-E) Congruence model is a method for comprehending how the environment affects elderly people's adjustment and well-being. It may also be used to construct intervention programs at the person, group, and/or institutional levels.
What three kinds of person-environment congruence are there?Social congruence, often known as blending in with others, is the first subtype. Psychological congruence, or how you feel about a place and who you are there, is the second category. Being physically able to move about or perform work in a specific location comes in third.
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