Because ammonia is very toxic, it is kept at low levels in the body by being eliminated as well as converted to uric acid and to urea.
So, the correct options are A, B, and D.
A high blood ammonia level can be reduced using the following treatments: For newborns, limit their protein intake by The coma-causing metabolic inborn causes of hyperammonemia in newborns may be treated by reducing their protein intake. Hemodialysis: The process of cleansing the blood using a dialysis machine and a device referred to as an artificial kidney. In addition, it is produced in the human gut as a result of various bacterial enzymatic processes. Ammonia is quickly converted into urea in the liver by the urea cycle and eliminated by the kidneys, but this is due to the fact that ammonia is highly toxic.
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b cells are induced to switch to alternative immunoglobulin isotypes under the influence of which component?
B cells are induced to switch to alternative immunoglobulin isotypes under the influence cytokines made by TFH.
What are the functions of B cells?B cell also called B lymphocyte is a key player of the adaptive immune response that is responsible for humoral immunity in the mammals. Production of B cell in humans is a lifelong process that starts in the fetal liver intrauterine and bone marrow after birth and their development is from hematopoietic stem cells.
B - cells create a type of protein called antibody. These antibodies bind to pathogens such as toxins to neutralize them. For example, antibody can bind to a virus that prevents it from entering a normal cell and causing infection.
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the body color of molly fish is controlled by several different genes. channel catfish homozygous for the recessive pigmentation gene have white coloration. the three-spined stickleback has a gene that controls the development of skeletal plates and the number of sensory cells in the lateral line. damselfish with the genotype bb have the barred color pattern. fish with the bb genotype lack bars. fish with the bb genotype display incomplete bars. in goldfish, the dominant m gene leads to dark coloration. for goldfish with an mm genotype, the s gene leads to a gold-colored fish, but the ss genotype causes albinism. mendelian inheritance press space to open complex inheritance press space to open
We know that complete inheritance refers to a pattern of inheritance in which the exchanging traits individuals are indistinguishable, and the traits are completely masked, whereas Mendelian inheritance is the transfer of certain patterns from parents to offspring.
As a result, we will attempt to state which inheritance examples belong to which inheritance.
1)Mendelian Inheritance in Goldfish ( Here, the observable traits are being inherited, Mendelian Inheritance deals with Autosomal dominance here with the M gene that is resposnsible for dark coloration)
2) Mendelian Inheritance in Damselfish (As the dominant homozygous genotype has a barred colour pattern, the recessive homozygous genotype lacks bars, and the heterozygous genotype has incomplete bars, all of which point to Mendelian Inheritance.)
3)Mendelian Inheritance in Chanel Catfish ( As recessive homozygous gene is responsible for white coloration)
4)Molly fish- Complete ancestry ( Several genes are responsible for the body colour of Molly fish which is single observable trait)
5)Stickleback- Complete Inheritance (The gene is solely responsible for the development of skeletal plats).
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Which proteins lends structural support to the chromosome and helps activate or silence gene expression?.
Histones serve as structural proteins. Histones are encircled by DNA, which gives chromosomes their structure. Histones can be changed by adding or removing chemical groups like methyl or acetyl groups.
What protein helps a chromosome maintain its structural integrity?A chromosome's structural support is provided by a protein called a histone. Each chromosome has a long DNA molecule that must fit into the cell nucleus. By wrapping around histone protein complexes, the DNA achieves this and gives the chromosome a more compact shape.
Who or what is responsible for suppressing gene expression?Posttranscriptional gene silencing (PTGS) and transcriptional gene silencing (TGS) both work to degrade already-existing RNA. Although the outcomes are comparable, TGS's processes are species-specific, as are PTGS. De novo DNA methylation is connected to gene silencing in the majority of eukaryotes.
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in eukaryotes, there are several different types of rna polymerase. which type is involved in transcription of mrna for a protein?
Transcribing RNA into a protein involves RNA polymerase II. whereas eukaryotes have a variety of RNA polymerase species.
RNA polymerase II, also known as RNAP II or Pol II, is a multiprotein complex that converts DNA into messenger RNA (mRNA), the majority of small nuclear RNA (snRNA), and microRNA precursors. It is one of the three RNAP enzymes that can be found in eukaryotic cells' nuclei. The most researched form of RNA polymerase is RNAP II, a 550 kDa complex with 12 subunits. For it to bind to upstream gene promoters and start transcription, a variety of transcription factors are needed. In eukaryotic genomes, RNA polymerase II (Pol II) transcribes all protein-coding genes and a large number of noncoding RNAs. Though Pol II is complicated.
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Which statement is TRUE of infant vision?
Because of the sensitivity of their eyes, young infants avoid looking at areas of high contrast.
By around 2 or 3 months of age infants' color vision is similar to that of adults.
Infants tend to look at the center of any display, regardless of what it is.
Visual acuity develops very slowly, but by 18 months infants can see nearly as well as adults.
The TRUE statement regarding infant vision is B. At around 2 or 3 months of age infants color vision is similar to that of adults.
Eyes are a very important person to see life. The baby's sense of sight develops gradually as the baby gets older from birth. Newborn babies aged around 1 month can only see contrasting colors at close range. Baby's retinas are developing so that their pupils dilate to detect light. At the age of 2-3 months babies usually start to be able to see differences in colors clearly and objects with various shapes. When one object is moved to the other side, the baby's eyes are able to follow the object.
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how can variation of traits in a population help in the adaption of the population to its enviornment
Answer:A population has genetic variations, possibly due to mutations. Favorable variations may allow an organism to be better adapted to its environment and survive to reproduce. Beneficial traits are favored in a population so that they may become better represented.
Explanation:
to test the service brake on a hydraulic system you push down the pedel firmly to see if the braking action is correct where and when should u do this
You should test the service brake on a hydraulic system you push down the pedel firmly to see if the braking action is correct while during your pre-trip.
Three brake pedal pumps are required. Next, press firmly and hold the pedal position for five seconds. The pedal must not be pressed. If so, there might be a leak or another issue.
What is hydraulic system?
Hydraulic systems use a pressured fluid to operate and carry out duties. Another way to put it is that everything is propelled by a fluid under pressure. Heavy machinery typically employs hydraulics because of how much liquid fuel affects hydraulics.
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male-only care is rare in birds but relatively common in fish. what two factors are hypothesized to explain this difference?
Plant growth and fertilization mode in which the main stem continues to extend indefinitely without being constrained by a terminal inflorescence or other reproductive structure.
Also known as determinate growth, it is characterized by successive flowering from the lateral or base buds to the central or highest buds.
Snakes have indeterminate growth, which indicates that there is no end point in time or size for their growth during their lives, but they can continue to expand in length until they die. Many snakes attain sexual maturity in roughly two years.
Here are a few examples of hypotheses: A straightforward hypothesis: A simple hypothesis predicts a link between two variables, one independent and one dependent.
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when butterflies visit a corpse, which occurs very late in the succession of insects that arrive at a corpse, what are they looking to feed on?
Butterflies visit a corpse, which occurs very late in the succession of insects that arrive at a corpse, what are they looking to feed on salt
Butterflies are fantastic for your garden since they are drawn to vivid flowers and require nectar to survive. Their bodies gather pollen as a result and transport it to other plants. Fruits, vegetables, and flowers can generate more seeds because to this.Plants are not specifically harmed by butterflies. Cabbage moths and white cabbage butterflies are the primary offenders (which we describe below). The majority of butterflies are essentially unharmful.Butterflies, like honeybees, pollinate plants and serve as a food source for birds and other species. They also assist in gauging environmental conditions. This final task is crucial since native pollinators are responsible for one-third of the food generated for human use.
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operons are structures in bacterial genomes that organize genes involved in a common metabolic pathway. a specific example is the lac operon, which produces three enzymes involved in the metabolism of lactose (milk sugar) as a food source for escherichia coli. identify the functions of each part of the operon and related structures.
The functions of each part of the Lac operon and related structures are based on the following pairs: (1: E), (2:F), (3:D), (4:B), (5:C), (6:A)
1. The {lacZ} gene encodes the enzyme {β-galactosidase}, which hydrolyzes the disaccharide lactose into two monosaccharides: glucose and galactose.
2. The {lacY} gene encodes the enzyme {permease}, a membrane transport protein that facilitates the movement of lactose into the cell.
3. The {lacA} gene encodes {transacetylase}, an enzyme that detoxifies other molecules that might enter the cell through permease.
4. RNA polymerase binds to the {lac promoter} in order to transcribe the three lac genes.
5. The {lac operator} controls whether or not RNA polymerase can transcribe the genes.
6. The {lacI gene}, which lies just upstream from the lac operon, encodes the {lacI repressor} protein that binds to the operator to regulate the activity of the operon.
The complete question is:
Operons are structures in bacterial genomes that organize genes involved in a common metabolic pathway. A specific example is the lac operon, which produces three enzymes involved in the metabolism of lactose (milk sugar) as a food source for Escherichia coli. Identify the functions of each part of the operon and related structures.
Drag the terms on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences. Not all terms will be used.
1. The {lacZ}
2. The {lacY}
3. The {lacA}
4. RNA polymerase
5. The {lac operator}
6. The {lacI gene}
Options are:
(A). which lies just upstream from the lac operon, encodes the {lacI repressor} protein that binds to the operator to regulate the activity of the operon.
(B). binds to the {lac promoter} in order to transcribe the three lac genes.
(C) controls whether or not RNA polymerase can transcribe the genes.
(D) the gene encodes {transacetylase}, an enzyme that detoxifies other molecules that might enter the cell through permease.
(E) the gene encodes the enzyme {β-galactosidase}, which hydrolyzes the disaccharide lactose into two monosaccharides: glucose and galactose.
(F) the gene encodes the enzyme {permease}, a membrane transport protein that facilitates the movement of lactose into the cell.
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Hairston and colleagues argued that terrestrial ecosystems have a _______ proportion of autotroph biomass consumption compared to aquatic ecosystems because _______ is stronger in terrestrial ecosystems.lower; predation
According to Hairston and colleagues, because predation is more intense in terrestrial ecosystems, they consume a smaller percentage of autotroph biomass than aquatic habitats.
In contrast, according to Hairston (1993), the distribution of biomass throughout the trophic levels and the number of them are determined by ecosystems evolutionary features like body size and eating behavior rather than by energetics or nutrition. Only three functioning trophic levels are present in terrestrial ecosystems food webs, biomass according to Hairston & Hairston (1993). (plants, herbivores and primary predators)
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you are looking at dna-protein binding data in a 14 kb region of the genome. t/f: this data provides biochemical and evolutionary evidence of functionality for a non-coding region of the genome.
False if findings show biochemical and evolutionary proof that a non-coding portion of the genome functions.
What are the three different genome types?We know from the last example that there are three genome types, AA, AG, and GG, because the mutation is A-G. The GG type of these three genome types has the highest activity against alcohol, whereas the AA type has the lowest activity and can rarely digest alcohol.
What kind of genome is an example of?This same set of instructions can be found in every cell in the body, such as skin cells and liver cells: DNA is the primary component of our genome's instructions. DNA contains a special chemical sequence that directs our growth, development, and health.
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the population projection technique that allocates a projected population expansion to subregional areas is called:
Answer:
shift-share
Explanation:
hope it helps!
which hormone released by the highlighted structure stimulates the release of tsh from the anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis)?
Answer: aTRH hormone
Explanation:
What is the metabolic process that breaks down organic molecules to release energy to be used by cells?
Answer: Cellular Respiration
Explanation:
describe a positive coagulase test and its significance. describe how coagulase is a virulence factor. which pathogen produces coagulase
Staphylococcus aureus can be identified using the tube coagulase test as long as only a solid clot that does not move when the tube is tilted is regarded as a positive coagulation reaction.
Define coagulase test?
The coagulase test determines whether a substance contains the exoenzyme coagulase, which is responsible for causing blood plasma's fibrin to clot. it is done to determine the presence or absence of coagulase protein.
Aureus has a virulence factor called coagulase. This bacteria may shield an infection from phagocytosis by causing a clot to grow around it.
Hence ,Staphylococcus aureus can be distinguished from other coagulase-negative Staphylococcus species with this test.
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which structure is highlighted? posterior view of the thigh. the highlighted structure is a bunch of tissue in its lower portion. it branches laterally from a long bunch of tissue lying along the middle back of the thigh.which structure is highlighted? popliteal nerve tibial nerve tendon of semimembranosus common fibular nerve
The structure which is highlighted in the given picture is c)anterior tibial artery. Popliteal artery give rise to anterior tibial artery in Poplitea. So, correct option is c.
The popliteal artery is a profoundly positioned continuation of the femoral course opening in the distal piece of the adductor magnus muscle. It flows through the popliteal fossa and closures at the lower line of the popliteus muscle, where it branches into the front and back tibial courses.
The most profound (generally front) structure in the fossa, the popliteal course runs near the joint container of the knee as it ranges the intercondylar fossa. Five genicular parts of the popliteal vein supply the container and tendons of the knee joint. The genicular veins are the unrivaled sidelong, predominant average, center, mediocre horizontal, and second rate average genicular corridors.
They partake in the development of the periarticular genicular anastomosis, an organization of vessels encompassing the knee that gives guarantee flow fit for keeping up with blood supply to the leg during full knee flexion, which might wrinkle the popliteal vein.
Hence, correct option is c.
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(Complete question) is:
Which structure is highlighted in the given picture?
a)posterior tibial artery
b)femoral artery
c)anterior tibial artery
d)popliteal artery fibular artery
Pretend that you are doing a cloning. These are the steps:
1st step: A cloning vector (selective vector: β-Galactosidase/lac-Z) was cut with the restriction endonuclease Sma I, whose restriction site is:
C C C G G G
2nd step: The digested vector was treated with alkaline phosphatase to prevent the relegation of the plasmid.
3rd step: Your synthetic DNA of interest was inserted into the Sma I site in your vector.
Sequence of your fragment of interest:
5' G G A C T T A C T A C C C A A G T A 3'
3' C C T G A A T G A T G G G T T C A T 5'
Vector sequence indicating where the DNA fragment was inserted (Sma I site) in respect to the b-galactosidase gene (this is a blunt-end ligation!)
- ATG | ACC | ATG | ATT ACG | AAT | TCC | C GG | GGA -
↑
Sma I-cut
H3N- Met | Thr | Met | Ile | Thr | Asn | Ser | Arg | Gly --> functional b- galactosidase gene starts here
4th step: the digested vector and DNA fragment were ligated followed by a transformation into E. coli.
RESULTS: In the presence of the indicator X-gal, 52% of the colonies on the plate were blue and 48% were clear. The Blue colonies are not due to the re-ligation of the plasmid!
In this experiment, cloning failed because 52% formed blue colonies because it did not show the presence of the DNA we are interested in. Perhaps due to improper binding of the DNA to the vector, due to the sticky ends produced by the restriction enzymes, causing misfolding of the DNA or causing expression failure. And another reason may be because not every cell that is supposed to change is always changing, of the number of cells saved for transformation, only half of the cells show the transformation.
This problem provides an explanation of the steps for cloning E. Coli bacteria in the presence of an X-gal indicator, resulting in 52% of the colonies on the plate being blue and 48% clear.
In gene cloning, X-gal is used as a visual indication of whether a cell expresses a functional α-galactosidase enzyme in a technique called blue/clear screening. This screening method is an easy way to distinguish successful clones from unsuccessful ones.
Blue and clear selection is a method used to separate cells containing recombinant plasmids from cells containing plasmids without inserted DNA. The purpose of this selection is to find out whether the ligation process was successful or to find out the presence of inserted DNA. Successful ligation produces clear colonies.
Your question is incomplete, but maybe your question is complete "Give the most likely explanation for your result!"
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g to increase the amount of blood that goes to the brain and muscles, the body will. . . increase hr, increase stroke volume, increase bp, vasoconstrict peripheral arteries, vasodilate veins increase hr, increase stroke volume, increase bp, vasodilate peripheral arteries, vasconstrict veins increase hr, increase stroke volume, increase bp, vasoconstrict peripheral arteries, vasconstrict veins increase hr, increase stroke volume, decrease bp, vasodilate peripheral arteries, vasconstrict veins
To increase the amount of blood that goes to the brain and muscles, the body will d) vasconstrict veins increase hr, increase stroke volume, increase bp. So, option d is correct.
Our blood conveys oxygen and significant supplements all through your body, so it's truly critical to have a consistent, solid degree of blood stream to your mind. As a matter of fact, diminished blood stream to your cerebrum is related with various wellbeing concerns, including an expanded gamble of dementia, melancholy, and stroke. Luckily, it's really conceivable to work on your course and increment blood stream for a better cerebrum.
There are certain ways of expanding blood stream in our body parts like muscles and mind.
Eat more dull chocolate.Chew gum.Drink beet juice.Enjoy a lot of berries.Listen to your #1 music.Get a decent night's sleep.Exercise 3-4 times a week.Practice meditation.Stretch over the course of the day.Loosen your bowtie.Hence, option d is correct.
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(Complete question) is:
to increase the amount of blood that goes to the brain and muscles, the body will. . .
a)increase hr, increase stroke volume, increase bp,
b)vasoconstrict peripheral arteries, vasodilate veins increase hr, c)increase stroke volume, increase bp, vasodilate peripheral arteries,
d)vasconstrict veins increase hr, increase stroke volume, increase bp,
e)vasoconstrict peripheral arteries, vasconstrict veins increase hr, increase stroke volume, decrease bp,
f) vasodilate peripheral arteries, vasconstrict veins.
i) both recognize antigens using immunoglobulin receptors. ii) both undergo clonal selection after encountering an antigen. iii) both maintain an immunological memory of previously encountered antigens.
The correct options are II) Both B cells and T cells undergo clonal selection after encountering an antigen and III) B cells and T cells both maintain an immunological memory of previously encountered antigens
Clonal selection is a method proposed to explain how a single B or T cell that recognizes an antigen that invades the body is chosen/picked from the pre-existing cell pool containing various antigen specificities, and then its reproduction to generate a clonal cell population that eliminates the invading antigen.
Both B and T cells keep an immunological memory of previously encountered antigens; when exposed to the same antigen again, the immune response is swiftly triggered (memory T cell), or the cell multiplies and makes a lot of a particular antibody (memory B cell).
The complete question is:
Which of the following are similarities between B cells and T cells?
I) They both recognize antigen using immunoglobulin receptors.
II) Both B cells and T cells undergo clonal selection after encountering an antigen.
III) B cells and T cells both maintain an immunological memory of previously encountered antigens.
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which scenarios describe ecological conditions that are appropriate for exponential growth to occur?
The correct answer is d) A small flock of birds migrates to an unpopulated island with lush vegetation and abundant insect prey.
Birds migrate in order to shift from low-resource areas to high-resource areas or vice versa. The two main items sought after are food and places to build nests. Birds that breed in the Northern Hemisphere typically migrate northward in the spring to take advantage of the abundance of nesting sites, burgeoning insect populations, and budding plants to a suitable ecological condition. The birds once more migrate south as winter draws near and the amount of insects and other food sources decreases. Escape from the cold is a driving force, but many species, including hummingbirds, can withstand subfreezing temperatures provided they have access to enough food.
The complete question is:
Which of the following scenarios describe ecological conditions that are appropriate for exponential growth to occur?
a) People who live in the area surrounding Mombasa, Kenya are at high risk for contracting malaria.
b) A population of antelope in the African plains experiences high levels of predation from lions, cheetahs, and leopards.
c) Herbivores like elephants, giraffes, antelope, and zebras must compete for limited vegetation during drought seasons in the African savannah.
d) A small flock of birds migrates to an unpopulated island with lush vegetation and abundant insect prey.
e) Excessive snow and cold from a blizzard causes many starvation related deaths in a quail population. Only a small portion of the quail survive to spring to raise their young.
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The cell membrane exists as a phospholipid bilayer. What characteristics of the membrane allow for the bilayer to exist?
O The membrane has proteins that hold the two layers together.
O Phosphate heads are hydrophilic and the fatty acid tails are hydrophobic.
O Phosphate heads are hydrophobic and the fatty acid tails are hydrophilic.
O The membrane is semipermeable.
Answer:
Phosphate heads are hydrophilic and the fatty acid tails are hydrophobic
What are the phenotypic and genotypic ratios of of the following cross: tall, round (TTRR) x short, wrinkled (ttrr)
Phenotypic ratio: 9:3:3:1
Genotypic ratios: 1:2:2:4:1:2:1:2:1.
The following cross: tall, round (TTRR) x short, wrinkled (ttrr)
What is a dihybrid cross?A dihybrid cross is a cross between characters in which 2 different genes are responsible for different traits.
Phenotypic ratio: Tall/Round - 9
Tall/wrinkled - 3
Short/Round - 3
Short/wrinkled - 1
Genotypic ratios: 1:2:2:4:1:2:1:2:1'.
Gametes: RT, Rt, rT, rt
Cross between tall, round (TTRR) x short, wrinkled (ttrr) are attched in image below.
Therefore, the phenotypic ratio: is 9:3:3:1, genotypic ratio: is 1:2:2:4:1:2:1:2:1.
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which hormone released by the highlighted structure stimulates the release of tsh from the anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis)?
A The hypothalamic-pituitary axis regulates the release of TSH via hypothalamic neurons that secrete thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH), a hormone that stimulates thyrotrophs in the anterior pituitary to secrete TSH.
TSH synthesis in the anterior pituitary is stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) and inhibited by thyroid hormone in a classic endocrine negative feedback loop. The hypothalamic-pituitary axis regulates the release of TSH. Specifically, neurons in the hypothalamus release TRH, or thyroid-releasing hormone, which stimulates the thyrotrophs in the anterior pituitary to secrete TSH. Your hypothalamus releases thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), which causes your pituitary gland to release thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). ), which stimulates the thyroid to release T3 and T4. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus stimulates the anterior pituitary to release thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH),synthesize and release thyroid hormones (T3 and T4)
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individuals from which of the following backgrounds are least likely to experience emerging adulthood? group of answer choices western cultures high ses low ses all of these are equally likely to experience emerging adulthood
Emerging adulthood is predominantly found in developed countries mainly in western cultures. There most young people completing tertiary education, marrying and becoming parents at a median age of about 30.
Adulthood, the period of human lifespan in which people reach full physical and mental maturity. Adulthood is generally considered to begin when he is 20 or he is 21. From around 40 years old to middle age, around 60 years old to reach the old age.
"Emerging adulthood" is a term that describes the stage of development from about 18 to 29 years old, experienced by most people in their 20s in Westernized cultures and perhaps other parts of the world as well.
Growing adults share five traits: self-focus, instability, identity-seeking, in-between, and a sense of possibility. Emerging adulthood occurs in all ethnic, cultural, and socioeconomic groups, but the experience of emerging adulthood varies among groups.
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When all the members of a species or population have the same allele for a certain gene, we say that gene is.
If the 2 alleles are the equal, the character is homozygous for that allele. If the alleles are different, the character is heterozygous.
When a populace is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for a gene, it isn't always evolving, and allele frequencies will live the equal throughout generations. There are 5 fundamental Hardy-Weinberg assumptions: no mutation, random mating, no gene flow, limitless populace size, and no selection.
To "fix" an allele method that the allele is gift at a frequency of 1.0, so all people withinside the populace have the equal allele at a locus.
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which one is correct answer
Foetus get antibodies through placenta and injection of Antibodies are the example of Passive Immunity .
What is Passive Immunity ?The transmission of a ready-made antibody's active humoral immunity is known as passive immunity. Natural transmission of maternal antibodies to the fetus via the placenta can result in passive immunity.
The main benefit of passive immunity is that it provides protection right away, as opposed to active immunity, which takes time (a few weeks) to develop. Passive immunity, however, only lasts a few weeks or months. Long-lasting immunity can only be active.When a person acquires antibodies against a disease that were not produced by their own immune system naturally rather than through medical intervention, they are said to have acquired natural passive immunity. This is also known as maternal passive immunity and typically refers to the transfer of antibodies from the mother to the fetus over the placenta.Passive immunity comes in two flavors: synthetic and natural.To know more about Passive Immunity please click here : https://brainly.com/question/21480961
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why is dna replication considered semi-conservative? two strands of the original dna molecule are separated. half of the dna molecule produced is from an rna precursor. the new double helix has two strands of new dna. the new double helix has one strand from the original dna and one new strand.
DNA replication is considered semi-conservative d. the new double helix has one strand of original DNA and one new strand.
DNA replication is the process of doubling the DNA chain before cell division occurs. By the mechanism of synthesizing a new DNA strand by adding complementary nucleotides to the template strand.
Semiconservative replication is a biologically significant model of DNA replication proposed by Watson and Crick. The semiconservative theory, which states that the double helix strands split into a single helix, then form a new pair of complementary strands. During semiconservative replication, one old DNA strand serves as a template to form a new strand. DNA replication is called semi-analysis because DNA produces a new strand after synthesizing the old strand.
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An element crystallizes in a face-centered cubic lattice, and it has a density of 1. 45 g/cm3. The edge of its unit cell is 4. 52x10-8 cm. How many atoms are in each unit cell? what is the volume of a unit cell? what is the mass of a unit cell? calculate an approximate atomic mass for the element.
The values of the no of atoms in each unit cell, the volume of a unit cell, the mass of a unit cell , Atomic mass for the element respectively are 4, 9.2345*10-23 cm³, 1.34x10 gm, 20.
Given,
Lattice is fcc and has a density of 1.45 g/cm³.
Edge length, a=4.52*10 cm
The total number of atoms in fcc lattice,
At corner = 1/8*8 =1
At face = 1/2*6 =3
Total number of particles = 3 + 1 =4
The volume of the unit cell,
Volume of unit cell = a³ =(4.52*10 cm)
=9.2345*10-23 cm³
The mass of the unit cell
Mass = Density*Volume
Mass = 1.45g/cm * 9.2345x10^-23
=1.34x10 gm
The atomic mass of the element
Mass of one atom =1.34x10/4 g
=3.35x10 gm
Atomic mass of the element = mass in gm/1amu
= 3.35×10 g /1.66x1024 g
= 20
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what is the scraping or scooping of the tissue surface of the skin or wall of a tumor cavity
skin, cavity walls, tiny tumors, abortions, to clean out, bodily materials, or infectious materials that have been scraped from the tissue surface. a cancerous melanoma.
What does removing tissue from the body for microscopic analysis entail?A procedure known as a biopsy is carried out by medical professionals to examine a small sample of tissue under a microscope. A tissue sample can be taken from almost any part of the body, including the skin, stomach, kidneys, liver, and lungs.
What is the name of scraping therapy?If you've ever had tendinitis or strained a joint, you can relate to how frustrating it may be. Scraping therapy, also known as Instrument-Assisted Soft Tissue Mobilization, is a service provided by RPT that has a proven track record of expediting soft tissue recovery. like muscles, tendons, ligaments, and fascia.
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