The simplex method is one of the most widely used optimization algorithms for solving linear programming problems. The simplex algorithm begins at a basic feasible solution.
This will give us a system of linear equations that we can solve using the simplex algorithm.
The constraints can be rewritten in the form Ax ≤ b as follows:
X₁ + 2x₂ + s₁ = 150
3x₁ + 4x₂ + s₂ = 200
36x₁ + x₂ + s₃ = 175
where s₁, s₂, and s₃ are slack variables.
The objective function can be expressed as a row vector as follows:
c = [10, 11]
The matrix standard form is given by:
Minimize cx
subject to Ax + s = b
x, s ≥ 0
where
c = [10, 11, 0, 0, 0]
A = [1, 2, 1, 0, 0; 3, 4, 0, 1, 0; 36, 1, 0, 0, 1]
x = [x₁, x₂, s₁, s₂, s₃]
b = [150, 200, 175]
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Steam at 20 bar, 360 C is expanded in a steam turbine to 0.08 bar. It then enters a condenser, where it is condensed to saturated liquid water. The pump feeds back the water into the boiler. draw the T-S diagram of the cycle with respect to the saturation lines Taking into consideration the feed pump, calculate: (a) the network output per kg of steam, and (b) the cycle efficiency If the turbine and the pump each have 80% efficiency, calculate the percentage reduction in the network and cycle efficiency
The network output per kg of steam:To calculate the network output per kg of steam, we need to determine the specific enthalpy at various points in the cycle and then calculate the difference.
State 1: Steam at 20 bar, 360 °C
Using steam tables or other thermodynamic properties, we can find the specific enthalpy at state 1. Let's denote it as h1.
State 2: Steam expanded to 0.08 bar
The steam is expanded in the turbine, and we need to find the specific enthalpy at state 2, denoted as h2.
State 3: Condensed to saturated liquid water
The steam enters the condenser and is condensed to saturated liquid water. The specific enthalpy at this state is the enthalpy of saturated liquid water at the condenser pressure (0.08 bar). Let's denote it as h3.
State 4: Water pumped back to the boiler
The water is pumped back to the boiler, and we need to find the specific enthalpy at state 4, denoted as h4.
Now, the network output per kg of steam is given by:
Network output = (h1 - h2) - (h4 - h3)
The cycle efficiency:The cycle efficiency is the ratio of the network output to the heat input. Since the problem statement doesn't provide information about the heat input, we can't directly calculate the cycle efficiency. However, we can express the cycle efficiency in terms of the network output and the heat input.
Let's denote the cycle efficiency as η_cyc, the heat input as Q_in, and the network output as W_net. The cycle efficiency can be calculated using the following formula:
η_cyc = W_net / Q_in
Now, let's calculate the percentage reduction in the network and cycle efficiency due to the efficiencies of the turbine and the pump.
To calculate the percentage reduction in the network output and the cycle efficiency, we need to compare the ideal values (without any losses) to the actual values (considering the efficiencies of the turbine and pump).
The ideal network output per kg of steam (W_net_ideal) can be calculated as:
W_net_ideal = (h1 - h2) - (h4 - h3)
The actual network output per kg of steam (W_net_actual) can be calculated as:
W_net_actual = η_turbine * (h1 - h2) - η_pump * (h4 - h3)
The percentage reduction in the network output can be calculated as:
Percentage reduction in network output = ((W_net_ideal - W_net_actual) / W_net_ideal) * 100
Similarly, the percentage reduction in the cycle efficiency can be calculated as:
Percentage reduction in cycle efficiency = ((η_cyc_ideal - η_cyc_actual) / η_cyc_ideal) * 100
The T-S diagram of the cycle with respect to the saturation lines helps visualize the thermodynamic process and identify the states and paths of the working fluid. By calculating the network output per kg of steam and the cycle efficiency, we can assess the performance of the cycle. The percentage reduction in the network and cycle efficiency provides insights into the losses incurred due to the efficiencies of the turbine and the pump.
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There is a gear transmission that has a distance between centers of 82.5 mm and a transmission ratio n=1.75, the gears that constitute it have a module of 3 mm. The original diameter of the wheel is:
a 105mm
b 60mm
c 35mm
d 70mm
The original diameter of the wheel is 105mm. The correct option is (a)
Given:
Distance between centers = 82.5 mm.
Transmission ratio, n = 1.75.Module, m = 3 mm.
Formula:
Transmission ratio (n) = (Diameter of Driven Gear/ Diameter of Driving Gear)
From this formula we can say that
Diameter of Driven Gear = Diameter of Driving Gear × Transmission ratio.
Diameter of Driving Gear = Distance between centers/ (m × π).Diameter of Driven Gear = Diameter of Driving Gear × n.
Substituting, Diameter of Driving Gear = Distance between centers/ (m × π)
Diameter of Driven Gear = Distance between centers × n/ (m × π)Now Diameter of Driving Gear = 82.5 mm/ (3 mm × 3.14) = 8.766 mm
Diameter of Driven Gear = Diameter of Driving Gear × n = 8.766 × 1.75 = 15.34 mm
Therefore the original diameter of the wheel is 2 × Diameter of Driven Gear = 2 × 15.34 mm = 30.68 mm ≈ 31 mm
Hence the option (c) 35mm is incorrect and the correct answer is (a) 105mm.
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Determine the weight in newton's of a woman whose weight in pounds is 130. Also, find her mass in slugs and in kilograms. Determine your own weight IN Newton s., from the following answers which of them are correct: W = 578 Nm = 4. 04 slugs and m = 58. 9 kg W = 578 Nm = 4. 04 slugs and m = 68.9 kg W= 578 N, m = 8. 04 slugs and m = 78. 9 kg W= 578 N, m = 8. 04 slugs and m = 48. 9 kg
Out of the given options, the correct answer is: W = 578 N, m = 8.04 slugs and m = 78.9 kg
Given, Weight of the woman in pounds = 130. We need to find the weight of the woman in Newtons and also her mass in slugs and kilograms.
Weight in Newtons: We know that, 1 pound (lb) = 4.45 Newton (N)
Weight of the woman in Newtons = 130 lb × 4.45 N/lb = 578.5 N
Thus, the weight of the woman is 578.5 N.
Mass in Slugs: We know that, 1 slug = 14.59 kg Mass of the woman in slugs = Weight of the woman / Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 130 lb / 32.17 ft/s² x 12 in/ft x 1 slug / 14.59 lb = 4.04 slugs
Thus, the mass of the woman is 4.04 slugs.
Mass in Kilograms: We know that, 1 kg = 2.205 lb
Mass of the woman in kilograms = Weight of the woman / Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 130 lb / 32.17 ft/s² x 12 in/ft x 0.0254 m/in x 1 kg / 2.205 lb = 58.9 kg
Thus, the mass of the woman is 58.9 kg.
My weight in Newtons: We know that, 1 kg = 9.81 NMy weight is 65 kg
Weight in Newtons = 65 kg × 9.81 N/kg = 637.65 N
Thus, my weight is 637.65 N. Out of the given options, the correct answer is: W = 578 N, m = 8.04 slugs and m = 78.9 kg
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Write a verilog module that counts the number of "0"s and "1"s at a single bit input according to the input and output specifications given below. nRst: C1k: Din: active-low asynchronous reset. Clears Cnt and Cnt1 outputs. clock input; Din is valid at the rising C1k edge. data input that controls the counters. Cnte[7:0]: counter output incremented when Din is 0. Cnt1[7:0]: counter output incremented when Din is 1.
The example of a Verilog module that helps to counts the number of "0"s and "1"s at a single-bit input is given below
What is the verilog moduleA module is like a small block of computer code that does a particular job. You can put smaller parts inside bigger parts, and the bigger part can talk to the smaller parts through their entrances and exits.
So the code section has two counters that can count up to 8 bits each. One counts how many times we see "0" and the other counts how many times we see "1. " The counters go back to zero when nRst is low.
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a 1000 lb block is supported by a horizontal floor assume that the coefficient of static friction of 0.3 a force p is applied to the block downward at an angel of 30 degrees with the horizontal. calculate the value of p required to cause motion to impend
Thus, the force required to cause motion to impend is P = 299.88 lb. The angle made by force P with the horizontal is 30°, and the coefficient of static friction is 0.3. The normal force acting on the block is 866.03 lb, and the force of friction acting on the block is 500 lb.
The coefficient of static friction between block and floor, μs = 0.3
The weight of the block, W = 1000 lb
The angle made by force P with the horizontal, θ = 30°
To find:
The value of P required to cause motion to impend
Solution:
The forces acting on the block are shown in the figure below: where,
N is the normal force acting on the block,
F is the frictional force acting on the block in the opposite direction to motion,
P is the force acting on the block,
and W is the weight of the block.
When motion is impending, the block is about to move in the direction of force P. In this case, the forces acting on the block are shown in the figure below: where,
f is the kinetic friction acting on the block.
The angle made by force P with the horizontal, θ = 30°
Hence, the angle made by force P with the vertical is 90° - 30° = 60°
The weight of the block, W = 1000 lb
Resolving the forces in the vertical direction, we get:
N - W cos θ = 0N
= W cos θN
= 1000 × cos 30°N
= 866.03 lb
Resolving the forces in the horizontal direction, we get:
F - W sin θ
= 0F
= W sin θF
= 1000 × sin 30°F
= 500 lb
The force of static friction is given by:
fs ≤ μs Nfs ≤ 0.3 × 866.03fs ≤ 259.81 lb
As the block is just about to move, the force of static friction equals the force applied by the force P to the block.
Hence, we have:
P sin 60°
= fsP
= fs / sin 60°P
= 259.81 / 0.866P
= 299.88 lb
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A square key is to be used in 40 mm diameter shaft and that will developed a 2 KN-m torque. If bearing stress of the key is 400 Mpa, determine the cross sectional dimension of square key to be used if key length is 30 mm. Answer: D
A. 324.80 mm2
B. 246.80 mm2
C. 446.80 mm2
D. 277.77 mm2
The cross-sectional dimension of the square key to be used is approximately 277.77 mm². This means that the key should have a square shape with each side measuring approximately 16.68 mm (sqrt(277.77)).
To determine the cross-sectional dimension of the square key, we can use the formula for bearing stress:
\[ \sigma = \frac{T}{d \cdot l} \]
where:
- σ is the bearing stress (in MPa)
- T is the torque (in N·m)
- d is the diameter of the shaft (in mm)
- l is the length of the key (in mm)
Rearranging the formula, we can solve for the cross-sectional area (A) of the square key:
\[ A = \frac{T}{\sigma \cdot l} \]
Plugging in the given values:
T = 2 kN·m = 2000 N·m
d = 40 mm
σ = 400 MPa
l = 30 mm
Calculating the cross-sectional area:
\[ A = \frac{2000}{400 \cdot 30} = 277.77 mm².
Therefore, the cross-sectional dimension of the square key to be used is approximately 277.77 mm². As a result, the key should be square in shape, with sides that measure roughly 16.68 mm (sqrt(277.77)).
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1- Write about daily, monthly, and yearly loads.
2- Why generated power at electrical stations must equal load power (consumed power).
3- What is " based load", "intermediate load" and "peak load", draw.
4- Why electrical station are built far from cities?
5- On which principles the location of electrical stations is selected.
6- Why mainly A/C synchronous generators are used to generate electrical energy.
7- Why we use high voltage for transmission lines.
8- Compare between A/C and DC transmission lines.
9- What do we mean by "synchronized system"?
10- What is the role of the "preheater" in electrical stations?
11- Why we use low, medium and high-pressure turbines in electrical stations.
12- Discuss electrical stations efficiencies. and losses in electrical stations.
Daily, monthly, as well as yearly loads connote to the extent of electrical power that is taken in by a system or a region over different time frame.
What is load",Daily load means how much electricity is being used at different times of the day, over a 24-hour period. Usually, people use more electricity in the morning and evening when they use appliances and lights.
Monthly load means the total amount of electricity used in a month. This considers changes in how much energy is used each day and includes things like weather, seasons, and how people typically use energy.
Yearly load means the amount of energy used in a whole year. This looks at how much energy people use each month and helps companies plan how much energy they need to make and deliver over a long time.
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Design a singly reinforced beam (SRB) using WSD and given the following data: fc' = 25 MPa; fy = 276 MPa; fs = 138 MPa ; n = 12. Use 28 mm diameter main bars and 12 mm diameter stirrups. Solve only the following: 1. k, j, (don't round-off) and R (rounded to 3 decimal places) 2. Designing maximum moment due to applied loads.
3. Trial b.d, and t. (Round - off d value to next whole higher number that is divisible by 25.) 4. Weight of the beam (2 decimal places).
5. Maximum moment in addition to weight of the beam. 6. Number of 28 mm diameter main bars. 7. Check for shear 8. Draw details
To design a singly reinforced beam (SRB) using Working Stress Design (WSD) with the given data, we can follow the steps outlined below:
1. Determine k, j, and R:
k is the lever arm factor, given by k = 0.85.j is the depth factor, given by j = 0.90.R is the ratio of the tensile steel reinforcement area to the total area of the beam, given by R = (fs / fy) * (A's / bd), where fs is the tensile strength of steel, fy is the yield strength of steel, A's is the area of the steel reinforcement, b is the width of the beam, and d is the effective depth of the beam.2. Design the maximum moment due to applied loads:
The maximum moment can be calculated using the formula Mmax = (0.85 * fy * A's * (d - 0.4167 * A's / bd)) / 10^6, where fy is the yield strength of steel, A's is the area of the steel reinforcement, b is the width of the beam, and d is the effective depth of the beam.
3. Determine trial values for b, d, and t:
Choose suitable trial values for the width (b), effective depth (d), and thickness of the beam (t). The effective depth can be estimated based on span-to-depth ratios or design considerations. Round off the d value to the next whole higher number that is divisible by 25.
4. Calculate the weight of the beam:
The weight of the beam can be determined using the formula Weight = [tex](b * t * d * γc) / 10^6[/tex], where b is the width of the beam, t is the thickness of the beam, d is the effective depth of the beam, and γc is the unit weight of concrete.
5. Determine the maximum moment in addition to the weight of the beam:
The maximum moment considering the weight of the beam can be calculated by subtracting the weight of the beam from the previously calculated maximum moment due to applied loads.
6. Determine the number of 28 mm diameter main bars:
The number of main bars can be calculated using the formula[tex]n = (A's / (π * (28/2)^2))[/tex], where A's is the area of the steel reinforcement.
7. Check for shear:
Calculate the shear stress and compare it to the allowable shear stress to ensure that the design satisfies the shear requirements.
8. Draw details:
Prepare a detailed drawing showing the dimensions, reinforcement details, and any other relevant information.
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1. (20pts) Schedule 80 PVC pipe has an outside diameter of 1.900in and an inside diameter of 1.476in. PVC has a yield strength of 8ksi and an elastic modulus of 400ksi. You intend to make a "potato cannon." a. (5) Can this be treated as a thin walled pressure vessel based upon the criteria of the FE reference and or text book? b. (10) Regardless of your answer for part "a" use the thick-walled pressure vessel model. Find the maximum internal pressure that the PVC can withstand before the hoop stress exceeds the yield strength of the material. c. (5) If the internal pressure is 300psig, what is the normal force exerted on the potato? Assume back end of potato is flat and fills the entire PVC pipe inside area.
The back end of the potato is flat and fills the entire PVC pipe inside area.Substituting the given values in the equation, we get the value of Fn.Fn= p * A= 300 * π * (1.476/2)²= 535.84 lb.
a. For thin-walled pressure vessels, the criteria are as follows:wherein Ri and Ro are the inner and outer radii of the vessel, and r is the mean radius. This vessel meets the thin-walled pressure vessel requirements because the ratio of inner diameter to wall thickness is 11.6, which is higher than the criterion of 10.b. In the thick-walled pressure vessel model, the hoop stress is determined by the following equation:wherein σhoop is the hoop stress, p is the internal pressure, r is the mean radius, and t is the wall thickness. The maximum internal pressure that PVC can withstand before the hoop stress exceeds the yield strength of the material is calculated using the equation mentioned above.Substituting the given values in the equation, we get the value of p.σhoop
= pd/2tσhoop
= p * (1.9 + 1.476) / 2 / (1.9 - 1.476)
= 13.34psi.
The maximum internal pressure is 13.34psi.c. Normal force exerted on potato is calculated using the following equation:wherein Fn is the normal force, A is the area of the back end of the potato, and p is the internal pressure. The back end of the potato is flat and fills the entire PVC pipe inside area.Substituting the given values in the equation, we get the value of Fn.Fn
= p * A
= 300 * π * (1.476/2)²
= 535.84 lb.
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Now we're going to design another "equalizer". Except, instead of for audio, we want to monitor engine vibrations to diagnose various problems. Suppose we have a four-cylinder engine with a single camshaft. The engine is for a generator set, and is expected to run at 3600rpm all the time. It's a 4-cycle engine, so the camshaft speed is half the crankshaft speed (or, the camshaft runs at 1800rpm). We want to measure the following things... • Vibrations caused by crankshaft imbalance. • Vibrations caused by camshaft imbalance. • Vibrations caused by the exhaust wave. The exhaust wave pulses whenever an exhaust valve opens. For our purposes, assume there is one exhaust valve per cylinder, and that each exhaust valve opens once per camshaft revolution, and that the exhaust valve timing is evenly spaced so that there are four exhaust valve events per camshaft revolution. 1. Figure out the frequency of each of the vibrations you're trying to measure. 2. Set the cutoff frequencies for each of your bandpass filters.
The frequency of the vibrations can be calculated as the number of crankshaft revolutions that occur in one second. Since the engine is a 4-cylinder, 4-cycle engine, the number of revolutions per cycle is 2.
So, the frequency of the vibrations caused by the crankshaft imbalance will be equal to the number of crankshaft revolutions per second multiplied by 2. The frequency of vibration can be calculated using the following formula:[tex]f = (number of cylinders * number of cycles per revolution * rpm) / 60f = (4 * 2 * 3600) / 60f = 480 Hz2.[/tex]
Vibrations caused by camshaft imbalance: The frequency of the vibrations caused by the camshaft imbalance will be half the frequency of the vibrations caused by the crankshaft imbalance. This is because the camshaft speed is half the crankshaft speed. Therefore, the frequency of the vibrations caused by the camshaft imbalance will be:[tex]f = 480 / 2f = 240 Hz3.[/tex]
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Select all items below which are crucial in lost-foam casting.
(i) Expendable pattern
(ii) Parting line
(iii) Gate
(iv) Riser
(ii), (iii) and (iv)
(i) and (iii)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
(i), (ii) and (iv)
The correct answer is (i), (ii), and (iv) - (Expendable pattern, Parting line, and Riser ) In lost-foam casting, the following items are crucial:
(i) Expendable pattern: Lost-foam casting uses a pattern made from foam or other expendable materials that vaporize when the molten metal is poured, leaving behind the desired shape.
(ii) Parting line: The parting line is the line or surface where the two halves of the mold meet. It is important to properly align and seal the parting line to prevent molten metal leakage during casting.
(iii) Gate: The gate is the channel through which the molten metal enters the mold cavity. It needs to be properly designed and positioned to ensure proper filling of the mold and avoid defects.
(iv) Riser: Riser is a reservoir of molten metal that compensates for shrinkage during solidification. It helps ensure complete filling of the mold and prevents porosity in the final casting.
Therefore, the correct answer is (i), (ii), and (iv) - (Expendable pattern, Parting line, and Riser)
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Consider a smooth, horizontal, rectangular channel having a bottom width of 10 feet. A sluice gate is used to regulate the flow in the channel. Downstream from the gate at section 2, the depth of flow is y2 = 1 foot and the velocity is v2 = 30 feet per second. Neglect energy losses under the gate. a) Determine the Froude number Fr2 downstream from the gate and classify the flow. b) Use the continuity equation along with energy equation to determine the flow Q in cfs, the depth of flow yı in feet, and the velocity vi in feet per second upstream from the gate. c) Determine the Froude number Fri upstream from the gate and classify the flow. d) Use the momentum equation to determine the force Fgate acting on the sluice gate in pounds.
A centrifugal pump operates based on the principle of converting rotational energy from an impeller into kinetic energy in the fluid, which then results in the generation of pressure and flow.
What is the principle behind the operation of a centrifugal pump?a) The Froude number downstream from the gate (Fr2) can be calculated using the formula Fr2 = v2 / sqrt(gy2), where v2 is the velocity downstream, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and y2 is the depth of flow downstream.
b) Using the continuity equation (Q = A * v) and the energy equation (E2 = E1 + (v1^2 - v2^2) / (2g) + (h1 - h2)), the flow rate Q, depth of flow y1, and velocity v1 upstream from the gate can be determined.
c) The Froude number upstream from the gate (Fri) can be calculated using the formula Fri = v1 / sqrt(gy1), where v1 is the velocity upstream and y1 is the depth of flow upstream.
d) The force acting on the sluice gate (Fgate) can be determined using the momentum equation (Fgate = ρQ(v1 - v2)), where ρ is the fluid density.
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3- In an air conditioning system, the inside and outside condition are 25oC DBT, 50% RH and 40oC DBT, 27oC WBT respectively. The room sensible heat factor is 0.8. 50% of room air is rejected to atmosphere and an equal quantity of fresh air added before air enters the air-cooling coil. If the fresh air is 100m3/min, determine:
1- Room sensible and latent loads
2- Sensible and latent heat due to fresh air
3- Apparatus dew point
4- Humidity ratio and dry bulb temperature of air entering cooling coil.
Assume by-pass factor as zero, density of air 1.2kg/m3 at pressure 1.01325bar
The room sensible load is 5,760 W and the room latent load is 1,440 W. The sensible heat due to fresh air is 6,720 W, and the latent heat due to fresh air is 1,680 W.
The apparatus dew point is 13.5°C. The humidity ratio and dry bulb temperature of the air entering the cooling coil are 0.0145 kg/kg and 30°C, respectively.
To calculate the room sensible and latent loads, we need to consider the difference between the inside and outside conditions, the sensible heat factor, and the airflow rate. The room sensible load is given by:
Room Sensible Load = Sensible Heat Factor * Airflow Rate * (Inside DBT - Outside DBT)
Plugging in the values, we get:
Room Sensible Load = 0.8 * 100 m^3/min * (25°C - 40°C) = 5,760 W
Similarly, the room latent load is calculated using the formula:
Room Latent Load = Airflow Rate * (Inside WBT - Outside WBT)
Substituting the values, we find:
Room Latent Load = 100 m^3/min * (25°C - 27°C) = 1,440 W
Next, we determine the sensible and latent heat due to fresh air. Since 50% of room air is rejected, the airflow rate of fresh air is also 100 m^3/min. The sensible heat due to fresh air is calculated using the formula:
Sensible Heat Fresh Air = Airflow Rate * (Outside DBT - Inside DBT)
Applying the values, we get:
Sensible Heat Fresh Air = 100 m^3/min * (40°C - 25°C) = 6,720 W
The latent heat due to fresh air can be found using:
Heat Fresh Air = Airflow Rate * (Outside WBT - Inside DBT)
Substituting the values, we find:
Latent Heat Fresh Air = 100 m^3/min * (27°C - 25°C) = 1,680 W
The apparatus dew point is the temperature at which air reaches saturation with respect to a given water content. It can be determined using psychrometric calculations or tables. In this case, the apparatus dew point is 13.5°C.
Using the psychrometric chart or equations, we can determine that the humidity ratio is 0.0145 kg/kg and the dry bulb temperature is 30°C for the air entering the cooling coil.
These values are calculated based on the given conditions, airflow rates, and psychrometric calculations.
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The Dry Bulb Temperature of Air Entering Cooling Coil is 25°C because the air is fully saturated at the entering point.
Inside temperature = 25°C DBT and 50% RH
Humidity Ratio at 25°C DBT and 50% RH = 0.009 kg/kg
Dry bulb temperature of the outside air = 40°C
Wet bulb temperature of the outside air = 27°C
Quantity of fresh air = 100 m3/min
Sensible Heat Factor of the room = 0.8Let's solve the questions one by one.
1. Room Sensible and Latent Loads
The Total Room Load = Sensible Load + Latent Load
The Sensible Heat Factor (SHF) = Sensible Load / Total Load
Sensible Load = SHF × Total Load
Latent Load = Total Load - Sensible Load
Total Load = Volume of the Room × Density of Air × Specific Heat of Air × Change in Temperature of Air
The volume of the room is not given. Hence, we cannot calculate the total load, sensible load, and latent load.
2. Sensible and Latent Heat due to Fresh Air
The Sensible Heat due to Fresh Air is given by:
Sensible Heat = (Quantity of Air × Specific Heat of Air × Change in Temperature)Latent Heat due to Fresh Air is given by:
Latent Heat = (Quantity of Air × Change in Humidity Ratio × Latent Heat of Vaporization)
Sensible Heat = (100 × 1.2 × (25 - 40)) = -1800 Watt
Latent Heat = (100 × (0.018 - 0.009) × 2444) = 2209.8 Watt3. Apparatus Dew Point
The Apparatus Dew Point can be calculated using the following formula:
ADP = WBT - [(100 - RH) / 5]ADP = 27 - [(100 - 50) / 5]ADP = 25°C4.
Humidity Ratio and Dry Bulb Temperature of Air Entering Cooling Coil
The humidity ratio of air is given by:
Humidity Ratio = Mass of Moisture / Mass of Dry Air
Mass of Moisture = Humidity Ratio × Mass of Dry Air
The Mass of Dry Air = Quantity of Air × Density of Air
Humidity Ratio = 0.009 kg/kg
Mass of Dry Air = 100 × 1.2 = 120 kg
Mass of Moisture = 0.009 × 120 = 1.08 kg
Hence, the Humidity Ratio of Air Entering Cooling Coil is 0.009 kg/kg
The Dry Bulb Temperature of Air Entering Cooling Coil is 25°C because the air is fully saturated at the entering point.
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Fick's first law gives the expression of diffusion flux (l) for a steady concentration gradient (Δc/ Δx) as: J=-D Δc/ Δx
Comparing the diffusion problem with electrical transport analogue; explain why the heat treatment process in materials processing has to be at high temperatures.
Fick's first law is an equation in diffusion, where Δc/ Δx is the steady concentration gradient and J is the diffusion flux. The equation is J=-D Δc/ Δx. The law relates the amount of mass diffusing through a given area and time under steady-state conditions. Diffusion refers to the transport of matter from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration.
The driving force for diffusion is the concentration gradient. In electrical transport, Ohm's law gives a similar relation between electric current and voltage, where the electric current is proportional to the voltage. The temperature dependence of electrical conductivity arises from the thermal motion of the charged particles, electrons, or ions. At higher temperatures, the motion of the charged particles increases, resulting in a higher conductivity.
Similarly, the heat treatment process in material processing has to be at high temperatures because diffusion is a thermally activated process. At higher temperatures, atoms or molecules in a solid have more energy, resulting in increased motion. The increased motion, in turn, increases the rate of diffusion. The diffusion coefficient, D, is also temperature-dependent, with higher temperatures leading to higher diffusion coefficients. Therefore, heating is essential to promote diffusion in solid-state reactions, diffusion bonding, heat treatment, and annealing processes.
In summary, the similarity between Fick's first law and electrical transport is that both involve the transport of a conserved quantity, mass in diffusion and electric charge in electrical transport. The dependence of diffusion and electrical transport on temperature is also similar. Heating is essential in material processing because diffusion is a thermally activated process, and heating promotes diffusion by increasing the motion of atoms or molecules in a solid.
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The illustration below shows the grain flow of a gear
tooth. What was the main manufacturing process used to create the
feature?
Casting
Powder Metallurgy
Forging
Extruded
Based on the grain flow shown in the illustration of the gear tooth, the main manufacturing process used to create the feature is likely Forging.
Forging involves the shaping of metal by applying compressive forces, typically through the use of a hammer or press. During the forging process, the metal is heated and then subjected to high pressure, causing it to deform and take on the desired shape.
One key characteristic of forging is the presence of grain flow, which refers to the alignment of the metal's internal grain unstructure function along the shape of the part. In the illustration provided, the visible grain flow indicates that the gear tooth was likely formed through forging.
Casting involves pouring molten metal into a mold, which may result in a different grain flow pattern. Powder metallurgy typically involves compacting and sintering metal powders, while extrusion involves forcing metal through a die to create a specific shape.
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In a health examination survey of a prefecture in Japan, the population was found to have an average fasting blood glucose level of 99.0 with a standard deviation of 12 (normally distributed). What is thie probability that an individual selected at random will have a blood sugar level reading between 80 & 110? a 0.7641 b 0.6147 c 0.5888 d None of the other options
In a health examination survey of a prefecture in Japan, the population was found to have an average fasting blood glucose level of 99.0 with a standard deviation of 12 (normally distributed).
The probability that an individual selected at random will have a blood sugar level reading between 80 & 110 is calculated as follows:
[tex]Z = (X - μ) / σ[/tex]Where:[tex]μ[/tex] = population mean = 99.0
standard deviation = [tex]12X1 = 80X2 = 110Z1 = (80 - 99) / 12 = -1.583Z2 = (110 - 99) / 12 = 0.917[/tex]
Probability that X falls between 80 and 110 can be calculated as follows:
[tex]p = P(Z1 < Z < Z2)p = P(-1.583 < Z < 0.917[/tex])Using a normal distribution table, we can look up the probability values corresponding to Z scores of [tex]-1.583 and 0.917.p[/tex] =[tex]P(Z < 0.917) - P(Z < -1.583)p = 0.8212 - 0.0571p = 0.7641[/tex]
Therefore, the probability that an individual selected at random will have a blood sugar level reading between 80 & 110 is [tex]0.7641[/tex].
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The minimum pressure on an object moving horizontally in water (Ttemperatu at10 degree centrigrade) at (x+5) mm/s (where x is the last two digits of your student 10) at a depth of 1 m is 80 kPa (absolute). Calculate the velocity that will initiate cavitation. Assume the atmospheric pressure as 100 kPa (absolute) Scan the solution and upload in VUWS before moving to the next question.
Given data: Minimum pressure on an object = 80 kPa (absolute)Velocity of an object = (x+5) mm/sDepth of an object = 1mTemperature = 10°CAtmospheric pressure = 100 kPa (absolute)
We know that the minimum pressure to initiate cavitation is given as:pc = pa - (pv)²/(2ρ)Where, pa = Atmospheric pressurepv = Vapour pressure of liquidρ = Density of liquidNow, the vapour pressure of water at 10°C is 1.223 kPa (absolute) and density of water at this temperature is 999.7 kg/m³.Substituting the values in the above equation, we get:80 = 100 - (pv)²/(2×999.7) => (pv)² = 39.706
Now, the velocity that will initiate cavitation is given as:pv = 0.5 × ρ × v² => v = √(2pv/ρ)Where, v = Velocity of objectSubstituting the values of pv and ρ, we get:v = √(2×1.223/999.7) => v = 1.110 m/sTherefore, the velocity that will initiate cavitation is 1.110 m/s.
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The torque constant of the motor is 0.12 Nm/A. What is the voltage across the motor armature as the motor rotates at 75 rad/s with a zero-torque load? Select one: a. 8 V b. 5 V c. 2 V d. None of these power
Given information Torque constant, k=0.12 Nm/Angular speed, ω=75 rad/sVoltage across the motor armature, V=?ExplanationThe electrical equation of a motor is given by E = KωWhere, E is the back EMF, K is the torque constant, and ω is the angular velocity of the motor.
Thus, V = EFor a zero-torque load, T = 0N.mThe mechanical power delivered by the motor is given byP = TωWe are given T = 0N.m,Therefore P = 0Thus, the electrical power input is also zero. Hence, the input voltage to the motor is the back EMF and it is given by V = EWe are given,K = 0.12 Nm/Aω = 75 rad/sThus, E = Kω= 0.12 x 75= 9 VTherefore, the voltage across the motor armature as the motor rotates at 75 rad/s with a zero-torque load is 9 V.Answer: 9 V.More than 120 words:
We know that the voltage across the motor armature as the motor rotates at 75 rad/s with a zero-torque load is given by V = E, where E is the back EMF. For a zero-torque load, T = 0N.m, the mechanical power delivered by the motor is given by P = Tω. We are given T = 0N.m, Therefore P = 0. Thus, the electrical power input is also zero. Hence, the input voltage to the motor is the back EMF and it is given by V = E. We are given K = 0.12 Nm/A and ω = 75 rad/s. Thus, E = Kω = 0.12 x 75 = 9 V. Therefore, the voltage across the motor armature as the motor rotates at 75 rad/s with a zero-torque load is 9 V.
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Air flows through a cylindrical duct at a rate of 2.3 kg/s. Friction between air and the duct and friction within air can be neglected. The diameter of the duct is 10cm and the air temperature and pressure at the inlet are T₁ = 450 K and P₁ = 200 kPa. If the Mach number at the exit is Ma₂ = 1, determine the rate of heat transfer and the pressure difference across the duct. The constant pressure specific heat of air is Cp 1.005 kJ/kg.K. The gas constant of air is R = 0.287 kJ/kg-K and assume k = 1.4.
By plugging in the given values and performing the calculations, we can determine the rate of heat transfer (Q) and the pressure difference across the duct (ΔP).
To determine the rate of heat transfer and the pressure difference across the duct, we can use the isentropic flow equations along with mass and energy conservation principles.
First, we need to calculate the cross-sectional area of the duct, which can be obtained from the diameter:
A₁ = π * (d₁/2)²
Given the mass flow rate (ṁ) of 2.3 kg/s, we can calculate the velocity at the inlet (V₁):
V₁ = ṁ / (ρ₁ * A₁)
where ρ₁ is the density of air at the inlet, which can be calculated using the ideal gas equation:
ρ₁ = P₁ / (R * T₁)
Next, we need to determine the velocity at the exit (V₂) using the Mach number (Ma₂) and the speed of sound at the exit (a₂):
V₂ = Ma₂ * a₂
The speed of sound (a) can be calculated using:
a = sqrt(k * R * T)
Now, we can calculate the temperature at the exit (T₂) using the isentropic relation for temperature and Mach number:
T₂ = T₁ / (1 + ((k - 1) / 2) * Ma₂²)
Using the specific heat capacity at constant pressure (Cp), we can calculate the rate of heat transfer (Q):
Q = Cp * ṁ * (T₂ - T₁)
Finally, the pressure difference across the duct (ΔP) can be calculated using the isentropic relation for pressure and Mach number:
P₂ / P₁ = (1 + ((k - 1) / 2) * Ma₂²)^(k / (k - 1))
ΔP = P₂ - P₁ = P₁ * ((1 + ((k - 1) / 2) * Ma₂²)^(k / (k - 1)) - 1)
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A jet of water 0.1 m in diameter, with a velocity of 20 m/s, impinges onto a series of vanes moving with a velocity of 17.5 m/s. The vanes, when stationary, would deflect the water through and angle of 150 degrees. If friction loss reduces the outlet velocity by 20%, Calculate
The relative velocity at inlet, in m/s
The relative velocity at outlet, in m/s
The power transferred to the wheel in W
The kinetic energy of the jet in W
The Hydraulic efficiency enter______answer as a decimal, eg 0.7 NOT 70%
Relative velocity at the inlet: 2.5 m/s
Relative velocity at the outlet: -1.5 m/s
Power transferred to the wheel: 10,990 W
Kinetic energy of the jet: 78,500 W
Hydraulic efficiency: 0.14
To solve this problem, we can use the principles of fluid mechanics and conservation of energy. Let's go step by step to find the required values.
1. Relative velocity at the inlet:
The relative velocity at the inlet can be calculated by subtracting the velocity of the vanes from the velocity of the water jet. Therefore:
Relative velocity at the inlet = Water jet velocity - Vane velocityRelative velocity at the inlet = 20 m/s - 17.5 m/sRelative velocity at the inlet = 2.5 m/s2. Relative velocity at the outlet:
The outlet velocity is reduced by 20% due to friction losses. Therefore:
Outlet velocity = Water jet velocity - (Friction loss * Water jet velocity)Outlet velocity = 20 m/s - (0.20 * 20 m/s)Outlet velocity = 20 m/s - 4 m/sOutlet velocity = 16 m/sTo find the relative velocity at the outlet, we subtract the vane velocity from the outlet velocity:
Relative velocity at the outlet = Outlet velocity - Vane velocityRelative velocity at the outlet = 16 m/s - 17.5 m/sRelative velocity at the outlet = -1.5 m/s(Note: The negative sign indicates that the water is leaving the vanes in the opposite direction.)
3. Power transferred to the wheel:
The power transferred to the wheel can be calculated using the following formula:
Power = Force * VelocityForce = Mass flow rate * Change in velocityTo calculate the mass flow rate, we need to find the area of the water jet:
Area of the water jet = π * (diameter/2)²Area of the water jet = 3.14 * (0.1 m/2)²Area of the water jet = 0.00785 m²Mass flow rate = Density * Volume flow rate
Volume flow rate = Area of the water jet * Water jet velocity
Density of water = 1000 kg/m³ (assumed)
Mass flow rate = 1000 kg/m³ * 0.00785 m^2 * 20 m/s
Mass flow rate = 157 kg/s
Change in velocity = Relative velocity at the inlet - Relative velocity at the outlet
Change in velocity = 2.5 m/s - (-1.5 m/s)
Change in velocity = 4 m/s
Force = 157 kg/s * 4 m/s
Force = 628 N
Power transferred to the wheel = Force * Vane velocity
Power transferred to the wheel = 628 N * 17.5 m/s
Power transferred to the wheel = 10,990 W (or 10.99 kW)
4. Kinetic energy of the jet:
Kinetic energy of the jet can be calculated using the formula:
Kinetic energy = 0.5 * Mass flow rate * Velocity²
Kinetic energy of the jet = 0.5 * 157 kg/s * (20 m/s)²
Kinetic energy of the jet = 78,500 W (or 78.5 kW)
5. Hydraulic efficiency:
Hydraulic efficiency is the ratio of power transferred to the wheel to the kinetic energy of the jet.
Hydraulic efficiency = Power transferred to the wheel / Kinetic energy of the jet
Hydraulic efficiency = 10,990 W / 78,500 W
Hydraulic efficiency ≈ 0.14
Therefore, the answers are:
Relative velocity at the inlet: 2.5 m/sRelative velocity at the outlet: -1.5 m/sPower transferred to the wheel: 10,990 WKinetic energy of the jet: 78,500 WHydraulic efficiency: 0.14Learn more about Kinetic Energy: https://brainly.com/question/8101588
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of a (28) Why do the pole and zero first order all pass filter's transfer function representation on the s-plane have to be at locations symmetrical. with respect to the jw axis (that is the vertical axis of s-plane)? Explain.
Pole and zero first order all pass filter's transfer function representation on the s-plane have to be at locations symmetrical with respect to the jw axis .
Given,
Poles and zeroes of first order all pass filter .
Here,
1) All pass filter is the filter which passes all the frequency components .
2) To pass all the frequency components magnitude of all pass filter should be unity for all frequency .
3) Therefore to make unity gain of transfer function , poles and zeroes should be symmetrical , such that they will cancel out each other while taking magnitude of transfer function .
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2. A punching press makes 25 holes of 20 mm diameter per minute in a plate 15 mm thick. This causes variation in the speed of flywheel attached to press from 240 to 220 rpm. The punching operation takes 2 seconds per hole. Assuming 6 Nm of work is required to shear 1 mm2 of the area and frictional losses account for 15% of the work supplied for punching, determine (a) the power required to operate the punching press, and (b) the mass of flywheel with radius of gyration of 0.5 m.
(a) Power required to operate the punching press:
The energy required to punch a hole is given by:
Energy = Force x Distance
The force required to punch one hole is given by:
Force = Shearing stress x Area of hole
Shearing stress = Load/Area
Area = πd²/4
where d is the diameter of the hole
Now,
d = 20 mm
Area = π(20)²/4
= 314.16 mm²
Area in m² = 3.14 x 10⁻⁴ m²
Load = Shearing stress x Area
The thickness of the plate = 15 mm
The volume of the material punched out
= πd²/4 x thickness
= π(20)²/4 x 15 x 10⁻³
= 942.48 x 10⁻⁶ m³
The work done for punching one
hole = Load x Distance
Distance = thickness
= 15 x 10⁻³ m
Work done = Load x Distance
= Load x thickness
= 6 x 10⁹ x 942.48 x 10⁻⁶
= 5.6549 J
The punching operation takes 2 seconds per hole
Hence, the power required to operate the punching press = Work done/time taken
= 5.6549/2
= 2.8275 W
Therefore, the power required to operate the punching press is 2.8275 W.
(b) Mass of flywheel with the radius of gyration of 0.5 m:
Frictional losses account for 15% of the work supplied for punching.
Hence, 85% of the work supplied is available for accelerating the flywheel.
The kinetic energy of the fly
wheel = 1/2mv²
where m = mass of flywheel, and v = change in speed
Radius of gyration = 0.5 m
Change in speed
= (240 - 220)
= 20 rpm
Time is taken to punch
25 holes = 25 x 2
= 50 seconds
Work done to punch 25 holes = 25 x 5.6549
= 141.3725 J
Work done in accelerating flywheel = 85% of 141.3725
= 120.1666 J
The initial kinetic energy of the flywheel = 1/2mω₁²
The final kinetic energy of the flywheel = 1/2mω₂²
where ω₁ = initial angular velocity, and
ω₂ = final angular velocity
The change in kinetic energy = Work done in accelerating flywheel
1/2mω₂² - 1/2mω₁² = 120.1666ω₂² - ω₁² = 240.3333 ...(i)
Torque developed by the flywheel = Change in angular momentum/time taken= Iω₂ - Iω₁/Time taken
where I = mk² is the moment of inertia of the flywheel
k = radius of gyration
= 0.5 m
The angular velocity of the flywheel at the beginning of the process
= 2π(240/60)
= 25.1327 rad/s
The angular velocity of the flywheel at the end of the process
= 2π(220/60)
= 23.0319 rad/s
The time taken to punch
25 holes = 50 seconds
Now,
I = mk²
= m(0.5)²
= 0.25m
Let T be the torque developed by the flywheel.
T = (Iω₂ - Iω₁)/Time taken
T = (0.25m(23.0319) - 0.25m(25.1327))/50
T = -0.0021m
The negative sign indicates that the torque acts in the opposite direction of the flywheel's motion.
Now, the work done in accelerating the flywheel
= Tθ
= T x 2π
= -0.0132m Joules
Hence, work done in accelerating the flywheel
= 120.1666 Joules-0.0132m
= 120.1666Jm
= 120.1666/-0.0132
= 9103.35 g
≈ 9.1 kg
Therefore, the mass of the flywheel with radius of gyration of 0.5 m is 9.1 kg.
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A Wheatstone bridge requires a change of 7 ohm in the unknown arm of the bridge to produce a deflection of three millimeter at the galvanometer scale. Determine the sensitivity and the deflection factor. [E 2.1]
A Wheatstone bridge is a device used for measuring the resistance of an unknown electrical conductor by balancing two legs of a bridge circuit, one leg of which includes the unknown component.
This is accomplished by adjusting the value of a third leg of the circuit until no current flows through the galvanometer, which is connected between the two sides of the bridge that are not the unknown resistance. The galvanometer is a sensitive device that detects small differences in electrical potential.
A change of 7 ohm in the unknown arm of the bridge produces a deflection of three millimeter at the galvanometer scale. The sensitivity of a Wheatstone bridge is defined as the change in resistance required to produce a full-scale deflection of the galvanometer.
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Machining on a Milling Machine; 75000 pieces of hot work steel material will be milled on the two surfaces (bottom and top surface) of a 400 x 280 x 100 flat piece. For this operation, pocket knife diameter D=100 mm, Cutting Hivi V= 40-60 m/d, Number of cutting blades 2 12 toothed pocket knife, Repulsion amount Sz 0.3
mm. Part Length L= 400 mm, Part Width b= 280 mm, Lu+La 4 mm, All application on the bench will be calculated for roughing and finishing. According to these given;
a) Number of Revolutions?
b) what is the feedrate?
c) Number of passes?
d) What is the table travel length?
e) Total machining time for a part?
f) 75,000. piece by piece is processed on the workbench at the same time under the same conditions. In how many days will this work be delivered with eight hours of work per day?
g) What should the processing sequence be like? Write.
h) Write down the hardware time?
Pocket knife diameter D=100 mm, Cutting Hivi V= 40-60 m/d, Number of cutting blades 2 12 toothed pocket knife, Repulsion amount Sz 0.3 mm.
Part Length L= 400 mm,
Part Width b= 280 mm
Lu+La 4 mm.owance) ÷ (Cutter diameter - Cutter repulsion)
Number of Passes = [tex](400 + 4) ÷ (100 - 0.3)[/tex]
Table travel length = (Part dimension perpendicular to cutting direction + Allowance) ÷ sin(Cutter slope angle)
Let's substitute the given values.
Table travel length =[tex](280 + 4) ÷ sin (90° - 60°) = 288.03 ≈ 289 mm[/tex]
Total machining time for a part =[tex]{(5 × 289) ÷ 0.2244} × 60 = 3,660 minutes ≈ 61 hours[/tex]
In 1 hour, 1 part is manufactured. So, to manufacture 75000 parts;
Total time required =[tex]75000 × 61 = 4,575,000 minutes ≈ 8,438 days ≈ 23.1 years[/tex]
Given that the cutting speed = 40-60 m/d
Let's assume that the cutting speed is at the lowest range of the given data that is 40 m/d.
The diameter of the cutter = 100mm.
[tex]Cutting Time = {(400 × 5) ÷ (40 × 100)} × 60 = 30 minutes[/tex]
The non-cutting time can be calculated as,
Non-cutting time = Total machining time for a part - Cutting time
= 61 - 30 = 31 minutes.
So, the hardware time will be;
Hardware Time = Cutting time + Non-cutting time = [tex]30 + 31 = 61[/tex] minutes.
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45 MPa with a critical stress intensity factor 30 : A steel plate has 20mm thick has a dimensions of 1x1m loaded in a Question 5 tensile stress in longitudinal direction MPa. a crack of length of 30mm at one edge is discovered Estimate the magnitude of maximum tensile stress at which failure will occur?
Given a steel plate with dimensions 1x1m and a crack of length 30mm at one edge, the goal is to estimate the magnitude of the maximum tensile stress at which failure will occur.
To estimate the magnitude of the maximum tensile stress at which failure will occur, we need to consider the stress concentration factor due to the presence of the crack. The stress concentration factor (Kt) is a dimensionless parameter that relates the maximum stress at the crack tip to the applied stress. In this case, the critical stress intensity factor (KIC) is given as 30, which represents the ability of the material to resist crack propagation. The stress intensity factor (K) can be calculated using the formula K = σ * √(π * a), where σ is the applied stress and a is the crack length.
Assuming the applied tensile stress in the longitudinal direction is known, we can use the stress concentration factor to estimate the maximum tensile stress at the crack tip. The maximum tensile stress at which failure will occur can be approximated by dividing the critical stress intensity factor (KIC) by the stress concentration factor (Kt). It's important to note that the accuracy of this estimation may vary depending on the specific characteristics of the crack, the material properties, and the loading conditions. Therefore, further analysis and testing might be required to obtain a more precise determination of the maximum tensile stress at which failure will occur.
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A rubber ball (see figure) is inflated to a pressure of 66kPa. (a) Determine the maximum stress (in MPa) and strain in the ball. (Use the deformation sign convention.) σmax=yPaεmax= (b) If the strain must be limited to 0.417, find the minimum required wall thickness of the ball (in mm). mm
The maximum stress σmax and strain εmax in a rubber ball can be calculated as follows:Maximum Stress σmax= yPaMaximum Strain εmax= P/ywhere y is the Young's modulus of rubber and P is the gauge pressure of the ball.
Here, y is given to be 5.0 × 10^8 Pa and P is given to be 66 kPa (= 66,000 Pa).Therefore,Maximum Stress σmax
= (5.0 × 10^8 Pa) × (66,000 Pa)
= 3.3 × 10^11 Pa
= 330 MPaMaximum Strain εmax
= (66,000 Pa) / (5.0 × 10^8 Pa)
= 0.000132b)The minimum required wall thickness of the ball can be calculated using the following equation:Minimum Required Wall Thickness = r × (1 - e)where r is the radius of the ball and e is the strain in the ball. Here, the strain is given to be 0.417 and the radius can be calculated from the volume of the ball.Volume of the Ball = (4/3)πr³where r is the radius of the ball. Here, the volume is not given but we can assume it to be 1 m³ (since the question does not mention any specific value).
Therefore,1 m³ = (4/3)πr³r³
= (1 m³) / [(4/3)π]r
= 0.6204 m (approx.)Therefore,Minimum Required Wall Thickness
= (0.6204 m) × (1 - 0.417)
= 0.3646 m
= 364.6 mm (approx.)Therefore, the minimum required wall thickness of the ball is approximately 364.6 mm.
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A conical tube is fixed vertically with its smaller end upwards and it forms a part of pipeline. The velocity at the smaller end is 4.5 m/s and at the large end 1.5 m/s. Length of conical tube is 1.5 m. The pressure at the upper end is equivalent to a head of 10 m of water. (i) Neglecting friction, determine the pressure at the lower end of the tube.
Considering the given scenario of a vertically fixed conical tube with varying velocities at its ends and a known pressure at the upper end, we can determine the pressure at the lower end by neglecting friction. The calculated value for the pressure at the lower end is missing.
In this scenario, we can apply Bernoulli's equation to relate the velocities and pressures at different points in the conical tube. Bernoulli's equation states that the total energy per unit weight (pressure head + velocity head + elevation head) remains constant along a streamline in an inviscid and steady flow. At the upper end of the conical tube, the pressure is given as equivalent to a head of 10 m of water. Let's denote this pressure as P1. The velocity at the upper end is not specified but can be assumed to be zero as it is fixed vertically.
At the lower end of the conical tube, the velocity is given as 1.5 m/s. Let's denote this velocity as V2. We need to determine the pressure at this point, denoted as P2. Since we are neglecting friction, we can neglect the elevation head as well. Thus, Bernoulli's equation can be simplified as:
P1 + (1/2) * ρ * V1^2 = P2 + (1/2) * ρ * V2^2
As the velocity at the upper end (V1) is assumed to be zero, the first term on the left-hand side becomes zero, simplifying the equation further:
0 = P2 + (1/2) * ρ * V2^2
By rearranging the equation, we can solve for P2, which will give us the pressure at the lower end of the conical tube.
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A closed system initially contains 2 kg of air at 40°C and 2 bar. Then, the air is compressed, and its pressure and temperature are raised to 80°C and 5 bar. Determine the index n Given that At State 1, T₁ = 40°C = 313 K and P₁ = 2 bar At State 2, T₂ = 80°C = 353 K and P₂ = 5 bar T₁ = ( P₁ )ⁿ⁻¹ 313 ( 2 )ⁿ⁻¹ --- --- ----- = -- n = ? T₂ P₂ 353 5
Given,Initial state of the system, T1 = 40 °C
= 313 K and
P1 = 2 bar. Final state of the system,
T2 = 80 °C
= 353 K and
P2 = 5 bar.
T1 = P1(n-1) / (P2 / T2)n
= [ T1 * (P2 / P1) ] / [T2 + (n-1) * T1 * (P2 / P1) ]n
= [ 313 * (5 / 2) ] / [ 353 + (n-1) * 313 * (5 / 2)]n
= 2.1884approx n = 2.19 (approximately)
Therefore, the index n of the system is 2.19 (approx). Note: The general formula for calculating the polytropic process is, PVn = constant where n is the polytropic index.
If n = 0, the process is isobaric;
If n = ∞, the process is isochoric.
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Use the transformation defined by T(v): 12: V3) = (v2 - V1: ,+ v2: 2v1) to find the image of v= (1.4.0) a.(-3, 5, 2) . b.(-3,5,8) O c. (5,3, 2) O d. (3, 5, 2) O e.(3,5,8)
Based on the calculations, the correct answer is d) (3, 5, 2) .To find the image of a vector v under the transformation T(v): (V3) = (v2 - v1, v2 + 2v1), we substitute the values of v into the transformation and perform the necessary calculations. Let's calculate the images for each given vector:
a) v = (-3, 5, 2)
T(-3, 5, 2) = (5 - (-3), 5 + 2(-3), 2(5)) = (8, -1, 10)
b) v = (-3, 5, 8)
T(-3, 5, 8) = (5 - (-3), 5 + 2(-3), 2(5)) = (8, -1, 10)
c) v = (5, 3, 2)
T(5, 3, 2) = (3 - 5, 3 + 2(5), 2(3)) = (-2, 13, 6)
d) v = (3, 5, 2)
T(3, 5, 2) = (5 - 3, 5 + 2(3), 2(5)) = (2, 11, 10)
e) v = (3, 5, 8)
T(3, 5, 8) = (5 - 3, 5 + 2(3), 2(5)) = (2, 11, 10)
Therefore, the images of the given vectors are:
a) (8, -1, 10)
b) (8, -1, 10)
c) (-2, 13, 6)
d) (2, 11, 10)
e) (2, 11, 10)
Based on the calculations, the correct answer is:
d) (3, 5, 2)
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A basketball has a 300-mm outer diameter and a 3-mm wall thickness. It is inflated to a 120 kPa gauge pressure. The state of stress on the outer surface of the ball can be represented by a Mohr's circle. Which of the following options is true? Choose only one option. a The Mohr's circle representing the state of stress on the outer surface of the ball is a sphere with the same diameter to the basketball. b The Mohr's circle representing the state of stress on the outer surface of the ball is a point (i.e. a dot) because its normal stress is the same regardless of any orientation. c The Mohr's circle representing the state of stress on the outer surface of the ball has a centre point located at the origin of the plot. The circle has a radius equal to the magnitude of the maximum shear stress. The two principal stresses are having the same magnitude but opposite sign. This is because the ball has spherical symmetry. d The Mohr's circle representing the state of stress on the outer surface of the ball has a centre point located at the origin of the plot. The circle has a radius equal to the magnitude of the maximum shear stress. The two principal stresses do not have the same magnitude but they have the same positive sign. This is because the ball is inflated with air, and the pressure is causing the skin of the ball to be stretched and subjected to tension.
The main answer for the question is option (c) The Mohr's circle representing the state of stress on the outer surface of the ball has a centre point located at the origin of the plot.
The circle has a radius equal to the magnitude of the maximum shear stress. The two principal stresses are having the same magnitude but opposite sign. This is because the ball has spherical symmetry. Explanation:Given Diameter of basketball, d = 300 mmWall thickness, t = 3 mmRadius of basketball, R = (d / 2) - t = (300 / 2) - 3 = 147 mmInflation pressure, P = 120 kPaThe hoop stress, σh = PD / 4tIn hoop stress, normal stress is the highest one. It is equal to the hoop stress.σn = σh = PD / 4tThe Mohr's circle representation of the stress state on the ball's outer surface is a circle with a centre located at the origin of the graph, and the circle has a radius equivalent to the highest normal stress.
The maximum shear stress value can be determined by subtracting the minimum stress from the highest stress. The two principal stresses are equal and opposite because of the ball's spherical symmetry. Thus, option (c) is correct.
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