This change in business practice will affect the ecological footprint of the farm as farmers will not have to use fertilizers on the farm.
The practice of cultivating multiple crop species simultaneously in the same area is known as polyculture. Polyculture attempts to imitate the diversity of natural ecosystems in this way.
The nutrients in the soil are balanced by the crops in a polyculture. There are crops that take nitrogen from the soil and others that add nitrogen to the soil. This means that the farmer wouldn't have to use as much fertilizer on the farm, which would have a smaller impact on the environment.
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two newly identified microorganisms are under investigation in your laboratory. you've been growing them in liquid media containing glucose and both strains thrive. but when transferred to media containing only acetate, one strain survives but the other strain dies. what predictions can be made from these results?
Two newly identified microorganisms are acetate and cellular carbon.
What is acetate?
Acetic acid comes in salt or ester form as acetate. The most typical component of biosynthesis, including the production of fatty acids, is acetate. A proton is taken out of the carboxy group of acetic acid to produce acetate, according to the NCI Thesaurus (NCIt).
What is glucose?
Known also as glucose, blood sugar is the main sugar found in your blood. Your body uses it as its main source of energy, and it comes from the food you eat. The glucose in your blood is used as fuel by all of the cells in your body. Diabetes symptoms include excessively high blood sugar levels.
On transferring onto the media containing acetate one strain survives that means the strain which survives can carry out glyoxylate cycle because glyoxylate cycle allows cell to utilize two carbon compound such as acetate to satisfy cellular carbon requirement as a source when simple sugars such as fructose and glucose are absent.
Therefore, two newly identified microorganisms are acetate and cellular carbon.
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What name is given to the process in which a strand of dna is used as a template for the manufacture of a strand of pre-mrna? what name is given to the process in which a strand of dna is used as a template for the manufacture of a strand of pre-mrna? rna processing gene expression polypeptide formation transcription translation.
d) Transcription is the name given to the process in which a strand of DNA is used as a template for the manufacture of a strand of pre-mRNA.
In the field of biology, transcription can be described as a part of the central dogma process during which information present inside a DNA segment is coded into an mRNA transcript. This mRNA that is formed as a result of transcription is called as pre-mRNA as it has to go through some alternations in order to be used for the translation process.
The strand of DNA that is being used for the process of transcription is referred to as the template strand. Each template strand produces a specific mRNA transcript through which specific proteins will be formed.
The question will correctly be written as:
hat name is given to the process in which a strand of dna is used as a template for the manufacture of a strand of pre-mrna?
a)rna processing
b) gene expression
c) polypeptide formation
d) transcription
e) translation.
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Which cerebral lobe is responsible for voluntary motor function, motivation, memory, mood, and aggression?.
Answer:
Frontal lobe
Explanation:
The frontal lobe is responsible for initiating and coordinating motor movements; higher cognitive skills, such as problem-solving, thinking, planning, and organizing; and for many aspects of personality and emotional makeup.
Each square table can seat four people how many people can be seated at 8 square tables?
which of the following is true of fast glycolytic fibers? group of answer choices high glycogen stores and low in mitochondria variable atp-ase activity and low glycogen storage high in myoglobin and capillary infusion use mainly the mitochondrial phases of respiration to regenerate atp
High glycogen stores and low in mitochondria- is true of fast glycolytic fibers.
What is glycolytic fiber?
Anaerobic glycolysis, which yields less ATP per cycle, is the main method used by glycolytic fibers to make ATP. As a result, glycolytic fibers lose energy more quickly. The structural components of slow oxidative fibers maximize their capacity to produce ATP via aerobic metabolism.
Anaerobic glycolysis is the main source of ATP for fast glycolytic fibers. They have a lot of glycogen, which allows them to produce ATP quickly. These fibers have extremely few mitochondria due to their dependency on anaerobic metabolism, which results in poor oxygen availability.
Hence the correct answer is high glycogen stores and low in mitochondria.
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neurexins are cell adhesion proteins that are important for connecting neurons at the synapse. mammals have 3 neurexin genes. however, 2000 forms of neurexin proteins are found in cells where they play a role in determining synapse specificity. what mechanism most likely underlies this diversity?
Neurexins and neuroligins have emerged as central organizing molecules for excitatory glutamatergic and inhibitory GABAergic synapses in the mammalian brain.
Functions as a cell adhesion molecule and bridges the synaptic cleft. Surprisingly, both partners can trigger the formation of hemisynapses.
Neuroligins induce presynaptic differentiation and neurexins induce postsynaptic differentiation. Recent protein interaction assays and cell culture studies demonstrate the selectivity of function conferred on either partner by alternative splicing. Insertion of β-neurexin into site 4 selectively promotes GABAergic synaptic function, whereas insertion of neurolysin-1 into site B selectively promotes glutamatergic synaptic function. Although early knockdown and knockout studies suggest that neurexins and neuroligins play important roles in synaptic transmission, particularly GABAergic synapses, assessing the in vivo function of these complex protein families needs further research.
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Suppose a female fruit fly carries a mutation in her nanos gene that prevents expression of the nanos protein in any eggs she produces. Which effect is likely to be observed?.
Her eggs yield fruit fly embryos with two heads, one of which is attached to a gene that prevents the nanos protein from being expressed in any ensuing eggs.
What conditions would result in ducklings losing their webbing?Apoptosis causes the destruction of webbing. Duck embryos with mutated BMP4 have non-webbed feet in an experimental setting. Genes function under the control of genetic switches to determine both an organism's growth and the evolution of species differences.
In what capacity do gap genes function in Drosophila?The segmentation pathway's earliest steps are regulated by the gap gene system in Drosophila melanogaster and other insects. Due to its critical role in embryo patterning, this system Interest in this field has come from both computer modelers and experimentalists due to its tractability.
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At which developmental stage should one be able to first distinguish a diploblastic embryo from a triploblastic embryo?.
The response is gastritis.
The union of the male and female gametes results in the formation of the zygote. To create the various embryonic stages of the progeny, the zygote goes through the process of cleavage.
The crucial process of pre-embryonic development is gastrilation. The gastrula is formed by the multiplication and rearrangement of blastula. Three germ layers, often known as triploblastic embryos, are formed during the gsatrulation process. Ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm are the three germ layers.
What sets a Protostome quiz distinct from a Deuterostome quizlet?How they develop in the earliest embryonic stages is the primary distinction between protostomes and deuterostomes. The mouth opening forms initially in protostomes, followed by the anus. In deuterostomes, the mouth develops second after the anus.
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The presence of many red blood cells in the urine during a microscopic examination is known as ________.
Answer:
Hematuria
Explanation:
Hematuria is the presence of blood in a person’s urine
Chemoreceptors located in the aortic and carotid bodies stimulate the respiratory control center in the brain when the blood __________ decreases.
When the blood pH drops, chemoreceptors in the aorta and carotid bodies activate the brain's respiratory control center.
What are the measurements made by chemosensors present in the circulatory system and body?Chemoreceptors monitor the amounts of hydrogen ions in the blood to determine the quantities of carbon dioxide there.
What circumstance would the respiratory centers encourage more ventilation in?Peripheral chemoreceptors that detect falling or more acidic pH levels trigger increased ventilation to accelerate the removal of carbon dioxide from the blood. The body's medulla, which houses the body's respiratory center, is typically stimulated by an increase in carbon dioxide concentration and, to a lesser extent, by a decrease in oxygen levels in arterial blood.
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describe the brachial plexus. (module 12.9a) the brachial plexus is a network of nerves formed by branches of spinal nerve segments c1-c7. the brachial plexus is a network of nerves formed by branches of spinal nerve segments s5-co1. the brachial plexus is a network of nerves formed by branches of spinal nerve segments t1-t12. the brachial plexus is a network of nerves formed by branches of spinal nerve segments l1-l5. the brachial plexus is a network of nerves formed by branches of spinal nerve segments c5-t1.
The correct description of brachial plexus is a network of nerves formed by branches of spinal nerve segments C5-T1.
The upper limb's skin and muscles are supplied by a nerve network known as the brachial plexus. It extends from the root of the neck all the way through the axilla and the upper extremities.
The anterior rami of the spinal nerves that make up the brachial plexus are referred to as the "roots."These are the spinal nerves C5, C6, C7, C8, and T1's anterior rami.
Pairing spinal nerves arise at each vertebral level. they exit the spinal cord, Through the intervertebral foramina of the vertebral column,
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________ called word salad is used to describe incoherent, loose word associations that sometimes appear in the speech of a person diagnosed with schizophrenia
Schizophasia also called word salad is used to describe incoherent, loose word associations that sometimes appear in the speech of a diagnosed person with schizophrenia.
The term "word salad," also known as "schizophasia," is most frequently used to describe a symptom of a neurological or mental disease. It is defined as "a jumbled or incoherent blend of apparently random words and phrases." Particularly used to characterize the muddled language that may be present in schizophrenia is the word "schizophrenia."
Word salad, which is characterized as "a tangle of severely incomprehensible speech as occasionally witnessed in schizophrenia," has been used to describe individuals with different forms of dementia, such as Alzheimer's. This kind of connection, which may be shown in both spontaneous speech and the word association test, connects two words by using a covertly whispered intermediary word.
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When microbes enter through a minor skin wound, resident ______ in the tissues destroy them. If these microbes are not rapidly cleared, the resident cells secrete _______ to recruit _______ for extra help.macrophages; cytokines; neutrophils
Inflammation happens when microbes are introduced into typically sterile bodily areas or when tissues are harmed. This is done in order to limit a damaged area, focus the reaction, get rid of the invader, and get tissue function back.
When tissues are harmed by infection, trauma, toxins, heat, or any other cause, the inflammatory response (also known as inflammation) takes place. Chemicals microbes including histamine, bradykinin, and prostaglandins are released by injured cells. Due to Inflammation the fluid leakage into the tissues that these microbes chemicals create in blood vessels, swelling results.
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which question is likely the most necessary one for isadora to answer before finalizing the list of animals in the habitat?
Assume that Isadora is an animal keeper in the zoo. We can tell her that her job is done at the end of the day when she already gave a proper amount of food to each of the animals, knew that every animal is in a good condition for their health, and make sure every animal is sitting in their place.
Another thing, we can also assume that Isadora is responsible for every in and out of the animal in the zoo. She has to make sure the adaptation of the animal that came are in a good condition and healthy. Especially for baby animals. Baby animals are needed extra attention for their health and activities.
Let us assume another thing, Isadora is a biologist concerned about animal reproduction and the environment in wildlife. She needs to work with other experts to help her make sure animals and the environment in that wildlife will live healthily.
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monohybrid cross: incomplete dominance (5 pts.) in dogs, alleles c and c determine whether a dog has curly (cc), wavy (cc), or straight hair (cc). in a cross of a curly-haired dog with a straight-haired dog, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the offspring? what will be the genotypic ratio?
The phenotypic and genotypic ratio of the offspring will be same and it is 1:2:1.
what is incomplete dominance?
One type of intermediate inheritance in which one allele for a particular trait is not fully expressed over its paired allele is known as "incomplete dominance.
Monohybrid cross was done between the curly and straight hair of dog. Consider, pure breed of the curly hair has CC pair of alleles and that for the straight hair is cc.
Firstly, true-breeding curly (CC) and straight (cc) hair was crossed. The F1 generation produced a wavy hair with Cc pair of alleles.
Cc × Cc
║ self-pollination of F1 progeny
CC Cc Cc cc
Then the F1 progeny was self-pollinated. This resulted in curly (CC), wavy (Cc) and straight (cc) flowers in the ratio of 1:2:1.
The genotypic and ratio of F2 generation in the monohybrid cross also gave the same ratio of 1:2:1.
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small dense object formed from the remnants of a star at least three times as massive as the sun
Small dense object formed from the remnants of a star at least three times as massive as the sun is referred to as black hole.
What is Black hole?This is a term which is referred to as an area which is present in space where gravitational force pulls so much that even light and matter can not escape from the region. This was discovered by some scientists after the objects which were put in the area weren't seen again which led to more discoveries and analysis.
The black hole is also known to be a very big and massive area and is also said to be at least three times as big and dense as the sun as result of the enormous amount of mass is packed into a tiny volume.
This is therefore the reason why black hole was chosen as the correct choice in this scenario.
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Part A:Arrange the steps of transcription of DNA to synthesize mRNA. Rank the steps of transcription of DNA to synthesize mRNA.1. DNA double helix unwinds to expose the nucleotide bases2. RNA polymerase identifies the start sequence3. RNA polymerase adds bases that are complementary to the DNA template4. RNA polymerase identifies the termination sequence5. mRNA strand and RNA polymerase are released
A transcription unit is a segment of DNA that is translated into an RNA molecule and contains at least one gene.
The enzyme RNA polymerase, which binds to and moves along the DNA molecule until it recognizes a promoter sequence, catalyzes transcription.
When a gene creates a protein, transcription results in messenger RNA (mRNA), which is then used as a template for translation to create the protein. There are five steps.
First phase of transcription:
1. DNA double helix unwinds to expose the nucleotide bases
2. RNA polymerase identifies the start sequence
3. RNA polymerase adds bases that are complementary to the DNA template
4. RNA polymerase identifies the termination sequence
5. mRNA strand and RNA polymerase are released
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What does the y-axis show?
What does the red graph line represent?
After 20 years, how much plant biomass does a restored wetland contain?
After 55 years, how does the capacity of a restored wetland to absorb nutrients compare to that of a natural wetland?
Is the following statement supported or not supported by the data shown in the graph?
Most of the productivity of a wetland can be restored within 50 years, but it takes much longer to restore soil fertility.
Natural wetlands provide many ecosystem services. When a wetland is restored, which of the following ecosystem services returns most rapidly?
Is the following statement supported or not supported by the data shown in the graph?
The restoration of a wetland takes about 100 years
The graph below shows a comparison of the plant biomass and soil structure of restored wetlands to that of natural, undisturbed wetlands. This graph could be interpreted to answer the questions below:
The y-axis show: the percentage of recovery compared to natural wetlands.The red graph line represents: the plant biomass.After 20 years, the plant biomass restored wetland contains about: 80% of the biomass of a natural wetland.The capacity of a restored wetland to absorb nutrients compared to the natural wetland after 55 years is: about 40%.It takes longer to restore soil fertility, meanwhile most wetland productivity could be fixed in 50 years. This statement is relevant to data from the graph. Hence, the answer is: supported.When a wetland is restored, the ecosystem services that return most rapidly are to: provide food for fish and wildlife. “The restoration of a wetland takes about 100 years.” This statement is not relevant to the graph. Hence, it is not supported.What is plant biomass?The plant biomass (W) is a relation of the total weight of living plant material to its capacity of doing carbon assimilation. Biomass is the oldest source of energy, so it can be used as an energy source besides the sun. We can find those energies in any organic matter like wood, animal wastes, crops, seaweed, etc.
This question seems incomplete. The complete question is as follows:
“Scientists compared the plant biomass and soil structure of restored wetlands to that of natural, undisturbed wetlands. The graph shows their findings. Can you interpret the graph to answer these questions?”
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ventilation perfusion coupling means that more blood flows past functional alveoli than past nonfunctional alveoli. group of answer choices true false
Ventilation perfusion coupling means that more blood flows past functional alveoli than past non-functional alveoli. This statement is true.
The relationship between ventilation and perfusion processes in the respiratory and cardiovascular systems is known as ventilation-perfusion coupling. Perfusion is the process of pulmonary blood circulation that delivers oxygen to body tissues, whereas ventilation is the movement of gas during breathing.
Matching ventilation and perfusion. Ensuring adequate matching of ventilation and perfusion of the lungs is critical for ensuring continuous oxygen delivery and carbon dioxide removal from the body.
A V/Q mismatch occurs when part of your lung receives oxygen without receiving blood flow or when blood flow occurs without receiving oxygen. This occurs when you have an obstructed airway, such as when choking, or an obstructed blood vessel, such as a blood clot in your lung.
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Individuals that are heterozygous for a deletion of a locus on chromosome 11 show severe developmental disorders and growth abnormalities, but only when the deletion is inherited from the mother. The cause of these phenotypes has been localized to a promoter sequence located within a CpG island.
What epigenetic mark would you predict to be found on this imprinted promoter?
DNA methylation would be found on this imprinted prompter ,Dna is found in every body on the earth.
DNA methylation is a heritable epigenetic mark that involves DNA methyltransferases covalently transferring a methyl group to the C-5 position of the cytosine ring of DNA (DNMTs). 1. Cytidines are methylated in plants in both symmetrical (CG or CHG) and asymmetrical (CHH, where H is A, T, or C) contexts. A chemical reaction in the body that involves the addition of a small molecule known as a methyl group to DNA, proteins, or other molecules. The addition of methyl groups can change how certain molecules behave in the body. For example, methylation of a gene's DNA sequence may turn the gene off, preventing it from producing a protein.
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if an animal is selecting food items that maximize its energy intake per unit of time spent in this endeavor, a researcher would say that this is an example of
if an animal is selecting food items that maximize its energy intake per unit of time spent in this endeavor, a researcher would say that this is an example of Optimal foraging concept.
A primary assumption of OFT is that an animal will growth its health through minimizing the time and strength required to gather the most quantity of strength from meals. Optimal foraging concept defines the character of the organisms forage in this sort of manner to maximise the internet strength consumption of the organism according to unit time.
The organism behaves in this sort of manner to eat meals having maximum energy with in a least time period. Optimal foraging concept makes use of predators for the analysis.
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According to the animation, how does ubx provide an example illustrating major morphological differences among groups of animals that result from small changes in gene expression?.
Insects have fewer legs than other arthropods because of mutations in the insect Ubx gene that causes repression of a gene required for leg development.
Based on phylogenetic bracketing, knowledge that both birds and crocodiles have four-chambered hearts would lead us to conclude that __________ also have four-chambered hearts.
ornithischian dinosaurs and saurischian dinosaurs
Based on phylogenetic bracketing, knowledge that both birds and crocodiles have four-chambered hearts would lead us to conclude that ornithischian dinosaurs and saurischian dinosaurs also have four-chambered hearts.
ornithischian, a certain member of the humongous taxonomic group of herbivorous dinosaurs that includes Triceratops and all dinosaurs related to it more closely than birds. The saurischians make up one of the two primary types of dinosaurs, the other being the ornithischians. Ornithischians were so named because their hip bones were superficially similar to those of birds, with a large portion of the pubic bone pointing down and toward the tail rather than down and forward as in other reptiles. Ornithischians, despite their name, are not related to birds, which evolved from theropod saurischian dinosaurs.
Theropods and sauropodomorphs are the two major groups of saurischians. Theropods were two-legged carnivores that evolved into birds at least 144 million years ago from theropods. Like all other tetrapods, saurischian, or "lizard-hipped," dinosaurs had pelves (hips) made up of three elements: the ilium, ischium, and pubis. The saurischians are divided into two groups. Sauropoda were large herbivores that included Apatosaurus and Diplodocus.
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dna accessibilitywhat would probably not increase the accessibility of the dna for gene transcription?
Histone H3 (H3K4me) and H4 (hyperacetylated histone H4) methylation is prevalent inaccessible DNA (H4K16ac). These histones concentrate in regions with a high density of genes, active promoters, and replication origins. However, when histone 3 is methylated on lysine residue 27, DNA is hardly ever accessible.
A gene's transcription is increased by transcription factors that act as activators. Repressors lessen transcription. A gene can be turned on or off in particular regions of the body using structures called enhancers and silencers, which are collections of transcription factor binding sites.
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most of the energy supplied by protein during exercise comes from the metabolism of which amino acids?
Answer:Blood-borne glucose, derived from liver glycogenolysis and glyconeogenesis, as well as intra-muscular lipids and plasma free fatty acids derived from adipose tissue provide the main energy alternatives to muscle glycogen. Several amino acids, including the essential amino acid leucine, are also used directly as oxidizable fuels during exercise.
Explanation:
Test 2009
darlene has heavy deposits of plaque containing cholesterol and fats collected on the walls of her main arteries. darlene has
Darlene has heavy deposits of plaque containing cholesterol and fats collected on the walls of her main arteries. Darlene has atherosclerosis.
The accumulation of fats, cholesterol, and other substances in and on the artery walls is known as atherosclerosis. This buildup is known as plaque. Plaque can cause arteries to narrow, cutting off blood flow. Atherosclerosis is a thickening or hardening of the arteries caused by plaque buildup in the artery's inner lining. High cholesterol and triglyceride levels, high blood pressure, smoking, diabetes, obesity, physical activity, and consumption of saturated fats are all risk factors.
The symptoms vary according to which arteries are affected and how much blood flow is blocked. Coronary heart disease symptoms include chest pain (angina), cold sweats, dizziness, extreme tiredness, heart palpitations (the sensation that your heart is racing), shortness of breath, nausea, and weakness. Once atherosclerosis has begun, it cannot be reversed. However, making lifestyle changes and treating high cholesterol levels can help to prevent or slow the progression of the disease.
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during a dissection, arnie saw the ureters entering the lateral corners of the bladder but found the internal openings of the ureters in the trigone near the midline of the bladder. his observation necessarily means that
Arnie's observation was the ureters run medially for some distance within the posterior bladder wall. Thus the correct answer is option (A).
Urine travels through the ureter, a pair of paired fibromuscular tubes, from the kidneys in the abdomen to the bladder in the pelvis. The medial aspect of the psoas muscle is where the ureter runs as it descends to the bladder. To the tips of the L2-L5 transverse processes, the ureter is located anteriorly and slightly medially in this location.
At the bifurcation of the common iliac vessels (the pelvic brim), it enters the pelvis anterior to the sacroiliac joint. From there, it proceeds anteriorly to the internal iliac artery down the lateral pelvic sidewall. The ureteric orifice opens into the bladder at the internal ureteric orifice at the level of the ischial spine after turning forward and medially to reach the posterolateral wall of the bladder.
The complete question is:
During a dissection, Arnie saw the ureters entering the lateral corners of the bladder but found the internal openings of the ureters in the trigone near the midline of the bladder. His observation necessarily means that
A) the ureters run medially for some distance within the posterior bladder wall.
B) the ureters and urethra are really the same tubes.
C) each ureter must have four distinct openings in the bladder.
D) this bladder had a congenital defect.
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a 22-year-old was recently diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (aids). which decreased lab finding would be expected to accompany this virus? cdc cells cd8 t-helper cdc10 cells cd4 t-helper
A 22-year-old was recently diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). CD4+ T-helper lab finding would be expected to accompany this virus.
The best chance for vaccination protection is provided by CD4+ T cells, which are essential for preventing Mycobacterium tuberculosis (Mtb) infection. However, little is known about the characteristics of Mtb-specific CD4 T cells that mediate control, and the absence of correlates of protection makes it extremely difficult to develop new, rational vaccines and therapeutic alternatives—both of which are urgently needed. In this article, we discuss the properties of protective CD4 T cells, including recent evidence for IFN-dependent and independent mechanisms of protection, the inadequate protection of terminally differentiated cells, and the importance of T cell migratory capacity for the treatment of Mtb infection. The leading infectious disease-related cause of illness and death among individuals around the world is tuberculosis (TB). According to estimates, Mycobacterium TB (Mtb), which is thought to impact one-third of the world's population, causes 8.7 million new cases of the disease and 1.4 million fatalities per year. Drug-resistant TB strains are becoming more prevalent; in some regions, their frequency peaked in 2011 at 19%.
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which statement about ape evolution is not currently supported? apes and monkeys split in the early miocene. the teeth of early apes are like those of living apes. apes originated in africa but later migrated to europe and asia. miocene apes and living great apes have a continuous fossil record in africa.
The claim that extant great apes and Miocene apes have an uninterrupted fossil record in Africa is not currently supported.
What started the evolution of primates?The early primates most likely descended from a small, nocturnal, insectivorous mammal. Tree shrews and colugos, sometimes known as flying lemurs, are the two species that are most similar to primates. A living illustration of early primates or primate ancestors' appearance is the tree shrew.
Why are we not still descended from apes?Like chimpanzees, we did not develop from a contemporary living primate. Our common ancestor with apes, who lived and perished in the distant past, is where we evolved and descended from. This indicates that we share ancestry with other apes.
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Answer:
A
tyler has a points card for a movie theater.
he receives 75 rewards points just for signing up.
• he earns 10.5 points for each visit to the movie theater.
he needs 180 points for a free movie ticket.
.
a
how many visits must tyler make to earn a free movie ticket?
Explanation:
A source of emf is connected by wires to a resistor, and electrons flow in the circuit. The wire diameter is the same throughout the circuit. Compared to the potential energy of an electron before entering the resistor, the potential energy of an electron after leaving the resistor is.
After leaving the source of emf, an electron's potential energy is lower.
Describe electromotive force.The voltage or potential difference of a battery or other electrical energy source is known as the electromotive force. A resistor is where the emf is coming from. The potential energy of an electron will now be higher than the potential energy of an electron before it leaves the source emf.
Now, the potential energy of an electron before leaving the source of electric current will be greater than the potential energy of an electron after leaving the source of electric current because the resistor connected to the source of electric current will reduce the potential energy by converting some of the energy to heat.
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