Asexual reproduction produces genetically identical individuals because either no meiosis or fertilization takes place. Chlorophyll-a is not an accessory pigment for photosynthesis.
So, the correct options are C &D.
The diploid number is 32 if the haploid number of chromosomes in an organism is given to be 16. Gametes like sperm and eggs are typically haploid cells, whereas somatic cells and the zygote have a diploid number. The organism will have exactly 32 diploid chromosomes if its haploid chromosome count is 16, which is exactly double the haploid count.
Children born through asexual reproduction have a single parent's genetic makeup as their parents. The genetic makeup of each child is unique thanks to the genetic contributions of both parents in sexual reproduction. Due to the benefits and drawbacks of both sexual and asexual reproduction, some organisms engage in both types of reproduction.
There are several pigments found in a chloroplast, including chlorophyll a, chlorophyll b, carotene, and xanthophyll. The only one of these that can directly take part in photosynthesis is chlorophyll a. Chlorophyll receives the light energy that all other pigments absorb.
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you find 10 mutants, and want to investigate them further. you wonder if a complementation test will help you determine how many unique genes have been mutated in these 10 mutants. first, you cross mutant one with a wild-type, and you see that the phenotype of the offspring is mutant. from this, you can conclude that complementation tests will definitely not work to help you answer your question.
A single wild type phenotype exhibits numerous mutations. Whether any of mutations affect just one gene, or if each mutation affects one of many genes required for expression of a phenotype.
The complementation test is the simplest way to separate the two possibilities. The test is straightforward to carry out; two mutants are crossed, and the F1 generation is examined. We infer that each mutation is in one of the two potential genes required for the wild type phenotype if the F1 exhibits the wild type phenotype. Alternatively, if the F1 exhibits a mutant phenotype rather than the wild-type phenotype, we infer that the two mutations are present in the same gene.
The mutant allele of gene A and the wild type allele of gene B, each supplied by one of the mutant parents, will both be expressed in the F1 when it is born. The F1 will also express the wild-type allele for gene A and the mutant allele for gene B provided by the other mutant parent. The wild type phenotype is shown because the F1 is expressing both of the required wild type alleles. A mutant form of the gene will be expressed by each homolog in the F1 if the mutations are in the same gene, on the other hand. A mutant phenotype develops in the absence of a normally functioning gene product in the individual.
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phagocytosis begins with the recognition of pathogens by the phagocyte. this can occur through recognition of pamps by prrs. a good example of a pamp would be:
It is true that phagocytes have evolved specialized molecules known as pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) that directly interact with PAMPs, allowing them to engage with pathogens swiftly and efficiently.
Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs) are proteins that can recognize compounds contained in infections (known as Pathogen-Associated Molecular Patterns-PAMPs) or molecules produced by injured cells. They are considered an innate immune system component because they arose phylogenetically prior to the formation of adaptive immunity. Pathogen-associated molecular patterns are recognized by pathogen recognition receptors, a class of germ line-encoded receptors.
Hence, pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) are genetically inbuilt to work against pathogens.
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Full Question :Phagocytes interact speedily and effectively with pathogens because they have evolved specialized molecules called pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) that interact directly with PAMPs. True/false.
Our eyes detect light that lies only within a small region of the electromagnetic spectrum. This region is called visible light. Which of these statements describes the visible spectrum of light as seen by the human eye?.
The visible spectrum of light, as perceived by the human eye, can be described by the adage that the lowest frequency appears red and the highest frequency appears violet. The region of the electromagnetic spectrum that the human eye can see is known as the visible light spectrum.
Humans can see wavelengths between 380 and 700 nanometers (nm). Additionally, the visible light spectrum's frequency is represented by the color. Violet light has the greatest frequencies and the shortest wavelengths, while red light has the lowest frequencies and the longest wavelengths (620-750 nm) (380–450 nm). The statement the lowest frequency appears red, and the highest frequency appears violet sums up how the human eye perceives the visible spectrum of light. Together, the human eye and brain transform the energy of visible light into an electrical impulse that the brain can decipher as an image. The cornea, iris, and pupil aid light entry into the eye's lens when concentrating on an object. The projection of the image on the retina at the rear of the eye is made possible by the lens's ability to bend light, which flips the image.
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species richness is only one measure of biodiversity for a community, but it is frequently used. can you think of any shortcomings or assumptions of assigning conservation priorities to various locations based on species richness estimates?
Biodiversity counts the number of distinct species that exist in a given area. It includes all living things and includes a wide range of life. Each species is crucial to preserving the ecological balance.
The quantity of species in a community is known as its species richness. The more complex concept of species diversity takes into account both the number of species present in a community and the abundance of each species. An index, such as Shannon's Index H', is typically used to describe species diversity.
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As blood glucose levels increase, hormones are released to return glucose levels to normal. This is an example of.
Blood glucose (blood sugar) should be kept in a very specific range by the human body. These two hormones, insulin and glucagon, are responsible for this. Both glucagon and insulin are considered pancreatic endocrine hormones since they are both released by the pancreas.
What hormone triggers a return to normal blood sugar levels?Together with the hormone insulin, glucagon regulates blood sugar levels and helps to maintain target ranges. Insulin is released to prevent blood sugar levels from increasing too high while glucagon is released to prevent blood sugar levels from falling too low (hypoglycemia).
What happens to blood sugar and hormone levels after eating?The blood glucose levels fall four to six hours after a meal. This stimulates the pancreatic. glucagon production. This hormone instructs the muscles in your body to release the stored glycogen and turn it back into glucose.
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during starvation, group of answer choices structural proteins cannot be used as a potential energy source. carbohydrate utilization increases. circulating ketone bodies decrease. gluconeogenesis increases. all of these answers are correct.
During prolonged starvation, the principal source of glucose is gluconeogenesis from amino acids arising from muscle proteolysis.
What happens during starvation?Animals, including humans, activate a complex set of hormonal and metabolic adaptations that allow them to survive protracted periods of famine. The brain can only use glucose or ketone bodies as respiratory fuel. Gluconeogenesis from amino acids derived from muscle proteolysis is principal source of glucose during the extended fasting. To spare glucose utilization (and thus spare muscle protein) most tissues of the body utilize fat-derived fuels (fatty acid and ketone bodies) . As famine advances ketone bodies also become the predominant fuel of the brain, again reducing the demand for glucose. High quantities of ketone bodies result in substantial ketonuria with ketones excreted as ammonium salts. The ammonia is produced by the kidney's breakdown of glutamine, with the carbon skeleton returned as glucose. During extended famine, this well-organized metabolic rhythm ensures a continuous fuel supply to the brain and other tissues.
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the infection of cells by the human immunodeficiency virus (hiv) requires the virus to bind to the cell surface molecule cd3 and a second coreceptor molecule, ccr5 or cxcr4. in scandinavian populations a mutation in ccr5 results in functional loss of ccr5 expression and exists at an allelic frequency of about 10 to 18 percent. homozygous loss-of-function carriers are protected from infection by hiv strains that bind ccr5, and this mutation is also believed to have been protective against smallpox infection. this ccr5 mutation is evidence that mutations
The two kinds of HIV resistance that exist are caused by a genetic variation called CCR5-delta 32. HIV is prevented from entering immune cells by CCR5-delta 32.
The CCR5 co-receptor cells exteriors shrinks more than usual and stops sticking out from the cell as a result of the mutation. The CCR5 co-receptor functions as a doorway for HIV to enter cells. In a sense, the CCR5-delta 32 mutation "locks the door," preventing HIV from entering the cell. 1% of Northern European descendants, especially Swedes, are immune to HIV infection. These fortunate individuals are homozygous carriers of the mutant gene, which means they received a copy from each parent. One copy of the gene was inherited by an additional 10–15% (some sources put the percentage as high as 18%) of people of European ancestry. A mutation with only one copy does not protect against infection. But it does slow the spread of AIDS and lessen the risk of infection for carrier. The CCR5-delta 32 mutation has not been identified in Africans, East Asians, or Amerindians because it is primarily associated with the Eurasia region.
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A comparison was made across eight species for their differences in amino acid sequences for cytochrome c, a protein in the electron transport chain in the mitochondria. Which arguments can be supported by the data? select all that may apply.
The amino acid sequence of a protein is determined by its DNA sequence, therefore two organisms that share a gene ought to have similar or even identical amino acid sequences. That's because recently in evolutionary history, closely similar species most likely diverged from one another.
By counting the number of differences between two species' DNA or amino acid sequences, molecular clocks can be used to assess how closely two species are related. Sometimes referred to as gene clocks or evolutionary clocksThe methods used by biologists to ascertain the arrangement of amino acids in proteins have been refined. Evolutionary relationships that might otherwise go undiscovered might be discovered by comparing the amino acid sequences in homologous proteins of comparable and varied animals.A protein may differ depending on the changes in the amino acid chains (in shape and function). It may change the trait they are coded for. For instance, if the amino acid sequence is altered, the protein might not function properly. It might result in constructive, negative, or neutral changes.
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Examine the pedigree showing the inheritance of the sickle cell trait in a family.
Which option correctly describes the mode of inheritance for sickle cell anemia?
Responses
recessive
X-linked recessive
dominant
X-linked dominant
Answer:
The mode of inheritance for sickle cell anemia is A. recessive.
Explanation:
Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder that affects the structure of red blood cells. It is caused by a mutation in the gene that codes for the protein called hemoglobin. Hemoglobin is responsible for carrying oxygen in the red blood cells.
In the pedigree showing the inheritance of the sickle cell trait, we can see that affected individuals have the disorder only when both parents are carriers. This means that the trait is not expressed if only one parent is a carrier.
Recessive inheritance means that an individual needs to inherit two copies of the mutated gene (one from each parent) to develop the disorder. In the case of sickle cell anemia, an individual who inherits one copy of the mutated gene from one parent and a normal gene from the other parent will be a carrier of the sickle cell trait, but will not have the disorder. However, if an individual inherits two copies of the mutated gene, one from each parent, they will have sickle cell anemia.
Therefore, the correct option describing the mode of inheritance for sickle cell anemia is recessive.
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what is the purpose of a sensory homunculus? a. it maps out the somatosensory cortex in relationship to the corresponding motor outputs. b. it shows how areas of the body are represented in the primary somatosensory cortex on the basis of sensitivity. c. it delineates which areas of the somatosensory cortex require the greatest oxygen and glucose supply. d. it demonstrates how our sensory inputs are connected to the central nervous system.
Option (b) It shows how regions of the body are represented in the primary somatosensory cortex based on sensitivity.
A sensory homunculus is a topographic representation of the body's sensory distribution found in the cerebral cortex. It is a map along the cerebral cortex where every part of the body is processed. Sensations occur throughout the body. Impulses from the body are sent to the spinal cord and eventually processed back to the brain. The trigeminal nerve carries sensations of the face. The sensory homunculus describes how much representation each part of the body has in the sensory cortex, emphasizing the human hand and face. We gather most of our senses to form perceptions. And, sensory pathways from the skin that convey information about pain, temperature, and touch are mapped onto the somatosensory cortex. This mapping of our touch onto the cortex provides a representation of the body, named the homunculus by its discoverer, Wilder Penfield.
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which of the following statements is true? a. the basic contractile unit for skeletal and smooth muscle is the sarcomere. b. troponin is a protein found in skeletal, but not smooth, muscle. c. the mechanism mediating the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum is the same in both smooth and skeletal muscle.
c. Both skeletal and smooth muscle use the same mechanism to release calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Does troponin affect smooth muscle?This discovery puts the troponin proteins in a position to function as a regulator of smooth muscle contraction by showing that they are linked to actin filaments within smooth muscle tissues.
Protein molecules called troponins are found in skeletal and cardiac muscle. Troponins are absent from smooth muscle cells. Troponin I, T, and C are the three different forms of troponins.
In smooth muscle, there is no troponin complete protein. Calmodulin functions as troponin in smooth muscles, activates myosin light chain kinase, and results in myosin head attachment to actin.
A particular class of protein called troponin is present in the heart's muscles. Blood often does not contain troponin. Troponin is released into the bloodstream when the heart muscles are harmed.
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put the following steps in order for performing a smear preparation from a liquid culture. instructions choice 1 of 4. apply loopful of bacterial culture to slide toggle button apply loopful of bacterial culture to slide choice 2 of 4. label the microscope slide toggle button label the microscope slide choice 3 of 4. heat fix toggle button heat fix choice 4 of 4. air dry toggle button air dry
Give the microscopic slide a name. Onto the slide, drop a loopful of bacterial culture. Hot fix and air dry. For various laboratory processes, including the Gram-stain, a smear must be prepared.
Making a smear is done to adhere the bacteria to the slide and stop the sample from slipping away during the staining process. A solid or broth medium can be used to prepare a smear. The steps for preparing a smear for a Gram-stain are listed below.
1. Center a clean slide with one needle of solid bacterial growth or two loops of liquid bacterial growth.
2. If you're working with a solid media, use a water bottle to add just one drop of water to your specimen. Don't include the water if you're using a broth medium.
3. Using your inoculating loop, now thoroughly combine the specimen with the water, and then spread the mixture out to cover around half of the slide's surface area.
4. After putting the slide on a slide warmer, let it dry. Now that the smear is prepared, staining may begin.
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Which blood vessels receive lymph from the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct?.
Answer:
Brachiocephalic veins are responsible for this function.
n humans, assume straight hairline is recessive to widow's peak. a woman with a straight hairline is married to a man with a widow's peak whose mother had a straight hairline. what are the chances of the couple having a child with a straight hairline?
There is 50% chances of the couple having a child with a straight hairline. If A woman with a straight hairline is married to a man with a widow's peak whose mother had a straight hairline.
A monohybrid cross is a cross between two homozygous individuals, which produces the opposite phenotype for a particular genetic characteristic. A monohybrid cross is made up of two monohybrid characteristics ( straight hairline and widow's peak). The monohybrid cross is in charge of passing one gene on. Geneticists utilise monohybrid crosses to study the expression of heterozygous genes passed down from parents to homozygous offspring.
= Ww ( straight line) x ww (widow's peak)
= Ww ( straight line) : Ww ( straight line) : ww (widow's peak) : ww (widow's peak)
Hence, equal chances exist for straight line and widow's peak.
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axons leaving each olfactory bulb travel along the olfactory tract to reach the olfactory cerebral cortex, portions of the limbic system.
Axons leaving each olfactory bulb travel along the olfactory tract to reach the olfactory cerebral cortex, portions of the limbic system, trace the olfactory pathway from the time an odor reaches the olfactory epithelium until nerve impulses reach their final destination in the brain.
The cranial nerve 1 (CNI), which is part of the olfactory nerve, and the olfactory pathway carry the odor information from the epithelium of the nasal cavity to the brain.
Supporting cells, basal (stem) cells, ciliated olfactory receptor cells, and other cells (replacing old and damaged olfactory receptor cells). Olfactory receptor cell axons that cross the cribriform plate and enter the nasal cavity's roof make up the olfactory nerve CN I. and enter the nasal cavity's roof make up the olfactory nerve CN I.
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which cells migrate to the gonads, where they differentiate into immature cells that will eventually become sperm or oocytes?
Germline cycle. Shortly after the formation of the diploid zygote, the germ cells differentiate from the somatic cells that will give rise to the rest of the organism.
These primordial germ cells migrate and then interact with specific somatic cells to form the gonad. In most animals, including many vertebrates, the unfertilized egg is asymmetric, with different regions of the cytoplasm containing different sets of mRNA and protein molecules. Primordial germ cells originate in the endoderm of the yolk sac and migrate to the genital ridge to form the indifferent gonad. Gonads 46,XY and 46,XX are initially indistinguishable. Primordial germ cells are highly specialized cells that are precursors to gametes that, after meiosis, develop into haploid sperm and eggs that generate a new organism after fertilization. They transmit genetic and epigenetic information between generations and ensure the survival of a species. In mammals, meiosis occurs only in the gamete-producing cells within the gonads. During meiosis, homologous (paired) chromosomes separate, and haploid cells are formed that have only one chromosome from each pair.
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Which of these observations is NOT expected based on our current theory of solar systems evolving from a solar nebula?
A) The planets orbit in the same plane around the sun
B) The sun spins in the same direction as the orbits of the planets
C) Some planets have similar compositions to the sun
D) The discovery of giant gas planets very near their host star
The observations which is not expected based on our current theory of solar systems evolving from a solar nebula is that the discovery of giant gas planets very near their host star and is therefore denoted as option D.
What is Solar system?This is referred to as the gravitationally bound system of the Sun and the objects that orbit it and consists of various types of elements such as planets. sun etc.
The theory of solar systems evolving from a solar nebula is that it contains elements such as gas and dusts and the planets obit in the same plane around the sun which makes them coplanar.
The sun spins in the same direction as the orbits of the planets and some of the planets have similar compositions to the sun which is therefore the reason why option D was chosen as the correct choice.
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The presence of many red blood cells in the urine during a microscopic examination is known as ________.
Blood in the urine is known as hemoturia. Gross or visible hematuria refers to the presence of crimson or pink urine, which may indicate the presence of blood in the urine. The term "microscopic" hematuria refers to hematuria in which blood occasionally occurs in the urine but is difficult to detect since it can only be seen under a microscope.
Why are there red blood cells in the urine?The presence of more RBCs than usual in the urine could be caused by: cancer of the bladder, kidneys, or urinary system. infections or stones in the kidneys or the rest of the urinary system kidney damage or inflammation. prostate issues
What does urine with tiny blood mean?A typical sign of glomerulonephritis, an inflammation of the kidneys' filtration mechanism, is microscopic urine bleeding. Possibly, glomerulonephritis.
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Which peronality tet relie on a ubject telling torie baed on card depicting human figure in variou ambiguou ituation?
THEMATIC APPERCEPTION TEST (TAT)
What is TAT?
An example of a projective test is the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT), which asks participants to describe ambiguous scenes in order to reveal more about their personalities, emotions, and driving forces. It was created by American psychologists Henry A. Murray and Christina D. Morgan at Harvard University in the 1930s and is commonly referred to as the "picture interpretation technique." One of the most extensively studied and clinically applied personality tests is the TAT.
Why the TAT is used?
a. To gain additional insight into a person.
b. To aid in the expression of emotions.
c. To delve into themes associated with the individual's experiences.
d. To examine a person for psychological issues.
e. To assess criminal suspects.
f. To screen potential employees.
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Cell division is the process of taking a parent cell and splitting it into 2 new genetically identical daughter cells. All organisms go through the process of cell division. What do bacteria use cell division for and how?.
The cell that is dividing in a cell division process is referred to as the "parent" cell. Two "daughter" cells are created when the parent cell divides.
What happens during the division of a parent cell into two daughter cells?When a parent cell divides to create two identical daughter cells, the process of nuclear division known as mitosis takes place in eukaryotic cells. Mitosis refers particularly to the division of the duplicated genetic material contained in the nucleus during cell division.
Cell division definition Short response?The process by which a cell, known as the parent cell, divides into two cells, known as daughter cells, is known as cell division. Everything inside a cell divides when it divides. The mitochondria also divide together with the chromosomes and nucleus.
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During the elongation phase of translation, the mRNA passes between ______, catalyzing the binding of ______ to each other.
During the elongation phase of translation, the mRNA passes between two ribosomal subunit catalyzing the binding of amino acids to each other.
The ribosome continues to translate each codon in turn throughout the elongation step. Each appropriate amino acid is added to the expanding chain and joined by a peptide bond. Elongation will continue until all of the codons have been read.
Translation is the process of creating a protein from the information contained in a messenger RNA molecule (mRNA).
The aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases catalyze a two-step process in which an amino acid is esterified to the 3′ end of a tRNA and one molecule of ATP is hydrolyzed, resulting in aminoacyl-tRNA, AMP, and PPi.
They interact by using a powerful force! In reality, the nuclear strong force "leaks out" of each proton and neutron, resulting in the nuclear strong force that holds the nucleus together.
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During interphase, a cell duplicates its __________ and prepares for cell division.
A. mtochondria
B. chromosomes
C. vacuoles
D. chloroplasts
Answer:
B
Explanation:
they need to get copies of the chromosomes for the new resulting cell
which of the following would be the best hypotheses about how rainy days influence photosynthesis in plants? be sure to consider all aspects of a good hypothesis, not just the logic. select the two best hypotheses. which of the following would be the best hypotheses about how rainy days influence photosynthesis in plants? be sure to consider all aspects of a good hypothesis, not just the logic.select the two best hypotheses. on rainy days, plants have lower rates of photosynthesis because of the interaction between rainy days and photosynthesis. when it is rainy, plants have lower rates of photosynthesis because they have less light energy available. plants engaging in more photosynthesis will increase the amount of rain because plants remove water from the soil and put it into the air during the process of photosynthesis. if photosynthesis is measured in 100 plants over the course of 100 days that vary in the amount of rain, there will be a negative correlation between the amount of rain and the rate of photosynthesis. plants that live in rainy regions have greater rates of photosynthesis because they have more water, which is required for photosynthesis. plants that live in rainy regions have lower rates of photosynthesis (on average).
The two best hypotheses about how rainy days influence photosynthesis in plants are: On rainy days, plants have lower rates of photosynthesis because of the interaction between rainy days and photosynthesis and when it is rainy, plants have lower rates of photosynthesis because they have less light energy available. So, option (a) and (b) is correct.
Photosynthesis is a biological process by which many cellular organisms transform light energy into chemical energy, which is then stored in organic molecules.
a. Because of the interaction between rainy days and photosynthesis, plants have decreased rates of photosynthesis on rainy days since rain can obstruct sunlight, an essential component of photosynthesis. This claim may be verified through testing and is supported by prior research or observations.
b. When it is rainy, plants have lower rates of photosynthesis because they have less light energy available this happens due to the water droplets that falls on the leaves and block the sunlight from reaching the chloroplast present in the leaves thus the rate of photosynthesis is reduced.
The other hypotheses are not as good because they are not testable.
Therefore, (a) and (b) are the two best hypotheses about how rainy days influence photosynthesis in plants.
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Your question is incomplete but most probably your full question was,
Which of the following would be the best hypotheses about how rainy days influence photosynthesis in plants? Be sure to consider all aspects of a good hypothesis, not just the logic. Select the two best hypotheses.
a. On rainy days, plants have lower rates of photosynthesis because of the interaction between rainy days and photosynthesis.
b. When it is rainy, plants have lower rates of photosynthesis because they have less light energy available.
c. Plants engaging in more photosynthesis will increase the amount of rain because plants remove water from the soil and put it into the air during the process of photosynthesis.
d. Plants that live in rainy regions have greater rates of photosynthesis because they have more water, which is required for photosynthesis.
e. If photosynthesis is measured in 100 plants over the course of 100 days that vary in the amount of rain, there will be a negative correlation between the amount of rain and the rate of photosynthesis.
f. Plants that live in rainy regions have lower rates of photosynthesis on average).
why does population growth in the united states have a larger effect on the global environment than population growth in india?
Answer:
It has a larger effect because there is lots of carbon dioxide (CO2) released into the air because of the vehicles and the amount of energy used. Thanks:) From a Science Teacher
81) the initial response of the root cells of a tomato plant watered with seawater would be to a) rapidly produce organic solutes in the cytoplasm. b) rapidly expand until the cells burst. c) begin to plasmolyze as water is lost. d) actively transport water from the cytoplasm into the vacuole. e) actively absorb salts from the seawater.
Option C, begin to plasmolyze as water is lost when a tomato plant is irrigated with seawater, the root cells' immediate cytoplasm reaction is to start plasmolyzing as water is lost.
When exposed to a solution that has more solutes than the cells do, plant cells engage in a process known as plasmolysis. This is an illustration of a hypertonic solution. Osmosis is the process through which water leaves cells and enters the surrounding fluid. The cytoplasm loses water first, followed by the vacuole is plasmolysis .The gel-like liquid that makes up a cell's cytoplasm. Chemical reactions take place in it as the medium. It gives other organelles in the cell a base from which to function. When a cell or tissue is submerged in an isotonic solution, neither the interior nor the exterior of the cell experiences plasmolysis any net water flow. A hypotonic solution will cause water to permeate inside the cell.
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A student constructs several terrariums like the one shown. Each terrarium is exposed to a different amount of sunlight each day. In order to determine the ideal amount of sunlight, which of the variables must be held constant?
a. Type of plants
b. Growth rate of plants
c. Wavelengths of sunlight
d. Amount of sunlight received
A student constructs several terrariums like the one shown. Each terrarium is exposed to a different amount of sunlight each day. In order to determine the ideal amount of sunlight, option A Type of plants must be held constant.
Terrariums are containerized interior orchards. The terrarium's plants and soil transmit water vapor, efficaciously reprocessing water. The vapor is then gathered on the vessel's walls and filters down towards the soil. Terrariums are self-sustaining, which is the reason they necessitate little maintainance if kept sealed. The terrarium was, in no small part, revolutionary in how we now observe and obtain popular houseplants. In fact, the earliest Victorian terrariums served a very specific purpose in bringing far-flung, exotic plants into our homes and making them an accessible and welcome commodity.
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how do phagocytes eliminate pathogens? what group of pathogens are most easily phagocytosed and why? g
Phagocytes ingest and destroy the pathogen through a process called phagocytosis.
Pathogens are recognized by phagocytes, which then phagocytose and eliminate them. Recognition is often accomplished through the use of phagocyte receptors that bind to molecules commonly present on pathogens, called pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs). Chemicals from the pathogen or dead damaged abnormal cells act as attractants causing phagocytes to move towards the pathogen. Phagocytes have several receptors in their cell surface membrane that recognize and attach to chemicals on the surface of the pathogen. They create a vesicle known as a phagosome by engulfing the pathogen. Particles commonly engulfed by white blood cells include bacteria, dead tissue cells, protozoa, various dust particles, pigments, and other tiny foreign bodies. Encapsulated bacteria are more difficult to ingest. In the absence of specific antibodies recognizing the bacteria, opsonization cannot occur and the bacteria repel the phagocytes.
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In autonomic motor pathways, the nerve signal must travel along ____________ neurons to reach a target cell.
The nerve signal must pass via two neurons in autonomic motor pathways before it may get to the target cell.
How do signals leave the autonomic nervous system?Action potentials are produced by neurons and are sent along their axons. They then release chemicals known as neurotransmitters across a synapse to send messages. These chemicals cause another effector cell or neuron to respond.
What are the autonomic nervous system's motor pathways?The main salivary glands, the contraction and relaxation of the stomach and oesophagus, saliva output from those glands, and likely even the cardiovascular system are all controlled by autonomic pathways.
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Which proteins lends structural support to the chromosome and helps activate or silence gene expression?.
Histones serve as structural proteins. Histones are encircled by DNA, which gives chromosomes their structure. Histones can be changed by adding or removing chemical groups like methyl or acetyl groups.
What protein helps a chromosome maintain its structural integrity?A chromosome's structural support is provided by a protein called a histone. Each chromosome has a long DNA molecule that must fit into the cell nucleus. By wrapping around histone protein complexes, the DNA achieves this and gives the chromosome a more compact shape.
Who or what is responsible for suppressing gene expression?Posttranscriptional gene silencing (PTGS) and transcriptional gene silencing (TGS) both work to degrade already-existing RNA. Although the outcomes are comparable, TGS's processes are species-specific, as are PTGS. De novo DNA methylation is connected to gene silencing in the majority of eukaryotes.
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The final page (the biggest one) will contain the entire photosynthesis diagram.
Below this diagram, explain how human activities might impact this process.
How might global warming impact photosynthesis?
How might water pollution impact photosynthesis?
How might smog and air pollution impact photosynthesis?
Answer: 1) Increasing carbon dioxide levels may increase photosynthesis rates in some plants.
2) Plastic debris that builds up at or near the water's surface impedes sunlight from fully reaching plants below Plants rely on energy from sunlight to drive the photosynthesis process and create glucose food molecules.
3) A significant effect haze has on plants is that it blocks light, which reduces a plant's rate of photosynthesis. Lower photosynthetic ability, in turn, reduces plants' ability to grow.
There is the Answer.