Assume the company is considering investing in a new machine that will increase its fixed costs by $42,500 per year and decrease its variable costs by $10 per unit. Prepare a forecasted contribution margin income statement for 2020 assuming the company purchases this machine.

Answer:

im sorry

Explanation:

Answer:

$68.64

Explanation:

Div₁ = $4

Div₂ = $5

Div₃ = $6.25

Div₄ = $6.5625

the terminal value at year 3 = Div₄ / (Re - g) = $6.5625 / (13% - 5%) = $82.03

P₀ = $4/1.13 + $5/1.13² + ($6.25 + $82.03)/1.13³ = $88.28/1.13³ = $68.64

Answer and Explanation:

A. The point estimate of individuals that would provide yes responses is the sample proportion. The sample proportion is calculated by dividing number of yes responses by sample size:

p = x/n = 200/700= 0.2857

B. The standard error of the population is the square root of the product of the point estimate and it's complement divided by the sample size given by

√p(1-p)/n

=√0.2857(1-0.2857)/700= 0.0170

C. For confidence level 95%, z score is calculated 1-0.95= 0.05/2= 0.025

Z score checked under the table = 1.96

Boundaries=

P-1.96 *standard error and p+1.96 *standard error

= 0.2857-1.96*0.0170= -0.25238

=0.2857+1.96*0.0170= 0.31902

Note : BODMAS demands we multiply first in the above calculation before subtraction or addition.

Answer: size of alum's donation to the annual fund is the response variable

Explanation:

Considering the annual income is a good predictor of the amount of money he or she would be willing to donate, and there is a reasonably strong, then the study indicated that the size of alum's donation to the annual fund is the response variable

Answer:

A. Pre-employment condition

Explanation:

The answer is A. because if the testing is a requirement for getting the job then you know beforehand. You're aware of this requirement before they employ you so it's not breaching your privacy rights.

Answer:

a

Explanation:

The company can allow whoever they want into the company and it is their choice to test their employees for drugs.

Answer: a. passive management by exception

Explanation:

Even though this might sound like it is laissez-faire leadership, it is not.

This is a passive management by exception leadership style and a leader that does this is usually inactive and absent from their duties unless mistakes are being made or crisis are popping up that need to be fixed. They will then spring into action to mitigate the adverse effects of their absence.

This is different from laissez-faire leadership because in laissez-faire, the leader is simply absent even during crisis.

Based on the given statement, it is the passive management by exception that leader by Naomi.

The following information should be considered related to the  passive management by exception :

Therefore we can conclude that the correct option is a.

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Answer:

An e-mail rule memo like this work better as an innovation-driven company such as Tesla rather than at a manufacturing-driven company such as General Motors is discussed below in details.

Explanation:

The general motor is a very large business in each department with numerous tiers of hierarchy. then departments of the hierarchy are likely to report each other. the company's overall structure is very bureaucratized. one of the disadvantages is that when it comes to decision making and policymaking. General Motors are a slow-moving business. However, this bureaucracy is required by the big organizational structure to keep it together.

Tesla is a business that is younger and relatively lower than General motors because of this general motor funds are likely to be lacking but they are agile and that is their benefit.

An e-mail rule is a rule that determines the better way to mail the messages formally or informally. Tesla is a business that is younger and relatively lower than General motors because of this general motor funds are likely to be lacking but they are agile and that is their benefit.  

The reason e-mail rule memo works better as compared to innovation-driven is:

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Answer:

c) Credit to Cash for $242

Explanation:

Petty cash, beginning = $300

Delivery expense = $53

Merchandise inventory = $167

Miscellaneous expense = $22

Petty cash, Ending = $58

The journal to record the reimbursement of the accounts will be:

Event    Account Title and Explanation   Debit    Credit

1           Delivery expense                            $53  

           Merchandise inventory                   $167  

           Miscellaneous expense                  $22

                    Cash                                                   $242

Answer:

10.50%

Explanation:

Calculation for Magee's required return

Using this formula

Required return=Risk-free rate+Beta(Market risk premium)

Let plug in the formula

Required return= 4.50% + 1.20(5.00%) .

Required return=4.50%+6%

Required return= 10.50%

Therefore Magee's required return will beb10.50%

Answer:

1.

Portfolio Beta = 1.225 rounded off to 1.23

Option e is the correct answer.

2.

r = 0.13338 or 13.338% rounded off to 13.34%

Explanation:

1.

The portfolio beta is a function of the weighted average of the individual stocks' betas that form up the portfolio. To calculate the beta of a portfolio, we use the following formula,

Portfolio Beta = wA * Beta of A  +  wB * Beta of B  + ... + wN * Beta of N

Where,

w is the weight of each stock

Portfolio Beta = 0.21 * 0.66  +  0.34 * 1.21  +  0.45 * 1.5

Portfolio Beta = 1.225 rounded off to 1.23

2.

Using the CAPM, we can calculate the required rate of return on a stock. This is the minimum return required by the investors to invest in a stock based on its systematic risk, the market's risk premium and the risk free rate.

The formula for required rate of return under CAPM is,

r = rRF + Beta * (rM - rRF)

Where,

rRF is the risk free rate

rM is the market return

r = 0.037  +  1.22 * (0.116 - 0.037)

r = 0.13338 or 13.338% rounded off to 13.34%

Answer:

MIRR = 17%

Explanation:

The computation of the MIRR of a project is shown below:

Year Cash flows ( in $)

0       -850

1        300

2       320

3       340

4       360

WACC 12.25%

MIRR 17%

We simply applied the MIRR over the excel

We simply applied the attached formula so that the correct percentage could come

And, the same is to be considered

Answer: D. Project team

Explanation:

The project team is responsible for executing the project plan and creating the project deliverables. They are also in charge of contributing to the success of the project by making sure that the project objectives are achieved.

Each team mate has a specific role that he or she is assigned and the team should execute the tasks assigned to them successfully.

Answer:

c) $100,000

Explanation:

Number of shares originally issued   60,000

Less: Number of shares reacquired  (10,000)

Outstanding number of shares          50,000

Dividends per share declared            $2        

Total dividends declares                   $100,000 (50,000 shares * $2)

Answer:

True

Explanation:

I took the test and this is the right answer. :-)

Answer:

a. $1,320.88

b.  $1,182.19

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

a. For market value of the bond

Given that

Rate = 9%

NPER = 10

PMT = $1,000 * 14% = $140

FV = $1,000

The formula is shown below:

= -PV(RATE;NPER;PMT;FV;TYPE)

After applying the above formula, the present value is $1,320.88 i.e. equivalent to the market value of the bonds

b. Now the net price be

= Market price × (1 - flotation cost)

= $1,320.88 × (1 - 0.105)

= $1,182.19

Answer:

The correct option is b. Spending variance.

Explanation:

Spending variance can be described as the difference between the actual cost and budgeted cost at the actual activity level.

Since cost of goods sold (COGS) is the direct costs incurred to produce the goods that is sold by a firm, it therefore implies that the amount of variance in cost of goods sold can be determined by comparing the actual results and the flexible budget at the actual activity level or actual units.

Based on the explanation above, the correct option is b. Spending variance. That is, Spending variance is an unfavorable variance of $5,000 in cost of goods sold is determined by comparing the actual results (10,000 units) and the flexible budget (10,000 units).

Answer and Explanation:

The computation of the equivalent taxable yield is shown below:

For zero = 4.50%

For 10% =  4.50 ÷ 0.90 = 5%

For 20% =  4.50 ÷ 0.80 = 5.625%

For 30% =  4.50 ÷ 0.70 = 6.43%

For 10%, for 20% and for 30% it would reduced the tax brackets by the same

like

for 10%

= 1 - 0.10

= 0.90

The Same applied for other ones

Therefore the above should be the answer

Answer:

a

Explanation:

In a monopolistically competitive industry, price is most likely a bit higher than the competitive market price because of the cost of variety.

In a monopolistically competitive market, firms tend to set their prices to be higher than those of the marginal cost. This invariably translates to the fact that market is never really able to be productively efficient.

Firms in monopolistically competitive markets tend to wield the same power, since they're all price makers, they have a low degree of market power.

Answer:

C

Explanation:

In as much as these are the only options given, then there has to be an answer there. Even though I fancy there being another answer.

But I'd say, the closest to the reason from the aforelisted is that the employees were underpaid. Since the advent of machineries, truth is that there wasn't going to be need for employees. This is because machines tend to have a much better output, better efficiency and won't need to be paid monthly in wages.

Since there isn't need for employees again, the industrialist tend to underpay the employees because they don't see their useful in the first instance

The rise of the use of machine is on the increase. The best explanation as to how the rise of machinery created an unfriendly relationship between industrialists and their employees is the employees were underpaid.

The industrialists did treat their workers bad.  They make sure to keep wages as low as ever. Their attitude towards their employee was like if employee did not like the pay, the long hours and other working conditions he could quit and go to other places.

They were super-rich, living in great homes, living life lavishly abut their employees were paid little sum as if they do not have any choice.

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Answer: a natural hedge

Explanation:

Natural hedge is simply a strategy that is used by a company in order to reduce risk and this is done through the investment in the assets that their performance is not positively correlated.

Such companies typically makes revenue in the currency of another country. Since the firm decides to hedge the yen exposure by finding a supplier in Japan and paying for these imports in yen, this hedging strategy is known as natural hedge.

Answer:

optimal capital structure

Explanation:

optimal capital structure can be regarded as a combination of

of debt and equity financing which brings about maximization of amarket value in a firm. It should be noted that optimal capital structure is the combination of debt financing and equity financing that maximizes a firm's value.

Answer:

Net operating cash flow = $189,250

Explanation:

Particulars                                    Amount$

Net income                                    250,000

Add:depreciation expense           9,500

Add:loss on sale of asset              1,250

Add:increase in salary payable    19,500

Less:increase in prepaid rent       (27,500)

Add:increase in AP                        29,500

Less:increase in inventory            (93,000)

Net operating cash flow              $189,250

Answer:

a) true

Explanation:

Costs that can be traced to a cost object in a cost-effective way are called direct costs. Sometimes they can literally be seen on the cost object by observation. For example the wood on the table.

Answer:

Stenson, Inc.

The payback period for each project is:

Project A = 3 years

Project B = 4 years

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Year            Cash Flow A        Cash Flow B

0                  –$ 64,000           –$ 109,000

1                        26,500                  28,500

2                       34,400                   33,500

3                       28,500                  25,500

4                        14,500                 231,000

Total inflow  $103,900               $318,500

b) The payback period is the time when the cash outflow is recouped.  For project A, the payback period occurs in year 3.  For project B, the payback period occurs in year 4.  Based on the company's cutoff of three years, Project B may not be accepted even with its large cash inflow in year 4.  Therefore, the best decision will be to discount the cash inflows with a suitable rate of interest.  This will help Stenson, Inc. to decide between accepting Project A or Project B.

Answer:A

Explanation:

Answer: c. Incremental

Explanation:

Simply put incremental cashflow is the additional cashflow that accrues to a company when it takes on a new project. The Multinational company should therefore consider this when they are accepting a project.

If the new project has a positive incremental cashflow, it will add to the cashflows of the company and so should be initiated as opposed to those with negative incremental cashflows.

Answer:

b) internal rate of return will exceed its required rate of return.

Explanation:

The internal rate of return is the discount rate at which the NPV = 0. If the NPV is positive when calculated using the project's discount rate, then the IRR is going to be higher than the discount rate.

Option A is wrong because the profitability index (PI) of a project is calculated by dividing the present value of its cash flows by its cost. If the NPV is positive, it means that the present value of its cash flows will be greater than the costs, so the pI will be more than 1.

Option C is wrong because if the costs exceed the benefits, then the NPV will be negative.

Option D is wrong because that would mean that the NPV is negative.  

Option E is something made up that doesn't make any sense.

Answer:

The stock's arithmetic average is:

90.33%.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Returns over three consecutive years:

Year 1 =   85%

Year 2 =  58%

Year 3 = 128%

Total returns = 271%

Average = Total returns divided by number of years

= 271/3

= 90.333

=90.33%

b) The arithmetic average is the total returns divided by the number of years involved.  This implies that we find the average or the mean by adding up some pieces of data together and dividing by the number of the pieces of data.

Answer:

7%

CAPM = 1% + [6% - 1%](1.2) = 1% + 6% = 7%