Start continuous cardiac monitoring. The nurse should also evaluate the client's vital signs to determine stability after the procedure and check for pacemaker capture by feeling the client's pulse rate and comparing it to the electrical rate seen on the cardiac monitor.
The nurse should attach the continuous cardiac monitoring when the patient enters the post-anesthesia care unit following pacemaker implantation in order to evaluate the pacemaker's performance. Pacer spikes should be discernible before the P waves and QRS complexes if the atrioventricular (dual-chambered) pacemaker is functioning appropriately (electrical capture). The continuous cardiac monitoring medical professional should be informed right away if the pacemaker is not functioning properly for example, failing to capture or detect.
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the nurse is caring for a patient with parkinson disease. the patient informs the nurse that the patient has been angry with god because of the worsening illness, but after talking to the hospital chaplain, the patient is ready to return to the church choir and become active again in the group at the church. what is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient?
An appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient with Parkinson disease is readiness for enhanced spiritual well-being.
Parkinson disease is a disorder of the central system that affects movement, usually together with tremors. Nerve cell injury within the brain causes monoamine neurotransmitter levels to drop, resulting in the symptoms of Parkinson's disease. Parkinson's usually starts with a tremor in one hand. different symptoms are slow movement, stiffness and loss of balance.
Spiritual well-being relates to our sense of life-meaning and purpose. It will embody our affiliation to culture, community, spirituality and/or devoutness and includes the beliefs, values, mental models and ethics we tend to hold. Once we're spiritually healthy, we tend to feel additional connected to not solely a better power, however to those around us.
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various states have now enacted laws enabling patients with terminal diseases to write a request that extraordinary life-sustaining procedures should not be used if they are unable to make such decisions on their own. this request is called a . multiple choice question.
The request is called a living will.
What are life-sustaining procedures?
Life-sustaining procedures, also known as life-sustaining treatments or life-prolonging procedures, are used to extend or sustain life without reversing the underlying medical condition.
These interventions, also known as "life-sustaining measures" or "life support," frequently include artificial ventilation to enable breathing, medications to stimulate heart function, and artificial nutrition and hydration for those who are unable to swallow.
Doctors will attempt to restart a person's heart if it stops beating. CPR, which keeps blood and oxygen flowing throughout the body, electric shocks (called defibrillation) to get the heart beating again, and medication to help the heart work are all examples of life support methods.
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which of the following is a fomite? a. water b. droplets from a sneeze c. pus d. insects e. a hypodermic needle
Of the following, b.Droplets from a sneeze is a fomite
What are fomites?Fomite transmission is respiratory secretions or droplets secreted by infected individuals that can contaminate surfaces and objects, creating fomites (contaminated surfaces). Transmission can also occur indirectly by touching surfaces in the immediate environment or objects contaminated with the virus from an infected person, such as a stethoscope or thermometer, followed by touching the mouth, nose, or eyes.
Some viruses or bacteria are known to survive for a long time on certain surfaces. If we touch the surface of a contaminated object, then touch our face (eyes or mouth) with dirty hands, this has the potential to transmit disease.
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a client who has been diagnosed with osteoarthritis asks if he or she will eventually begin to notice deformities in the hands and fingers as the condition progresses. which concept should the nurse include in the response?
The concept that the nurse should include in the response is that hand and finger deformities may be related to rheumatoid arthritis.
What is the rheumatoid arthritis medical condition?Rheumatoid arthritis is a medical condition that may lead to deformities in the extremities which is well known to be an autoimmune disease associated with an excessive inflammatory immune response in the individual.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that rheumatoid arthritis medical condition associated with an improper inflammatory immune response and this disease may lead to the deformation of extremities in hands.
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an older adult client states, 'i walk 2 miles [3.2 km] a day for exercise, but now that the weather is hot, i am worried about becoming dehydrated.' which statement would the nurse use to respond to this client?
"Drink fruit juices if you start to feel dehydrated. "ark urine in hot conditions is a sign of dehydration.
What is dehydration?When you use or lose more fluid than you consume, your body becomes dehydrated because it lacks the water and other fluids it needs to function normally. Dehydration will occur if lost fluids are not replaced.Dehydration can affect everyone, but it is particularly dangerous for small children and elderly people.Dehydration in young children is most frequently brought on by severe diarrhoea and vomiting. Older people naturally have less water in their systems, and they may have diseases or take medications that make them more susceptible to becoming dehydrated.This means that even relatively small ailments, such lung or bladder infections, can cause elderly people to become dehydrated.To learn more about Dehydration refer to:
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the public health nurse is teaching a community class of couples on fertility awareness-based methods. the nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when one of the couples states that they will be using which method?
When one of the couples says they'll be employing the coitus interruptus method, the nurse decides that more instruction is necessary.
Any natural technique of birth control that doesn't use hormones, drugs, physical barriers, or surgery to prevent pregnancy is considered to be fertility conscious. In order to anticipate a woman's fertility, fertility awareness-based approaches (FAMs) look at physical symptoms and indicators that alter with hormonal changes over the course of her menstrual cycle. The cervical mucus ovulation method, basal body temperature method, symptothermal method, standard day's approach, and two-day method are among the methods used to assess fertility. Coitus interruptus or withdrawal are not regarded as methods based on fertility awareness. Thus the nurse need to provide extra information.
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a 55-year-old client presents to the clinic with persistent vulvar pruritus, burning, and a lump. she states she has had the symptoms for 5 months and has been trying to treat them with over-the-counter creams. she has a history of multiple sexual partners and hpv and is a smoker. what should the nurse do next?
The best course of action for a 55-year-old patient who visits the clinic complaining of chronic vulvar pruritus, burning, & a lump is to get her ready for a biopsy of the lesion.
The client displays classic vulvar cancer symptoms. Patients having vulvar lumps must undergo a biopsy even if they are asymptomatic. Cryosurgery may be considered if the biopsy reveals the presence of vulvar cancer. It is not necessary to know the client's history of cream use or her smoking habits at this point.
A skin lesion biopsy is the removal of a tiny patch of skin to allow for examination. To check for illnesses or skin disorders, the skin is examined. A skin biopsy can aid in the diagnosis or exclusion of conditions like psoriasis or skin cancer by your doctor.
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when scheduling and confirming travel arrangements for the physician, the medical assistant would get which of the following from the travel agent
The medical assistant that would get itinerary from the travel agent when scheduling and confirming the travel arrangements.
What is Itinerary?An itinerary is the travel plan which include where an individual will go and when they will be there. If someone makes a plan to fly to Paris from Beijing or take a train to Chicago from Mexico City, they will need an itinerary for it.
A travel itinerary is generally prepared by a travel agent who assists one in conducting all their travel arrangements for business or leisure. A travel agent provides a list of pre-planned travel itineraries to a traveler, who can then pick any one that they're most satisfied with from the itineraries.
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an elderly woman who has not seen a health care provider in 15 years comes to the gynecology (gyn) clinic with reports of pelvic and back pain, along with weight loss which she attributes to her lack of appetite. she states that she has been very weak and fatigued for the last 12 months and attributes this to depression. what should the nurse expect this client to be diagnosed with?
The nurse would expect this client to be diagnosed with advanced cervical cancer.
Loss of appetite, weight loss, weariness, pelvic pain, back pain, leg pain, swollen legs, heavy vaginal bleeding, bone fractures, and (occasionally) urine or feces leaks from the vagina are all signs of advanced cervical cancer. Bleeding following a pelvic exam or after douching is a typical sign of cervical cancer.The early stages of cervical cancer may be completely free of symptoms. Vaginal bleeding, contact bleeding (one most common form being bleeding after sexual intercourse), or (rarely) a vaginal mass may indicate the presence of malignancy.
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when caring for the client with laennec cirrhosis, the nurse recognizes which pathophysiologic finding to be an expected etiology of jaundice?
Jaundice is typically caused by impaired bilirubin uptake, which is a pathophysiologic condition. if a client with laennec cirrhosis is being cared for.
What exactly does pathophysiologic mean?The study of the disrupted physiological processes that produce, result from, or are somehow connected with a disease or damage is known as pathophysiology (sometimes known as physiopathology), which is a fusion of pathology and physiology.
What exactly is a diagnosis' pathophysiology?Pathophysiology: Disease-related abnormal function in a person or an organ. As opposed to a structural flaw, a pathophysiologic modification, for instance, is a change in function.
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a 44-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of severe dry skin in the area over her right nipple. she denies any trauma to the area. she noticed the skin change during a self-breast examination 2 months ago. she also admits that she had felt a lump under the nipple but kept putting off making an appointment. she does admit to 6 months of fatigue but no weight loss, weight gain, fever, or night sweats. her past medical history is significant for hypothyroidism. she does not have a history of eczema or allergies. she denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. examination shows a middle-aged woman appearing her stated age. inspection of her right breast reveals a scaly eczema-like crust around her nipple. underneath a nontender 2-cm mass is palpable. the axilla contains only soft moveable nodes. the left breast examination and axilla are unremarkable. what visible skin change of the breast does she have?
She has Paget's disease if there are obvious skin changes on her breasts. The axilla and left breast examinations are unremarkable.
What services are covered under Medi-Cal?Medi-Cal provides coverage for many medically necessary services. Visits to the dentist and doctor are included in this, as well as prescription drugs, eye examinations, family planning, mental health services, and drug and alcohol rehabilitation. Medi-Cal also pays the transportation costs associated with receiving these therapies.
Do you often receive free Medi-Cal?Many people who sign up for Medi-Cal are not required to pay a premium, a co-payment, or any out-of-pocket payments. Some households will enjoy affordable costs, including a low monthly premium. The average monthly Medi-Cal premium for a household is $39, with a $13 per-child maximum.
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a client has been taking opioid analgesics for more than 2 weeks to control post-surgical pain. although pleased with the client's progress, the surgeon decides to change the analgesic to a non-opioid drug. the surgeon prescribes a gradually lower opioid dose and increasingly larger non-opioid doses. the surgeon is changing medications in this manner to avoid:
The surgeon is changing medications in this manner to avoid withdrawal symptoms
What is withdrawal symptoms ?Abnormal physical or psychological symptoms that appear after the abrupt cessation of a substance that can cause physical dependence. For instance, frequent withdrawal symptoms from opiates include sweating, goosebumps, vomiting, anxiety, insomnia, and muscle pain.
Within a day or two of quitting drinking, withdrawal symptoms may start to appear. Withdrawal symptoms could start as soon as a few hours after your last drink if you abused alcohol severely and chronically. Symptoms of mild to moderate alcohol withdrawal usually last a week or two.
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a client is to have a serum thyroxine and thyroid stimulating laboratory test performed to assess the baseline status of the hypothalamic-pituitary target cell hormones. when educating the client about the laboratory tests, when would the nurse inform him the test should be obtained?
The nurse inform him that the test should be obtained before 0800.
What is Thyroid?
The thyroid is a small butterfly-shaped gland located in the neck, just above the windpipe (trachea). It secretes hormones that regulate your heart rate and body temperature. Too much of these hormones can cause unpleasant and potentially serious side effects that may necessitate treatment.
A thyroid function test, in which a sample of blood is tested to measure your hormone levels, is the only accurate way of determining whether you have a thyroid problem. Learn more about thyroid underactivity testing.
Thyroid disease is frequently a life-long medical condition that must be constantly managed. This frequently entails taking a daily medication. Your healthcare provider will monitor your treatments and make changes as needed.
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a child in gymnastics class has fallen off the balance beam and hurt her ankle. x-rays are negative for fracture, so the health care provider has diagnosed a severe sprain. which treatment measures should be taught to the family and child? select all that apply.
The treatment measures should be taught to the family and child are
Immobilization , Elevate the ankle on pillows and Apply ice packs to the ankle.
Due to their rising prevalence and severe detrimental effects on patients' quality of life, musculoskeletal disorders of the foot and ankle pose a significant public health risk.
Patients with musculoskeletal problems of the foot and ankle typically employ non-pharmacological therapy as the first line of treatment.
Based on the information that is currently available, this review gives a summary of the evaluations and non-invasive treatment alternatives.
Due to its great incidence and significant negative effects on physical performance and quality of life, foot pain has become a significant clinical and public health concern. 20–37% of community-dwelling seniors 45 years of age and older experience foot pain. 8.1% of older persons who did not have incapacitating foot pain at baseline reported it at the three-year follow-up.
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a client undergoing a cardiac angiogram has also had serum thyroid panel study. the physiologic principle behind looking at thyroid panels includes which possible correlations with cardiac symptoms? select all that apply.
A serum thyroid panel investigation was performed on a patient who was having a cardiac angiography. The physiologic associations with heart problems. CO production rises, whereas oxygen consumption rises.
The peripheral vascular system and the heart are directly impacted by thyroid hormone. In addition to raising heart rate and myocardial inotropy, the hormone can widen peripheral arteries and boost cardiac output. Thyroid hormone excess and deficiency both increase the risk of premature morbidity and mortality by causing or exacerbating cardiovascular diseases like atrial and ventricular arrhythmias, atherosclerotic vascular disease, dyslipidemia, and heart failure.
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the nurse is assessing several clients. which client does the nurse determine is most likely to have hodgkin lymphoma?
A nurse is providing care for a patient who has early-stage hodgkin lymphoma, and when examining the patient, she most likely discovered a painless neck lymph node growth.
What is the Hodgkin lymphoma survival rate?
In recent years, survival rates have increased, partly as a result of advancements in medicine. Currently, 87% of patients with Hodgkin lymphoma will survive for at least five years. These rates are influenced by a number of variables, including a person's age and the stage (extent) of Hodgkin lymphoma.
Hodgkin's lymphoma's severity
The moderately aggressive cancer Hodgkin lymphoma can quickly spread throughout the body. Despite this, it's also one of the cancer forms that is most easily cured. Your suggested course of treatment will be determined by your
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an adolescent has been diagnosed with polycystic ovarian syndrome (pcos). which statement by the adolescent indicates the need for more teaching?
Ovulation irregularities, elevated androgen levels, and cystic ovaries are the three most frequent characteristics connected to PCOS, although signs and symptoms differ (Table 1).
What happens if polycystic ovaries are left untreated?
Untreated PCOS may have both short- and long-term negative implications on one's health. It has been associated with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, type 2 diabetes, infertility, cardiovascular disease, obesity, and sleep apnea (9-11). These risks can be decreased with early discovery and treatment.
What is the lifespan of polycystic ovaries?
Most frequently, symptoms start to show up in adolescence, right around the beginning of menstruation. Some women, however, do not have symptoms until they are in their early to mid-20s. Despite starting early in life, PCOS continues throughout and after the reproductive years.
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a client at 32-weeks gestation comes to the prenatal clinic with complaints of pedal edema, dyspnea, fatigue, and a moist cough. which question is most important for the nurse to ask this client?
The question is most important for the nurse to ask this client do you have rheumatic fever a history?
Why does the temperature rise during ovulation?The body's core temperature is what it is when it is at rest. The body's hormone levels are one of many variables that affect basal body temperature. The hormone progesterone is produced in greater quantities during ovulation, which raises body temperature as a result.
Over the course of the remaining menstrual cycle, it stays higher. Progesterone then decreases right before the start of your period. If you're pregnant, however, your temperatures will stay higher because progesterone will remain high, which means that your basal body temperature will also decrease.
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when auscultation the lugs of an adult patient, the nurse notes that low-pitched, soft breath sounds are heard over the posterior lower lobes, with inspiration being longer than expiration. the nurse interprets that these sounds are
In each area, the nurse should hear at least one complete respiration. The nurse observes low-pitched, soft breath sounds across the lower posterior lobes, with inspiration lasting longer than expiration.
What does the patient mean by themselves?The Latin verb "patiens," which means to endure or suffer, is translated into the English word "patient." The patient is described as being incredibly docile, going through the required pain, and enduring the actions of the outside expert when this phrase is used.
A patient individual is what?Since it entails developing the ability to wait patiently in the face of discomfort or difficulty, which is present almost everywhere, we have the chance to acquire patience. But the secret to a happy life may lie in having patience.
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a nurse enters the client's room and finds the client lying on the floor experiencing a seizure. after stabilizing the client, the nurse informs the health care provider. the health care provider advises the nurse to prepare an incident report. what is the purpose of an incident report?
An incident report's objective is to evaluate the quality of care and the client's risk of harm.
An incident report's goal is to pinpoint the problem's origin and any corrective measures that may be implemented to lessen the possibility of a repeat occurrence. Through the usage of the papers, safe documentation may be produced by identifying possible workplace safety problems.
In nursing, an evaluation of an occurrence involving property damage or personal injury is known as an incident report. An incident report must be made if these things happen on a medical facility's property. The goal of the incident report is to accurately describe what happened while it is still recent in the thoughts of people who were present. In the future, when dealing with liability concerns resulting from the incident, this knowledge could be helpful.
The objective of the incident report is to record all pertinent information about the incident while it is still recent in the witnesses' memories.
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you come back to the laboratory with a tube of blood and notice that the tube does not have a label. you have one extra label for a patient from whom you were to collect. do you use this label to label the extra tube?
No, throw away the additional tube as we are unsure whose blood it contains.
What would the patient say about themselves?The English word "patient" comes from the Latin word "patiens," which meaning to endure or suffer. According to this expression, the patient is extremely passive, willing to put up with the necessary suffering and accept the interventions of the outside expert.
Patient is a noun or a verb.Since it requires learning to wait patiently in the face of irritation or discomfort, which is almost always present, we have the opportunity to cultivate patience. But exercising patience can be the key to a happy existence.
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how do clinical information systems with decision support incorporate evidence-based information? group of answer choices by using inputted patient information to bring relevant standards of care and resources to the attention of care givers
Systems known as clinical information systems work to maintain articulated management through computer programs that ensure the information of all the services that the user or patient has undertaken.
Analyze the evidence critically; doing so is crucial because it enabled her to compile the data.It is possible to describe clinical information as the act of selecting one course of action over another. This ability develops as clinicians gain experience as physicians, nurses, and practitioners of particular specialties. Making clinical decisions involves critical thought and sound judgment.Clinical decision support systems give professionals access to vast informational repositories and aid in making decisions in novel conditions.
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a nurse is caring for a client who has suffered a severe stroke. during routine assessment, the nurse notices cheyne-stokes respirations. cheyne-stokes respirations are
The nurse discovers cheyne-stokes respirations during normal assessment. Progressively deeper breaths are followed by weaker breaths during cheyne-stokes respirations, which also include apneic intervals.
How does Cheyne-Stokes breathing tell us something?Cheyne-Stokes respiration is thought to be a symptom of heart failure, as opposed to obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), that can induce heart failure. Additionally, Cheyne-Stokes respiration in people with heart failure raises the risk of abrupt cardiac death and predicts worse outcomes.
Why does Cheyne-Stokes occur?Heart failure and stroke are the most common causes underlying Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Cheyne-Stokes breathing is seen in 25% to 50% of patients with heart failure, although being unusual.
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joe ate at a chinese restaurant on friday night at 8 p.m. he ate fried rice, orange chicken and salad. he awoke at 12 a.m. vomiting and had abdominal cramps. he had no fever and no diarrhea. this continued for about 6 hours and then he felt better. a fecal sample would have revealed the presence of gram positive aerobic endospore forming bacilli. what is the most likely cause of his illness and which food was most likely to have been contaminated?
Joe is most likely to have been infected with Salmonella enteriditis which was present in the orange chicken that he had. This organism is responsible for gastrointestinal tract infections. Thus, the correct option is C.
What are Gastrointestinal tract infections?
Gastrointestinal infection is the infection of gastrointestinal tract which is mainly include viral, bacterial or parasitic infections that cause gastroenteritis, inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract which involves both the stomach and the small intestine. Symptoms of this infection include diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.
Salmonella infection is one of the most common infection which causes gastroenteritis and leads to the highest number of hospitalizations and deaths in the world.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:
Joe ate at a chinese restaurant on friday night at 8 p.m. he ate fried rice, orange chicken and salad. he awoke at 12 a.m. vomiting and had abdominal cramps. he had no fever and no diarrhea. this continued for about 6 hours and then he felt better. a fecal sample would have revealed the presence of gram positive aerobic endospore forming bacilli. what is the most likely cause of his illness and which food was most likely to have been contaminated?
A. Bacillus cereus; fried rice
B. Clostridium botulinum; fried rice
C. Salmonella enteriditis; Orange chicken
D. Vibrio parahaemolyticus; salad
to prepare for surgery, the surgical instruments undergo and the area on the patient undergoes . a. sterilization, disinfection b. disinfection, sanitization c. sterilization, antisepsis d. sanitization, antisepsis e. decontamination, antisepsis
Sterilization, disinfection is the ultimate goal of most stringent microbial control techniques; it involves eliminating or destroying all vegetative cells, endospores, and viruses from the targeted object or environment.
In environments such as laboratories, hospitals, industrial plants, and the food business, where it may be essential for specific things to be fully free of potentially infectious pathogens, Sterilization techniques are typically used. Physical methods, such as exposure to intense heat, pressure, or filtration via a suitable filter, or chemical methods, can also be used to Sterilization. Sterilants are substances that may be used to Sterilization objects. Sterilants efficiently eliminate all bacteria, viruses, and, with the right amount of exposure time, endospores as well. Degerming or sanitising are effective cleaning solutions for non-critical things that need to be cleaned. By eliminating the microbial organisms from the materials being cleaned, these approaches lessen the microbial burden on them. Keep in mind that these terms frequently do not kill microbial , and if they do, only some of the microbes are killed. Both of these approaches rely on the fact that most people have an immune system that works and that they can withstand and recover from some contact with microbes.
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which would the nurseteach the parents of a child who is being discharged from the hospital after a diagnosis of acute spasmodic laryngitis to help repvent anohter cropu epsidose
It is determined that the patient has acute spasmodic laryngitis (spasmodic croup). The mother queries how to handle a subsequent attack at home during discharge.
What is the priority action in the immediate postoperative period of a child who has undergone a tonsillectomy?After surgery, aggressive hydration is the most important recommendation. The patient must consume more water than usual during the first 10 to 14 days in order to avoid dehydration.
What are the immediate postoperative management?Maintaining breathing and circulation, monitoring oxygenation and level of awareness, avoiding shock, and controlling pain are the key goals of immediate post-anesthesia nursing care (phase 1). The nurse should regularly check on and record the patient's respiratory, circulatory, and neurological functions.
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the nurse is caring for a client receiving patient-controlled analgesia (pca). the nurse knows to assess the client's sedation score for what reason?
The nurse needs to prevent reactivation of the PCA pump and administration of another dose during the specified period of time.
What is patient-controlled analgesia ?With patient-controlled analgesia (PCA), you can choose when to receive a dose of pain medication. When compared to asking someone (usually a nurse) to provide pain medication, PCA may in some cases be a more effective pain management technique.
Morphine or fentanyl are the drugs most frequently prescribed for PCA. Painkillers or opioids are the names of these drugs. The treating anesthetist is the one who places the order for the PCA; he or she will evaluate your need for pain relief and include a PCA in the treatment plan if it is deemed necessary.
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the health care provider has prescribed an oropharyngeal airway for a client with a decreased level of consciousness. the health care provider has noted gurgling respirations and the client's tongue is in the posterior pharynx. the client vomits as the airway is inserted. which actions should the nurse take? select all that apply.
The client vomits as the oropharyngeal airway is inserted so the nurse should position client onto the side immediately provide oral suctioning and mouth care, and remove oropharyngeal airway.
An oropharyngeal airway (oral airway, OPA) is an airway adjunct wont to maintain or open the airway by stopping the tongue from covering the cartilaginous structure. during this position, the tongue might forestall a private from respiratory.
Oral suctioning is finished to clear secretions (mucus) from the mouth if a baby is unable to clear it on their own through coughing or processing their nose. A hard-plastic tip with a handle known as a Yankauer is sometimes wont to suction secretions within the mouth.
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a patient with osteoarthritis is taking up to 4 grams of acetaminophen daily. the nurse knows to obtain periodic:
The nurse is aware of the need for routine liver enzyme tests.
How do patients describe themselves?The Latin term "patiens," which means to endure or suffer, is translated to "patient" in English. This phrase portrays the patient as being incredibly passive, bearing the required discomfort, and accepting the interventions of the outside expert.
Patient can be a verb or a noun.We have the opportunity to develop patience since it calls for learning to wait patiently in the face of annoyance or discomfort, which is almost always present. But the secret to a happy life may lie in having patience.
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the nurse is using an interpreter to communicate with a client who speaks a different language. what would be the best way to choose an interpreter for this client?
The interpreter should be a certified medical interpreter, and the nurse is using him or her to converse with a patient who has a different language.
BriefingThe patient's diagnosis, orders, procedure, prescription medication, and other papers requiring consent, according to Copensky, "a record is required." Everything must be done through a hospital-approved translator, as required by law, according to this rule. Calling a coworker in to explain is not the appropriate course of action even if they are a nurse and speak the language that is required.
Who is a certified medical interpreter?A certified medical interpreter is an individual who has been assessed for professional skills for accurate interpretation and demonstrates a high level of proficiency in at least two languages.
Who is a translator?A translator is a person who converts one language to another .
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