Answer:
1.
1 Jan 2019
Cash 2100000 Dr
Bonds Payable 2100000 Cr
2.
30 June 2019
Interest expense 73500 Dr
Cash 73500 Cr
31 Dec 2019
Interest expense 73500 Dr
Cash 73500 Cr
3.
31 Dec 2022
Bonds Payable 2100000 Dr
Cash 2100000 Cr
Explanation:
1.
The bonds are assumed to be issued at par value as the market interest rate is not given and is assumed to be the same as the interest rate on bonds of 7%. The issuance of bonds on par is recorded as a debit to the cash received against the bonds and a credit to the bonds payable account.
2.
The semi annual interest payment on bond is,
Bond interest-semi annual = 2100000 * 0.07 * 6/12 = 73500
The interest rate given is the annual interest rate of 7%. That is why we multiply it with 6/12 to get the semi annual interest.
3.
The disposal of bonds will be a reversal of the issuance entry. The bonds payable will be debited by the par value amount and the cash will be credited.
Suppose we are looking at a cash flow statement constructed using the INDIRECT method. We see a positive adjustment in the operating section of $1000 for Depreciation. Which of the following are correct interpretations of this? A. Depreciation provided cash of $1000 B. The firm sold long-term assets for $1000 C. The firm invested $1000 of cash in long-term assets D. Income was lower by $1000 because of Depreciation expense
Answer: D. Income was lower by $1000 because of Depreciation expense
Explanation:
When preparing the Cashflow Statement using the Indirect method, Depreciation is added to the Net Income in the Operating Section.
This is because Depreciation is a non-cash expense that was removed from the revenue to calculate income. Now that the company wants to know how much actual cash it has, it will have to add back Depreciation because depreciation is not a cash expense so does not actually reduce the money the company has.
In the MBTI personality model, Disney "imagineers" are more likely to have high _____ scores, while Disney accountants who determine currency transfer equivalencies are more likely to have high _____ scores.
Answer:
In the MBTI personality model, Disney "imagineers" are more likely to have high __INTJ___ scores, while Disney accountants who determine currency transfer equivalencies are more likely to have high __ISTJ___ scores.
Explanation:
1. MBTI personality model is the Myers-Briggs Theory. It was developed by the mother-daughter partnership of Katharine Briggs and Isabel Briggs Myers. At the heart of Myers Briggs theory are four preferences, depicting personality preferences as follows:
1. People and things (Extraversion or "E"), or ideas and information (Introversion or "I").
2. Facts and reality (Sensing or "S"), or possibilities and potential (Intuition or "N").
3. Logic and truth (Thinking or "T"), or values and relationships (Feeling or "F").
4. A lifestyle that is well-structured (Judgment or "J"), or one that goes with the flow (Perception or "P").
These four major classifications mean that one tends to have more of each than the other. This means that there are 16 traits or combinations of traits for a given personality.
2. INTJ personality type: Disney "imagineers" are likely to direct their energies to deal with (Introversion) ideas, information, explanations, and beliefs, as people in research and development at Disney. The information they deal with will be based on ideas, new possibilities, and not obvious things (Intuition) instead of facts and what they know and see. Their decision making will be based on objective logic, using analytic and detailed approaches. Their work will be planned and well-structured to reflect their lifestyle as opposed to flowing with the trend and maintaining flexibility.
3. ISTJ personality class: Disney accountants will bear similar traits like the "imagineers" except that instead of dealing with unknown and not obvious ideas and possibilities like the imagineers, they would prefer their information for processing to be based on clear facts and what they see and know.
Answer:
In the MBTI personality model, Disney "imagineers" are more likely to have high __INTJ___ scores, while Disney accountants who determine currency transfer equivalencies are more likely to have high __ISTJ___ scores.
Explanation:
Which of the following is a required financial statement? 1 point Statement of Auditor Independence Statement of Cash Flows Statement of Revenues and Expenditures Statement of Tangible Equity
Answer:
statement of revenues
Statement of Cash Flows Statement is a required financial statement.
The following information should be considered:
Statement of Cash Flows Statement is the statement of operating, investing, and the financing activities. It deals with cash inflows and cash outflows of the organization, It analyzed the cash position of the company.Learn more: brainly.com/question/17429689
A portfolio manager generates a 20% rate of return on a "small cap" portfolio, compared to a 15% rate of return on the benchmark portfolio and a 10% rate of return on the Standard and Poor's 500 index over the same period. The passive rate of return on the portfolio is:
Answer:
15%
Explanation:
A passive portfolio management is an act of running a portfolio to meet the performance and requirements of a benchmark portfolio.
Given that:
A portfolio manager generates = 20% rate of return
Benchmark portfolio = 15% rate of return
Standard and Poor's 500 index = 10% rate of return.
The passive rate of return will be 15%. This is because a passive rate of return is attained by putting money into the right index fund, From the information given; the benchmark index has an 15% rate of return. As such, that is the return any passive investor could attain as a result of putting money in an index fund.
Fleesum recently began using cross-functional teams. Dee wants to make sure the teams collaborate effectively, but also wants to avoid stifling individual initiative. One method she could use to achieve this goal would be to:
Answer:
use a skill-based pay plan for the teams.
Explanation:
Based on this scenario it can be said that the best method for Dee to use would be a skill-based pay plan for the teams. A Skill-based pay (SBP) is a unique compensation method that is designed to reward individual employees with additional pay in exchange for formal certification of the employee's mastery of skills, knowledge, and/or competencies. This will promote individual initiative without suppressing a cooperative work environment.
Leonard Technologies invests $62,000 to acquire $62,000 face value, 10%, five - year corporate bonds on December 31, 2014. The bonds will mature on December 31, 2019. The bonds pay interest semi-annually on December 31 and June 30 every year until maturity. Assume Leonard Technologies uses a calendar year. Based on the information provided, which of the following will be included in the journal entry for the transaction on December 31, 2018?
a. a debit to Interest Revenue for $5,400.
b. a credit to Interest Revenue for $2,700.
c. a debit to Interest Revenue for $2,700.
d. a credit to Interest Revenue for $5,400.
Answer:
Credit to Interest Revenue for $3,100
Explanation:
Date Account Titles and Explanation Debit Credit
Dec 31. Cash ($62,000 * 10% * 6/12) $3,100
Interest Revenue $3,100
(To record interest revenue for the semi
annual period ended December 31, 2018)
The bid-ask spread exists because of _______________. A. market inefficiencies B. discontinuities in the markets C. the need for dealers to cover expenses and make a profit D. lack of trading in thin markets
Answer:
C. the need for dealers to cover expenses and make a profit
Explanation:
In the market for securities there are two pricing of securities.
The ask price is the price at which the buyer is willing to purchase a security.
The ask price or the offer price is price at which the seller of a security is willing to sell it. Ask price can be firm or negotiable.
Bid ask spread is the difference between the highest amount a buyer is willing to buy a security and the lowest price at which a seller is willing to sell it.
This spread exists because dealers need to cover expenses and make a profit
Hutter Corporation declared a $0.50 per share cash dividend on its common shares. The company has 20,000 shares authorized, 9,000 shares issued, and 8,000 shares of common stock outstanding. The journal entry to record the dividend payment is:
Answer and Explanation:
The journal entry to record the dividend payment is shown below:
Common Dividends payable $4,000 (8,000 shares outstanding × $ 0.50 cash dividend)
To Cash for $4,000
(being the dividend payment is recordeD)
For recording this we debited the common dividend payable as it decreased the liabilities and credited the cash as it also decreased the assets
Alice is single and self-employed in 2019. Her net business profit on her Schedule C for the year is $100,000. What is her self-employment tax liability for 2019?
Answer:
$15,300
Explanation:
Remember, under the FICA Tax rate for 2019, the charge is 15.3% on first $132,900 of net income plus 2.9% on the net income in excess of $132,900. However, Alice net income is only about $100,000.
So, her Self employment tax liability =100,000 x 15.3% = $15,300 (since her net income doesn't exceed $132,900 we need not apply the 2.9% charge)
Suppose we are looking at a cash flow statement constructed using the INDIRECT method. We see a NEGATIVE adjustment of $5000 related to Accounts Payable. Which of the following are correct interpretations of this?a. Depreciation provided cash of $1000 b. The firm sold long-term assets for $1000 c. The firm invested $1000 of cash in long-term assets d. Income was lower by $1000 because of Depreciation expense
Answer:
It implies that the firm paid $5,000 to its supplier this accounting period (e.g. year) out of the amount the firm is owing the supplier.
Note: The correct answer is as stated above it is not included in the option. Kindly confirm the options again from your teacher.
Explanation:
Accounts payable refers to the amount of money a firm is owing its suppliers.
Account payable is one of the component of the current liabilities in the balance sheet, and non-cash current liability item that is adjusted for in the cash flow statement to arrive at net cash from operating activities when an indirect method is being used.
Since accounts payable is the amount of money a firm is owing its suppliers, a negative a NEGATIVE adjustment to its implies that company has paid its supplier the negative amount in the accounting period.
Therefore, a NEGATIVE adjustment of $5000 related to Accounts Payable implies that the firm paid $5,000 to its supplier this accounting period (e.g. year) out of the amount the firm is owing the supplier.
Sigmund Jewelers creates inexpensive costume necklaces, bracelets, and rings. As a way to save costs on sending out these small items, the company combines 10 to 12 different orders into one. Which operational objective is the company applying here
Answer:
shipment consolidation
Explanation:
The primary aim of the consolidation of shipments is to evaluate cost control and cost control. The aggregation of shipments allows individuals or businesses to save costs thereby integrating several products from different shippers into one shipment.
Therefore in the given case, since the company wants to combine 10 to 12 different orders into one shipment so that the company could save the cost
Hence, the shipment consolidation is correct
Carla Vista Company has the following information available for September 2020. Unit selling price of video game consoles $400 Unit variable costs $240 Total fixed costs $54,400 Units sold 6001. Compute the unit contribution margin. Unit contribution margin_______ 2. Compute Carla Vista' break-even point in units. 3. Prepare a CVP income statement for the break-even point that shows both total and per unit amounts.
Answer and Explanation:
a. The computation of unit contribution margin is shown below:
As we know that
Unit contribution margin = Unit selling price - unit variable cost
= $400 - $240
= $160
b. The break even point in units is as follows
As we know that
= Fixed cost ÷ unit contribution margin
= $54,400 ÷ $160
= $340
c. Now the preparation of the CVP income statement for the break even point is shown below:
Carla Vista Company
CVP Income statement
Particulars Amount Units
Sales $136,000 $400
Less: Variable cost -$81,600 $240
Contribution margin $54,400 $160
Less: Fixed cost -$54,400
Net operating income $0
A company purchased $2,800 of merchandise on July 5 with terms 3/10, n/30. On July 7, it returned $700 worth of merchandise. On July 12, it paid the full amount due. Assuming the company uses a perpetual inventory system, and records purchases using the gross method, the correct journal entry to record the payment on July 12 is:
Answer and Explanation:
The correct journal entry as on July 12 is shown below
Account payable ($2,800 - $700) $2,100
To Merchandise inventory $2,037
To Cash ($2,100 × 3%) $63
(Being the cash paid is recorded)
For recording this we debited the account payable as it decreased the liabilities and credited the merchandise inventory and cash as it also decreased the assets
New lithographic equipment, acquired at a cost of $800,000 on March 1 at the beginning of a fiscal year, has an estimated useful life of five years and an estimated residual value of $90,000. The manager requested information regarding the effect of alternative methods on the amount of depreciation expense each year. In the first week of the fifth year, on March 4, the equipment was sold for $135,000.
Required:
a. Determine the annual depreciation expense for each of the estimated five years of use, the accumulated depreciation at the end of each year, and the book value of the equipment at the end of each year by (a) the straight-line method and (b) the double-declining-balance method.
b. Journalize the entry to record the sale assuming the manager chose the double-declining-balance method.
c. On January 1, journalize the entry to record the sale in (b), assuming that the equipment was sold for $88,750 instead of $135,000.
Answer:
a. Determine the annual depreciation expense for each of the estimated five years of use, the accumulated depreciation at the end of each year, and the book value of the equipment at the end of each year by:
(a) the straight-line method
depreciation expense per year = ($800,000 - $90,000) / 5 years = $142,000
End of year depreciation expense book value
1 $142,000 $658,000
2 $142,000 $516,000
3 $142,000 $374,000
4 $142,000 $232,000
and (b) the double-declining-balance method.
depreciation expense year 1 = 2 x 1/5 x $800,000 = $320,000
depreciation expense year 1 = 2 x 1/5 x $480,000 = $192,000
depreciation expense year 1 = 2 x 1/5 x $288,000 = $115,200
depreciation expense year 1 = 2 x 1/5 x $172,800 = $69,120
End of year depreciation expense book value
1 $320,000 $480,000
2 $192,000 $288,000
3 $115,200 $172,800
4 $69,120 $103,680
b. Journalize the entry to record the sale assuming the manager chose the double-declining-balance method.
Dr Cash 135,000
Dr Accumulated depreciation - lithographic equipment 696,320
Cr Lithographic equipment 800,000
Cr Gain on sale 31,320
c. Journalize the entry to record the sale in (b), assuming that the equipment was sold for $88,750 instead of $135,000.
Dr Cash 88,750
Dr Accumulated depreciation - lithographic equipment 696,320
Dr Loss on sale 14,930
Cr Lithographic equipment 800,000
If the fixed costs are $450,000, the unit selling price is $75, and the unit variable costs are $50, what are the old and new break-even sales (units) if the unit selling price increases by $10
Answer:
Old break even points= 18,000 units
New break even points= 12,857 units
Explanation:
The fixed costs are $450,000
The unit selling price is $75
The unit variable costs are $50
The unit selling price have an increase of 10 units
The first step is to calculate the contribution margin per unit
Contribution margin per unit= Selling price per unit-Variable cost per unit
= $75-$50
= $25 per unit
The old break even point can be calculated as follows
= Fixed costs/Contribution margin per unit
= $450,000/$25
= 18,000 units
Since there is an increase in the unit selling price by $10 per unit then, the contribution matgin per unit can be calculated as follows
= $25+$10
= $35
Therefore, the new break even point can be calculated as follows
= $450,000/$35
= 12,857 units
Hence the old break even point and new break even point are 18,000 units and 12,857 units respectively
In _____, organizations receive feedback from the external environment regarding the value of their outputs, the availability of future inputs, and the appropriateness of the transformation process.
Answer:
This question is incomplete, the options are missing. The options are the following:
a) organizational effectiveness
b) closed systems
c) good fit
d) open systems
e) innovative processes
And the correct answer is the option D: open systems.
Explanation:
To begin with, the concept known as "Open Systems" refers to the type of systems that mainly receive their information from external sources but also from internal sources. So those kind of systems are the ones that encourage all the parts to work as a whole in order to obtain better results and that is why that it is in those sytems where the organizations study the feedback that comes from the environment and uses with the purpose of getting better at their operations.
New Orleans Shipping. If the share price of Emaline, a New Orleans-based shipping firm, rises from $12 to $15 over a one-year period, what is the rate of return to the shareholder given each of the following: a. The company paid no dividends. b. The company paid a dividend of $1 per share. c. The company paid the dividend, and the total return to the shareholder is separated into the dividend yield and the capital gain.
Answer:
a. The company paid no dividends.
= ($15 / $12) - 1 = 0.25 = 25%b. The company paid a dividend of $1 per share.
= ($16 / $12) - 1 = 0.333 = 33.3%c. The company paid the dividend, and the total return to the shareholder is separated into the dividend yield and the capital gain.
dividend yield = $1 / $12 = 0.083 = 8.3%capital gain = $3 / $12 = 0.25 = 25%Explanation:
initial investment = $12
current market price = $15
gain = $3 if no dividend paid, and $4 if dividend paid
If the factory overhead is overapplied, then the adjusting journal entry to close the factory overhead account includes a: (Check all that apply.)
Answer:
Hie, the question is missing a list of options;
However the important steps to approach the questions are explained below.
Overhead is Over-applied when : Applied Overheads > Actual Overheads
The amount of overapplied overheads usually adjust the Cost of Goods Sold as follows :
Cost of Goods Sold (debit)
Overheads (credit)
This entry ensures that the costs of sales are not understated !
Alternatively the over-applied overheads can be adjusted to the Cost of Sales and other Inventory balances at the end of the period in pro-rata (Weight of their total) as follows
Cost of Goods Sold (debit)
Finished Goods Inventory (debit)
Work in Process Inventory (debit)
Raw Materials Inventory (debit)
Overheads (credit)
On December 31, 2014, Flint Corporation sold for $100,000 an old machine having an original cost of $180,000 and a book value of $80,000. The terms of the sale were as follows:
$20,000 down payment
$40,000 payable on December 31 each of the next two years
The agreement of sale made no mention of interest; however, 9% would be a fair rate for this type of transaction. What should be the amount of the notes receivable net of the unamortized discount on December 31, 2012 rounded to the nearest dollar? (The present value of an ordinary annuity of 1 at 9% for 2 years is 1.75911.)
a. $70,364
b. $90,364.
c. $80,000.
d. $140,728.
Answer:
a. $70,364
Explanation:
We must determine the present value of the notes receivable using the 9% discount rate.
PV of accounts receivable = $40,000 / 1.09 + $40,000 / 1.09² = $36,697.25 + $33,667.20 = $70,364.45
When a notes receivable is issued and carries no interests, you have to record the present value of the notes receivable in order to determine the amount that should be recorded as interest income in the future. In this case, interest income = $80,000 - $70,364 = $9,636
Item 11Item 11 You are going to deposit $24,500 today. You will earn an annual rate of 5.5 percent for 8 years, and then earn an annual rate of 4.9 percent for 11 years. How much will you have in your account in 19 years
Answer:
$63,637.94
Explanation:
$24,500 is deposited in the bank
5.5% annual rate will be earned in 8 years
= 5.5/100
= 0.055
4.9% annual rate will be earned in 11 years
= 4.9/100
= 0.049
The first step is to calculate the future value of the amount after 8 years
= amount deposited×(1+r)^n
r is the annual rate, n is the number of years
= $24,500×(1+0.055)^8
= $24,500×1.055^8
= $24,500×1.534686515
= $37,599.8196
Therefore, the amount that would be present in the account in 19 years can be calculated as follows
= amount at the end of year 8×(1+r)^n
where r = 0.049, n= 11
= $37,599.8196×(1+0.049)^11
= $37,599.8196×1.049^11
= $37,599.8196×1.692506597
= $63,637.94
Hence the amount present in the account in 19 years is $63,637.94
Fremont Enterprises has an expected return of 18 % and Laurelhurst News has an expected return of 21 %. If you put 43 % of your portfolio in Laurelhurst and 57 % in Fremont, what is the expected return of your portfolio? g
Answer: 19.29%
Explanation:
From the question, Fremont Enterprises has an expected return of 18% and 57% of the portfolio is put in Fremont. The portfolio return of Fremont will be the expected return multiplied by the weight. This will be:
= 18% × 57%
= 18 × 0.57
= 10.26%
We are also told that Laurelhurst News has an expected return of 21% and that 43% of the portfolio is put in Laurelhurst News. The portfolio return here will be the expected return multiplied by the weight. This will be:
= 21% × 43%
= 21% × 0.43
= 9.03%
The the expected return of the portfolio will now be:
= 10.26% + 9.03%
= 19.29%
You expect to receive annual gifts of $1,000 at the end of Years 1 and 2 and $1,500 at the end of Years 3 and 4. Which of these is the correct present value of multiple annuities formula if the rate is 6 percent
Answer:
Total Present Value = 4280.962
Explanation:
The correct Present Value formulae
PV of annuity formula:
PV = A× 1 -(1+r)^(-n)/r
PV - Present value of annuity'
A- Annual cash flow
r- discount rate per period
n- number of period
First set of cash inflows i.e 1,000 for year 1 and 2
1,000 × ( 1- 1.06^(-2) )/0.06
PV =1,833.39
Second set of cash flows i.e year 3 and 4
Year 3 and Year 4
1,500 × (1- 1.06^(-2) )/0.06 × 1.06^(-2)
= 2,447.569
Total PV = 1,833.39 + 2,447.569 = 4280.962086
Total Present Value = 4280.962
Select the appropriate reporting method for each of the items listed below.
Item Reporting Method
1. Accounts payable.
2. Current portion of long-term debt.
3. Sales tax collected from customers.
4. Notes payable due next year.
5. Notes payable due in two years.
6. Advance payments from customers.
7. Commercial paper.
8. Unused line of credit.
9. A contingent liability with a probable likelihood of
occurring within the next year and can be estimated.
10. A contingent liability with a reasonably possible likelihood
of occurring within the next year and can be estimated.
Answer:
Items --- Reporting Method
1 . Accounts payable - Current liability
2 . Current portion of long-term debt - Current liability
3 . Sales tax collected from customers - Current liability
4 . Notes payable due next year - Current liability
5 . Notes payable due in two years - Long-term liability
6 . Advance payments from customers - Current liability
7 . Commercial paper - Current liability
8 . Unused line of credit - Disclosure note only
9 . A contingent liability that is probable likelihood of occurring within the next year and can be estimated - Current liability
10 . A contingent liability that is reasonably possible likelihood of occurring within the next year and can be estimated - Disclosure note only
The beta of an all-equity firm is 1.4. Suppose the firm changes its capital structure to 40 percent debt and 60 percent equity. What is the equity beta of the levered firm
Answer:
1.59
Explanation:
The formula required to calculate the equity beta of the levered beta is given below:
Levered Beta=Unlevered Beta*((1+(1-tax rate)*(debt/equity))
unlevered bera=1.4
tax rate (assume it is 30%) is 0.30
debt is 40% or 0.40
equity is 60% or 0.60
Levered Beta=1.4((1+(1-0.30)*(0.40/0.60))
levered Beta=1.4*(1+0.7)*0.666666667
levered beta=1.4*1.133333334
levered beta= 1.59
You can recompute using the missing actual tax rate
A client with a high risk tolerance anticipates that the market will remain flat for the next 3 months. Which position would produce the maximum profit for this client
Answer: A. Short Straddle
Explanation:
A Short Straddle is a strategy used in the derivative market of Options where the investor sells both a Call Option and a Put Option on the same stock with the same expiration date.
The logic behind this is that they do not expect the underlying stock to change significantly in price for the period of either the Call nor the Put. The goal therefore is to make profit from the buying fees/credit of both the Put and the Call whilst anticipating that neither of them.will be redeemed so the investor will keep both the stock and the buying fees/credit.
If James and Kamanda had reached a void agreement that included conditions, then Kamanda would have had to give James the toaster if the conditions were satisfied.
a. True
b. False
There is a problem with the question, the word void should not be there. A void agreement is simply not enforceable since it is not valid. So I will assume that they both reached a valid agreement and it was a typing mistake.
Answer:
a. True
Explanation:
If two (or more) parties engage in a valid contract that includes certain specific conditions that are necessary in order to complete performance, and these conditions are met by one of the parties, then the other party must perform their part. In other words, if James performed all the conditions that were included in their contract, then Kamanda should hand over the toaster to James.
Workers at Majestic Manufacturing have won the right to unionize, but management is unwilling to participate in the collective bargaining process and bargain in "good faith." This is a direct violation of the _______Act.
Answer: National Labor Relations Act
Explanation:
Passed in 1935, this is a fundamental act in United States Labor law that grants private sector employees the right to join Unions and engage with employers in Collective Bargaining to better their employment conditions. This act even gave the employees the right to strike if their demands are not meant.
Most relevant is that in Section 8 of the Act, it is made clear that when an Employer refuses to engage in Collective Bargaining with the representative of their employees, that this is an unfair labor practice and under the Act, is considered to be illegal.
g For this question, ignore inflation. Suppose Jenny earns $60,000 per year working as a tax analyst. After ten years, she quits her job and pursues a PhD in Art History. For the 5 years she is in school, she gets a teaching stipend of $12,000 per year. For the next 35 years, she is an art director and earns $95,000. If she expects to live for 20 years in retirement. If Jenny doesn’t earn any interest on her savings and wants to perfectly smooth consumption across her life, how much will she consume every year? What might prevent her from perfectly smoothing consumption?
Answer:
If Jenny doesn’t earn any interest on her savings and wants to perfectly smooth consumption across her life, how much will she consume every year?
Jenny's total income during her life = income as tax analyst ($60,000 x 10) + income as PhD student ($12,000 x 5) + income as Art Director (35 x $95,000) = $3,985,000
she generated income during 50 years and expects to live 20 more, so in order to perfectly smooth consumption across her life, she must divide her total life income by 70 years = $3,985,000 / 70 years = $56,928.57 per year
What might prevent her from perfectly smoothing consumption?
First of all, besides inflation, you also earn interest on your savings. That is why 401k and other retirement accounts work so well (the magic of compound interest). Even if inflation and interests didn't exist, you cannot know exactly what you are going to earn in the future and for how many years. In this case, she earned $60,000 for 10 years, but then earned only $12,000 during 5 years. If she really wanted to smooth her consumption, she would have needed to get a loan because her savings during the first 10 years wouldn't be enough.
If merchandise inventory is being valued at cost and the purchase price is steadily falling, which method of costing will yield the largest net income?
Answer:
The answer is LIFO
Explanation:
LIFO is Last in First out. It means the Inventory that was purchased last goes out first.
In periods LIFO, cost of sales reflects the cost of goods purchased recently and the ending Inventory reflects the older goods.
In periods of falling prices, the costs of ending inventory are high, cost of sales are low and the gross profit are high.
Which one of the following is not a factor that influences a business's control environment? Group of answer choices management's philosophy and operating style organizational structure proofs and security measures personnel policies
Answer:
proofs and security measures
Explanation:
According to the Sarbanes-Oxley, there are three factors that affect the Company's Control Environment which is as follows
1. Personnel Policies
2. Management's Philosophy and their operating styles
3. And, the last one is Organizational Structure
Therefore the third option is not a influencing factor for a business control environment