During which phase of the cell cycle do chromatids form?

Answers

Answer 1
During the S phase is the answer

Related Questions

which statement describes abiotic factors in an environment ?

Answers

Soil retains water and nutrients.
Several rocks rest in a stream.
Clouds create shade that changes temperatures.

What type of enzyme can activate another enzyme by adding a phosphate from ATP?

Answers

Answer:

Here my answer goes.......

Explanation:

In biochemistry, a kinase is an enzyme that catalyzes the transfer of phosphate groups from high-energy, phosphate-donating molecules to specific substrates. This process is known as phosphorylation, where the substrate gains a phosphate group and the high-energy ATP molecule donates a phosphate group.

describe some other kinds of activities that would benefit the most from each molecule n the table

Answers

Answer:

The macromolecules;  protein helps to gain muscle, fat helps provide stored energy for longer period, carbohydrates provide immediate energy.

Explanation:

Proteins are the macromolecules that help on the muscle building and storage. Bodybuilders utilize proteins to build their body and muscle protein. Protein has equal energy value as carbohydrates.

Fat help in providing energy when there is no carbohydrate provided energy to utilize. In the winters some animals hibernate they utilize the fat provided energy during the hibernation period.

Carbohydrate gives energy immediately for the cellular process and also help athletes to provide energy immediately. Runners drink carbohydrates based drinks to get energy before the race.

"Discuss three factors that affect your daily food choices. For each factor with a negative outcome, suggest at least one change you could make in your daily behavior that would turn that negative outcome to a positive outcome.

Answers

Answer:

Three factors that affect my daily food choices include:

1. Taste

2. Length of time for preparation

3. Method of preparation.

Explanation:

When making choices for food, I tend to take several factors into consideration. Some of these factors include;

1. The taste of the food: If the food tastes good and is not too spicy I am more inclined to choose such food.

2. Length of time for preparation: Especially on stressful days, I tend to consider the length of time required to prepare a healthy meal. If it takes so much time I am more inclined to eat fast food which is not a good choice.

To change this negative outcome, I hope to plan my affairs for the day and prepare healthy meals beforehand, which could be stored in the refrigerator and reheated when I need it.

3. Method of Preparation: Some foods require paying attention to details. For example, food that uses up, a lot of vegetables would require thorough washing to prevent particles in the food. Busy days also get me exhausted with no strength to pay attention to these protocols.

To turn this around, I hope to employ the help of a family member to make the process easier. I also hope to process most of my ingredients and keep them ready for use so that I would not have to do a lot of processing while cooking.

Complete this sentence. The CNS communicates with the body proper through ________. View Available Hint(s) Complete this sentence. The CNS communicates with the body proper through ________. some cranial nerves, some spinal nerves, and some additional nerves that were mentioned but not discussed in the tutorial the spinal nerves but not specifically through the cranial nerves the cranial nerves but not specifically through the spinal nerves some (but not all) of the cranial nerves and some (but not all) of the spinal nerves the cranial nerves and the spinal nerves

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - The cranial nerves and the spinal nerves.

Explanation:

The central nervous system or CNS includes the brain and the spinal cord of the nervous system where it takes sensory information, integrates, and responds accordingly. The spinal cord acts as a conduit for signals between the brain and the rest of the body.

Spinal nerves and crania; both play an essential role in taking sensory information and respond accordingly. Spinal nerves are nerves that help in sending motor, sensory, and autonomic signals between the CNS and the body. The cranial nerves supply information to the CNS and then from the CNS to the body.

Thus, the correct answer is - The cranial nerves and the spinal nerves.

Rank each of the following in terms of their appearance in the cell during carbohydrate catabolism. 1 represents the first to appear, and 6 represents the last. (Assume only a single round of carbohydrate catabolism took place.)
(6 items)
(Drag and drop into the appropriate area)
First
1. Glucose
2. Fructose-1,6- bisphosphate
3. Glyceraldehyde-3. phosphate
4. Pyruvate
5. Succinyl-CoA
6. Citric acid

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

The correct order of above question is -

1. Glucose

2. Fructose - 1,6 - biphosphate

3. Glyceraldehyde - 3 - phosphate

4. Pyruvate

5. Citric acid

6. Succinyl co- A

Explanation - These all are the step of carbohydrate metabolism in a cell. The carbohydrate is catabolise and successively into smaller forms.

First four steps show the glycolysis process in which by use of ATP glucose molecule breakdown into simpler one.

Last two steps show the kerb's cycle in which citric acid (six carbon compound) is converted into succinyl co - A ( four carbon compound) .

Which is an example of foraging as a benefit of social behavior?

Answers

Answer:

kinda like foraging a signature

Explanation: if I'm wrong go randonauting

Given the behavior and ecology of this insect, what are some factors that could cause the incidence of Chagas disease to increase in Central and South America in areas like the banana plantation, and why

Answers

Answer and Explanation:

There are many physical elements such as temperature, precipitation, humidity, altitude, vegetation, among others, that influence the presence of the insects that transmit the Chagas diseases. Its transmission seems to be enhanced by other social elements, such as the deficiency in basic services, lack of planning, the socio-economical conditions, cultural conditions. Altogether, these factors intervene in the presence of the Chagas disease, a systemic infection caused by the protozoa Trypanosoma cruzi. This protozoan is hosted by different wild and domestic mammals, transmitted to the human by hematophagous insects. The transmission occurs through dejections deposited on skin or mucose during or after the feeding process.  

Different rural areas in Central and South America are characterized by a mountain relief (temperatures between 15 and 30ºC - relative humidity between 50 and 90%), as well as by a plane relief associated with alluvial plain (temperature between 20 and 35ºC - media relative humidity of 75%). Vegetation in the mountain area provides a natural habitat to the triatomines, the insects that transmit the Chagas disease.  

Constant deforestation in mountains, soil move, the cutting down, firing, have destroyed the natural habitat of the insects, becomming the cause of their arrival to populated centers. As their environment is destroyed,    insects migrate to new areas and find refuge in precarious houses that surround the affected areas. Most of these houses have clay walls, a roof made of branches, and no floor. People that live in these conditions do not have economic resources.  Indexes of infestation in these houses are high due to the material used for their construction. Insects tend to establish near a source of food, such as domestic animals or even humans. It is also common that these houses have chicken coops and farmyards that also offer good conditions for the insects to live in.

Economic activities are important variables to consider, as these define the way of living in a population.  

Agriculture activities are performed with no control or planning. People deforest to plant, getting in contact with the insects' natural habitat, producing environmental changes, and getting in touch with them, enhancing the risks of being infected and of transportin the insects.

An elephant and a tree are both living things. According to cell theory, what can you conclude about these two very different organisms?

Answers

Answer:

An elephant and a tree are both living things. According to cell theory, what can you conclude about these two very different organisms?

A species of spruce tree occupies the same niche at the mouth of a river that a species of pine tree occupies further upstream. One year, several pinecones fall into the river and are carried to the mouth, where they take root and grow amongst the spruce trees. What will be the most likely result of this occurrence

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is: "Either the pine trees or the spruce trees will eventually evolve into a new species."

Explanation:

There will be a competition between spruce trees and pine trees for nutrition and other resources from the environment to grow and spread since they are now occupying the same niche. Overtime, one specie will outlive the other by evolving into a specie that gives it an advantage over the other.  

Answer: bears

Explanation: it’s the answer

Fur color in mice is affected by a single gene. The gene for fur color has two alleles: B that causes dark brown fur, and b that causes light brown fur. In a mouse with dark brown fur, the genotype could be BB or:_________

Answers

Answer:

The genotype could be BB or Bb

Explanation:

The genotype could be Bb which means it has heterozygous alleles.

The B which is allele for dark brown fur is dorminant and b for light brown is recessive. In this case, the dorminant allele masked the effect of the recessive allele b which make the dorminant allele B to be expressed phenotypically.

The table lists some organelles and functions. Only one pair is correctly matched.

Functions of Organelles
Organelle Function
Chloroplast Stores water and waste materials
Cell wall Supports cell membrane, maintains cell shape, and protects cell
Cell membrane Breaks down waste materials and debris
Vacuole Produces proteins for the cell

Which organelle in the table is correctly matched with its function?
chloroplast
cell wall
cell membrane
vacuole

Answers

Answer:

cell wall

Explanation:

The cell wall supports the cell membrane, it helps keep the cell shape and protects the cell

The organelle that is CORRECTLY matched with its function is the CELL WALL.

The cell wall is an organelle found in plants (and in certain other non-animal organisms) that helps to provide structural support and transport substances across the plant cell.

Chloroplasts are plant organelles used to synthesize simple carbohydrates by a series of reactions collectively called photosynthesis.

The cell membrane is a selectively permeable structure that separates the intracellular medium from the surrounding environment.

The vacuole is an organelle (predominant in plant cells) that helps maintain water balance and sequester waste products.

In conclusion, the organelle that is CORRECTLY matched with its function is the CELL WALL.

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How is NADPH different from NADP+?. A. It has lost one electron. B. It has gained one electron. C. It has lost one proton. D. It has gained one proton

Answers

Answer:

A. It has lost one electron

Explanation:

Since the H has been replaced by a +, this means that the Hydrogen is now a positive ion. For this to happen, it would have to lose an electron.

Gaining one would make it negative, and protons cannot be gained or lost under normal circumstances.

Answer:

B. It has gained one electron.

Explanation:

Hope it helps .

After getting their results in, a group of scientists went back and looked at their study. As planned, their experiment consisted of three groups. The first group received a new medicine at a normal dose, the second group received the medicine at half the dose, and the third group received the medicine at twice the dose. Which of the following best describes what went wrong with the scientists’ study?

Answers

Answer:

Their experimental design lacks control group

Explanation:

Based on what I read, the scientists don't have a control group as one of the main groups thus they cannot, in scientific sense, say that the medicine is better or worse. You always need a control group receiving no intervention because then we can compare groups and assess the effectiveness of that intervention (in our case if we had control group vs people who received the medicine, we could see if the people who received the medicine had improved condition etc when compared to participants who did not receive anything)

There is no control group in their experimental design. According to what I've read, the scientists don't have a control group as one of the primary groups. Thus, option C is correct.

What is control group?

To determine if the treatment is better or worse in a formal scientific sense. You should always have a control group that does not receive any treatment because this allows us.

To compare the groups and evaluate the effectiveness of the intervention. In our case, if we had a control group and participants who did not receive any treatment, we could see if those participants had better health overall.

By focusing on the impact of a single independent variable, a cause-and-effect link can be established.

The independent variable is altered in the treatment group while being held constant in the control group by researchers. The findings of these groups are then compared.

Therefore, no control group in their experimental design.

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Which environmental change is considered short term?

forest fire
ice age
mountain building
solar energy changes

Edunuity

Answers

Answer:

forest fires

Explanation:

An environmental change that occurs quickly and affects organisms immediately (causing behavioral adaptations).

floods, forest fires, blizzards, volcanic eruptions,

Answer: Forest fires[A]

Explanation:

got 100% on the edge2020 Unit Test

have a good day:)

g A variable trait in corn is the presence or absence of knobs at particular sites on some chromosomes. The allele present on each chromosome determines whether or not that chromosome has a knob. Suppose that one member of each of two pairs of homologs in a corn plant has a knob. If this plant is crossed with a knobless plant, what percentage of the offspring is expected to have only knobless chromosomes

Answers

Answer:

50%

Explanation:

The allele present on each chromosome determines whether or not that chromosome has a knob. Suppose that one member of each of two pairs of homologs in a corn plant has a knob.

This means that on a chromosome with two chromatids, the allele present on one chromatid causes the chromatid to possess knob while the other does not making the plant an heterozygous...

If this plant is crossed with a knobless plant, one whose Chromebook is without knobs, we have

II x II

II - 50% with a knobbed chromatid

II - 50% with only knobless chromosomes.

The first to the left is knobbed, thus the percentage of offspring expected to have only knobless chromosomes would be 50%.

Assuming a diallelic gene and complete dominance, the percentage of the offspring that is expected to have only knobless chromosomes is 50%

----------------------------

Available data:

Trait presence absence of knobsPlant 1: One member of each of two pairs of homologs in a corn plant has a knobPlant 2: knobless plant

We will assume complete dominance, and that the presence of knobs is the dominant trait.

We will name the dominant allele A, and the recessive allele a.  

Plant 1 seems to be heter0zyg0us for the trait, while plant 2 is h0m0zyg0us.

Cross: Plant 1 with Plant 2

Parentals)  Aa    x    aa

Gametes)  A   a     a     a

Punnett square)     A      a

                       a     Aa     aa

                       a     Aa     aa

F1) 50% of the progeny is expected to be heter0zyg0us, Aa, expressing knobs

     50% of the progeny is expected to be h0m0zyg0us recessive, aa, having knobless chromosomes.

The percentage of the offspring that is expected to have only knobless chromosomes is 50%.

---------------------------------------

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Explain what the impact of mutations in myosin that disrupt ATP binding would have on the power stroke during muscle contraction. and hydrolysis Skeletal muscle arrangement, ATP binding and correct muscle contractions

Answers

Answer:

These cells will be atrophied because muscle contractions can't occur.

Explanation:

In muscle cells, ATP binding causes a conformational change in the structure of myosin, thereby these filaments move to a high-energy configuration. The muscle contraction is caused when this high energy state is amplified in the actin filaments that bind to myosin, in a process dependent on the ATP hydrolysis. The myosin-actin cycle is repeated by binding another ATP molecule on the myosin head, producing the contraction of muscle cells.

Type the correct answer in the box. Spell all words correctly. Which training does Michael need to work as a veterinarian in a zoo? Michael loves animals, so he studied to become a veterinarian. However, he wishes to work for a well-known zoo in Ohio. He would probably need to acquire training in zoo to be hired.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer yo get a degree in veterinary medicine.

Explanation:

In U. S. a veterinarian needs to have the proper training and degree to practice at any place like zoo or clinics. Michael needs a Doctor of Veterinary Medicine degree known as  D.V.M. or V.M.D. from an accredited veterinary medicine college. It is a four years program that includes classroom studies, laboratory experience, and clinical work.

Answer:

The right answer is zoo MEDICINE

Explanation:

Large zoos often seek veterinarians who possess additional training in zoological medicine.

(For Plato users, I got it right on the test)

. g Determine the number of moles in 0.05 µg of a 300 bp insert DNA. There are 660 g/mol-bp. What is the molar ratio of insert to vector if you have 10 ng of vector that is 2686 bp?

Answers

Answer:

a. 2.4 x 10^-24 mol

b. 5.4 x 10^4

Explanation:

a. Mass of DNA (of 0.05µg)= 0.05µg x number of base pairs x 650Da

=0.05x300x650Da

(1 Da=1.67x10-24g)

=9750 x 1.67 x 10^-24

=16282.5 x 10^-19µg =1.62 x10^-21 g

No. of moles of insert DNA=mass of DNA(in g)/mass of one mole in g/mol

=1.6 x 10^-21g/660 g/mol

=2.4 x 10^-24 mol

Hence, moles of the insert DNA is calculated as 2.4 x 10^-24

b.

First of all, let us determine number of moles of vector to calculate the molar ratio.

No. of moles of vector=10 x 10^-9 x 2686 x 650 x 1.67 x 10-24/660

=2.68x6.5x1.67x10-27/660

=4.4 x 10^-29 mol

Molar ratio of insert to vector=2.4 x 10^-24/4.4x10^-29

=5.4 x 10^4

So, the molar ratio of the vector and insert as per the data is calculated as 5.4 x 10^4

Choose one of the offspring from the image and decide on your own the genotype of his or her partner then draw a pedigree chart showing the possible genotypes of their offspring make sure your Pedegree chart clearly shows that individuals are homozygous and heterozygous For the hemophilia gene they charge to show all possibilities for the offspring

Answers

Answer:Plato answer

Explanation:

A pedigree chart showing the possible genotypes of their offspring is that in which it shows about the affected male and the purebred female.

What are Pedegree chart ?

A pedigree indicates relationships among own circle of relatives participants and shows which people have sure genetic pathogenic , traits, and sicknesses inside a own circle of relatives in addition to important status. A pedigree may be used to decide ailment inheritance styles inside a own circle of relatives.

So in this case we will discuss that how the purebred female and the affected male are the genotypes.

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You inject an antibody against the protein tubulin into a living animal cell. After the injection, the cell begins mitosis, but the chromosomes do not become attached to the spindle; in fact, there is no spindle. The contractile ring does, however, form. What do these results mean?

Answers

Answer:

The mitotic spindle was “ blocked ” by the action of the antibodies that bind to tubulin.

Explanation:

The tubulin heterodimers consist of α- or β-tubulin structures that form the microtubules, which represent the cytoskeletal of eukaryotic cells. During mitosis, the microtubules are arranged in order to form the mitotic spindle, this structure is critical for the segregation of homologous chromosomes during Anaphase.

Interphase microtubules are required for attaching chromosomes in the middle of the cell during its division, thereby it is expected that the antibodies bind to these microtubules during this process.

The contractile ring is formed by approx. 20 actin filaments that encircle the middle of dividing cells, thereby it is expected that these antibodies are specific of tubulin heterodimers.

Which is a secondary substance? A.) Tree falling B.) Volcanic eruption C.) Forest fire D.) Snow melting

Answers

Answer:

Snow melting

Explanation:

The solid snow is the primary substance while the melted snow-water is secondary.

Why do you think these groups have a high risk of osteoporosis

Answers

Answer:

lack or low calcium level

Explanation:

when a person has a low calcium intake, these people are susceptible to having osteoporosis as their bodies would be lacking of much needed calcium.

Low calcium intake increases osteoporosis risk. Lifelong calcium deficiency causes osteoporosis. Low calcium consumption causes bone loss, early bone loss, and fractures.

What is osteoporosis?

Osteoporosis is a disorder that causes bones to become brittle and more prone to breaking, which increases the risk of fractures. It manifests itself gradually over the course of several years, but the condition is typically not recognized as a problem until a bone breaks as a result of a fall or a sudden impact. A broken wrist is the type of injury that occurs most frequently in people who have osteoporosis.

People who consume inadequate amounts of calcium are at increased risk for developing osteoporosis. The deficiency of calcium over a lifetime is one of the factors that can contribute to the development of osteoporosis. A diet deficient in calcium has been linked to decreased bone density, an accelerated rate of bone loss, and an increased risk of fractures.

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Why do processes and activities suddenly change the global temperature?

Answers

Answer:

hey mate here is your answer

Answer:

Earth's temperature depends on the balance between energy entering and leaving the planet’s system. When incoming energy from the sun is absorbed by the Earth system, Earth warms. When the sun’s energy is reflected back into space, Earth avoids warming. When absorbed energy is released back into space, Earth cools. Many factors, both natural and human, can cause changes in Earth’s energy balance, including:

Explanation:

Variations in the sun's energy reaching Earth

   Changes in the reflectivity of Earth’s atmosphere and surface

   Changes in the greenhouse effect, which affects the amount of heat retained by Earth’s atmosphere

Calcium blood levels are very tightly regulated with the aid of parathyroid hormone and vitamin D. The statements below represent actions that take place during times of low blood calcium, times of high blood calcium, or neither. Match below mention statements with them.

a. Increased vitamin D activation leads to decreased calcium absorption from the intestines.
b. Increased production Of PTH stimulates activation of vitamin D.
c. Parathyroid glands increase secretion of PTH.
d. Less calcium is reabsorbed by the kidneys.
e. Parathyroid glands decrease secretion of PTH.
f. Osteoclasts are inhibited. leading to decreased breakdown of bone.
g. PTH and vitamin D Stimulate increased breakdown of bore.

Answers

Less calcium is reabsorbed by the kidneys

The kidneys absorb the functions that occur when the blood calcium level is low, when the blood calcium level is high  or not less.

What are the functions of calcium?

Calcium is the mineral most  associated with healthy bones and teeth, although it also plays an important role in blood clotting, helps muscles  contract, and regulates normal heart rhythm and nerve function.

Calcium is needed to build and maintain healthy bones and teeth. Among other roles, it can help control blood pressure. It is best to get enough calcium from foods such as dairy products, green leafy vegetables and tofu.

People usually take calcium by mouth to treat and prevent low calcium levels, muscle cramps, osteoporosis, softening of the bones and PMS.

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the “good genes hypothesis” proposes that people with physical qualities like averageness, symmetry, sex prototypicality, and youthfulness are more attractive because they are better-quality mates. the “good genes hypothesis” is from which approach to psychology?: 1) evolutionary 2) psychodynamic 3) cognitive 4) biological

Answers

The correct answer is 1) Evolutionary

Explanation:

The "good genes hypothesis" argues traits of the opposite sex that are considered as positive or attractive reflect evolutionary traits and therefore are indicators of a better-quality mate. Indeed, this theory argues attraction is connected to better chances of survival or better chances to reproduce. This belongs to the evolutionary approach in psychology because these "attractive" traits are the result of evolution because only the "fittest" individuals reproduce and their genes prevail over time.

Each of the following statements is either true or false.
1. The microscope lens may be cleaned with any soft tissue.
A. True
B. False
2. The microscope should be stored with the ail immersion lens in position over the stage.
A. True
B. False
3. When beginning to focus, use the ssanning objective lens.
A. True
B. False
4. When focusing on high power, always use the coarse adjustment knob to focus.
A. True
B. False
5. A coverslip should always be used with wet mounts.
A. True
B. False

Answers

Answer:

1.false.

There are special lense tissues for this which will not scratch the lense so that  the focal power will nit be affected. Grit -free lens paper,Kimwipes or Kodak lens are ideal cleaning  materials.

2.This is also false. Microscope should be covered with dust cover, and even in the cabinet,It should never be left without am eyepiece.

3.True.

This gives he lowest magnification, which allows for wide view of the specimen in order get the specific spot to focus on.It has  magnification power  of 10x eyepiece  lens.Thus a 4x scanning objective lens therefore  gives  total magnification of 40x.

4.False,

This will break the objective lens.Fine adjustment knob should be use.This will gives the sharpest focus,using a coarse knob will crack the lens because the working distance for focusing will be too small, and suing this will damage the objective lens,

5.False,only the wet mount should be used.High power and oil lens should not be used as this will reduce the efficiency of the microscope.

Which of the following statements is true?A. An isolated system cannot exchange either matter or energy with its surroundings. B. Organisms are open systems when they are out of their habitats. C. Organisms are isolated systems because they have their own machineries in the cells to supply all the matter and energy they need. D. Open systems are called as such because they do not absorb energy, but just openly release the energy to their surroundings.

Answers

Answer:

A

Explanation:

An isolated system can NOT exchange energy or matter with it's surroundings. This is why it is isolated.

In snapdragons pink-flowered plants (RW) are produced when red-flowered (RR) plants are crossed with white-flowered (WW) plants. This type of inheritance can best be described as:

Answers

Incomplete dominance

The punnets square shows a text cross of mice that are heterozygous for both traits what will the offspring be fill in the white boxes of the punnets square with all the possible offspring genotypes

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Dominant allele are allele that finds expression the offspring physical expression while recessive allele are alleles that are not expressed in the offspring phenotype.

Other Questions
Which of the binomials below is a factor of this trinomial?x2 + 5x + 6O A. X+ 2O B. X+6C. x^2 + 6D. X-6 Jack works in a supermarket. He earns $186 a week. How much does he earn in a 52 week year? Determine whether the two triangles can be proven congruent using the AAS congruence method. If they can, select the congruence statement. answers: A) ABC EDC B) CBA CED C) The triangles aren't congruent using AAS. D) CAB EDC The diagram below shows that the periodic table is divided into different blocks.A periodic table is shown. The main table consists of seven rows; two additional rows are shown below. In each block, the first column is labeled and the remaining columns are empty. The s-block is shaded in yellow and comprises the first two columns, plus one cell at the far side of the table. The first column has seven rows with entries 1 s, 2 s, 3 s, 4 s, 5 s, 6 s, and 7 s. A lone cell labeled 1 s appears at the top far right corner, aligned with the 1 s cell in the first column. The d-block is shaded in blue and contains 10 columns and 3 or 4 rows. The first column is directly to the right of the s-block. The first entry in the first d-block column aligns with the 4 s block, and is labeled 3d; further entries in that column are 4 d, 5 d, and 6 d. The first three columns in the block are four entries long; the remaining columns are three entries long, losing the bottom entry. The p-block is shaded in orange, and has 6 columns and 5 rows. The top row aligns with the 2 s block; entrieElements that have complete valence electron shells are mostly found in thes block.d block.p block. Find the x-intercepts for the quadratic function y= -1/2(x+3)^2 +4 Which polynomial function could be represented by the graph below? On a coordinate plane, a cubic function crosses the x-axis at (negative 3, 0), (0, 0), (2, 0). f(x) = x3 + x2 6x f(x) = x3 x2 6x f(x) = 2x3 2x2 + 12x f(x) = 2x3 + 2x2 + 12x Which disease usually first appears in childhood? Lines mand pare perpendicular. If the slope of line m is -3, what is the slopeof line p? sPoint Q is plotted on the coordinate grid. Point P is at (20, 30). Point R is vertically above point Q. It is at the same distance from point Q as point P is from point Q. Which of these shows the coordinates of point R and its distance from point Q? On a coordinate grid from negative 50 to positive 50 in increments of 10, Point Q is plotted at the ordered pair negative 40, negative 30. Point R is at (40, 30), a distance of 60 units from point Q Point R is at (40, 10), a distance of 20 units from point Q Point R is at (40, 30), a distance of 60 units from point Q Point R is at (40, 10), a distance of 20 units from point Q Describe the buffer capacity of the acetic acid buffer solution in relation to the addition of both concentrated and dilute acids and bases. Which of the following is a run-on sentence? Select one: a. Grinning, Elizabeth listened to her favorite music as she drove to school. b. Zaya wanted a new skateboard, so he saved his allowance for five months. c. Rachel decided to ride her skateboard instead of roller blading. d. Jonah could not sleep he was excited about his new job. An 18-month-old child is brought to the emergency department by his parents who explain that their child swallowed a watch battery. Radiologic studies show that the battery is in the lungs. Which area of lung is the battery most likely to be in? In a recent household telephone survey of 2,550 adults in a certain country, 27% reported that they own at least one gun. The researchers want to estimate the true percentage of adults in that country that own at least one gun. Complete parts a through f below a. Identify the population of interest to the researchers. Choose the correct answer below. a. The set of adults that responded to the survey b. The set of guns in the country c. The set of adults in the country that own a gun (CMD. d. The set of all gun ownership status (yes/no) values for all adults in the country. Match the key event of meiosis with the stages listed below. I. Prophase I V. Prophase II II. Metaphase I VI. Metaphase II III. Anaphase I VII. Anaphase II IV. Telophase I VIII. Telophase II Homologous chromosomes are aligned at the equator of the spindle.a. IV b. I c. VI d. II The numerator of a rational number is greater than its denominator by 3. If the new number becomes 13/4 when the numerator is tripled and the denominator is decreased by23, find the original number. The sum of two numbers is 264. One number ends with a zero. If this zero is erased, you get the second number. Find these numbers. Jerry uses an exercise program to help him eventually do 100 push-ups. He started with 17 push-ups in Week 1 and planned to increase the number of push-ups by 2 each week. Show your work. a) In which week does Jerry expect to reach his goal? b) What is the total number of push-ups he will have done when he reaches his goal? explain six ways in which transport promotes growth of trade How has political power shifted? Find the center (h,k) and radius r of the circle. Graph the equation. x^2 + y^2 - 2x - 10y + 1 = 0