Among the typical midlife changes for men is an Increase in prostate size.
A portion of the fluid that carries sperm during ejaculation is produced by the prostate, a gland. The urethra, which is the tube through which urine leaves the body, is surrounded by the prostate gland.
As you get older, your chances of having an enlarged prostate go up. Because BPH is so common, it has been said that if a man lives long enough, he will all have an enlarged prostate. Many men over 40 have a small amount of prostate enlargement. The condition affects more than 90% of men over the age of 80.
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1) one major advantage of using arabidopsis thaliana as a model system for studies of plant form and function is its a) fast generation time. b) exceptionally large genome. c) large seeds. d) high tolerance to stress. e) high mutation rate.
Fast generation time is a key benefit of utilizing Arabidopsis thaliana as a model system for research on plant form and function.
It's correct to choose option a.
What justifies the usage of the model Arabidopsis thaliana?A popular model in plant genetic studies is the tiny annual weed Arabidopsis thaliana, which is a member of the mustard family. It has a tiny genome, a brief life cycle, and is straightforward to mutate.
What distinguishes Arabidopsis thaliana?To identify unique defense mechanisms of plant-pathogen resistance, Arabidopsis thaliana is employed as a model organism. These plants feature unique receptors on the surface of their cells, which enable the detection of pathogens and start processes to stop the spread of those infections.
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most mycoses are difficult to treat because: group of answer choices many fungi have developed resistance antifungal agents. treatment causes major disruption of the microbiota. fungicides are rapidly metabolized by the liver. fungicides are extremely expensive. fungi are biochemically similar to humans.
Mycoses because antifungal medications are difficult to create and some fungi are skilled at acquiring resistance to existing antifungal treatments, fungal infections can be tricky to treat even in healthy individuals.
According to the location, method of acquisition, and virulence type of the infection, fungi can be classed as infections. Fungal infections are categorized as superficial, cutaneous, subcutaneous, and deep depending on where they infect. In general, superficial mycoses do not cause irritation since they are restricted to the stratum corneum. The integument and its appendages, such as the hair and nails, are all affected by cutaneous infections. The stratum corneum or deeper layers of the epidermis may be affected by an infection. Skin inflammation is brought on by the organism or its byproducts. A variety of distinct infections known as subcutaneous mycoses are defined by an infection of the subcutaneous tissues, typically near the site of traumatic inoculation. The subcutaneous tissue frequently experiences an inflammatory response that extends into the epidermis. Lungs, abdominal organs, bones, and/or the central nervous system are all affected by deep mycoses. The gastrointestinal tract, the blood arteries, and the respiratory tract are the most typical entrance points.
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For each genotype, indicate the state of the lactose operon if lactose is, or is not, provided in the medium. Partial diploids are achieved by additional lac genes carried by the F factor. Note: OC renders the operator insensitive to the repressor, I- indicates a defective repressor, and Is is a mutation that makes the repressor insensitive to lactose. Constitutive = always transcribed; Induced = up-regulated; Repressed = down-regulated.Genotype/medium Constitutive Induced RepressedIsOCZ+: No Lactose IsOCZ+: Lactose IsO+Z+: No Lactose IsO+Z+: Lactose
Lactose is present, but glucose is not: strong transcription of the lac operon occurs. Because the inducer (allolactose) is present, the lac repressor is released from the operator.
Because glucose is not present, cAMP levels are high, indicating that CAP is active and bound to the DNA. It's expressed only when lactose is present and glucose is absent.
in this case we conclude by these terms
I- = always on
Oc = always on
Z- = no lactose
Is = super repressor = always off, can only be inhibited by Oc
Examples:
W/ lactose & w/out lactose
F'-I+/I-O+Z- no & no
F'-Is/I-OcZ+. yes & yes
I +O+Z+/F' I-O+Z+. yes & no
I-OcZ-/F' I-Oc Z- no no
I-OcZ+/F' I-O+Z+. yes & yes
IsOcZ-/F' IsO+Z+. no & no
Without the regulator repressor, enzyme production will be constitutive;
enzyme production is still repressible.
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Select the correct answer from each drop-down menu. a biologist discovered a new organism and classified it as a mollusk after studying its characteristics. as a mollusk, the animal probably has and a .
Mollusks are members of the phylum Mollusca. These animals have a soft, unsegmented body, an external or internal shell, bilateral symmetry, a tongue-like device called a radula, a mantle (a fold in the body wall that encloses the shell), a muscular foot, and a coelom, a hollow filled with fluid.
Therefore, "radula" and "mantle" are the right answers.
How would you characterize mollusks?A group of creatures known as molluscs have soft bodies that typically have a "head" and a "foot" region. Like the shells of snails and clams or the plates of chitons, their bodies frequently have a hard exoskeleton covering them.
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What is the most important reason a cell exhibits tight transcriptional control over the regulation of gene expression?.
For the cell, regulation at the transcriptional level saves energy.
Why is the regulation of transcription so crucial?A vital biological process called transcriptional regulation enables a cell or an organism to respond to a variety of intra- and extracellular inputs, to establish a cell's identity during development, to maintain it throughout its existence, and to coordinate cellular activity.
How does gene expression affect the regulation of transcriptional control?In particular, There are specifically two levels of control over gene expression. The amount of mRNA that can be produced from a particular gene is the first way transcription is controlled. The translation of mRNA into proteins is regulated by post-transcriptional processes, which constitute the second level of regulation.
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What is the space within the Haversian system where the
osteocyte is found?
A lamellae
B Haversian canal
C periosteum
D
lacunae
Answer:
Osteocytes ( are located within lacunae surrounded by mineralized bone matrix so the answer is D
Answer: D
Explanation:
The motor neuron and all the myofibers it innervates is referred to as a ____________ . Every time a motor neuron sends a nerve impulse to a skeletal muscle fiber, the muscle fiber will ____________ .
Motor Unit, be stimulated to contract
The term "motor unit" refers to the motor neuron as well as all of the myofibers it innervates. Skeletal muscle fibers contract each moment a motor neuron transmits a nerve signal to them.
The connection between a motor neuron as well as a collection of muscle fibers is known as the motor unit. Multiple motor units make up a single muscle. Each of them is made up of just a little portion of the total muscle mass, which means that this portion will contract. The presynaptic membrane receives an action potential from of the central nervous system. Acetylcholine , a neurotransmitter, is released into the synaptic region as a result of an action potential. After passing through the synaptic gap and arriving at the postsynaptic membrane, the neurotransmitter binds towards its receptors on skeletal muscle fiber, prompting ion channels to open. The connection between a motor neuron as well as a muscle is known as the motor unit.
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a dna sequence is shown.ctg - gag - catwhich sequences show the result of an insertion mutation in the dna? check all that apply.ctg - ggc - atctg - tat - catttg - gag - catcta - gga - gca - tctg - gag - tcg - at
A DNA sequence is a CTA - GGA - GCA - T and CTG - GAG - TCG - AT show the result of an insertion mutation in the DNA.
In terms of genomics, insertion is a form of mutation in which one or more nucleotides are inserted into a DNA sequence. Any number of nucleotides can be added during an insertion, ranging from one nucleotide to an entire chromosome (see the below picture).
Insertion refers to the addition of several nucleotides in error to the genome, most frequently while DNA replication is taking place. This quantity can range from one nucleotide to dozens or even millions of them. An insertion's impact differs as well. Others, even single nucleotide insertions, might completely impair a gene's ability to function and result in a pathogenic variant linked to a hereditary disease. Some mutations may have no effect at all.
The four nucleotides that makeup DNA are adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G), and cytosine (C) (C). The two DNA strands are connected by base pairs, which are formed when the nucleotides (A with T and G with C) bind to one another. Genes are compact DNA molecules that contain particular genetic information. See the structure of DNA and Nucleotide in below pictures
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3. Use the terms below to complete this paragraph:
NADPH, ATP, thylakoids, chlorophyll, chloroplasts, electrons
Light energy is absorbed by___found in the membranes of ___ which are saclike structures inside ___. The light energy dislodges___which are used to make___. Energy from this process is used to make___. The electrons and
energy are used to make sugars, which the plant stores or consumes for energy.
Light energy is absorbed chlorophyll found in the membranes of thylakoid which are saclike structures inside chloroplast. The light energy dislodges electrons which are used to make NADPH. Energy from this process is used to make ATP. The electrons and energy are used to make sugars, which the plant stores or consumes for energy.
What is ATP ?ATP or adenosine triphosphate which is required in the process of muscle contraction.
Myosin head contain ATP binding sites, ATP hydrolysis releases large amount of energy can be used in the formation of cross-bridge between Actin and Myosin.
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Put the potential offspring genotypes in order from highest expected frequency to lowest expected frequency for a cross in which both parents have the RrTt genotype.
a. RrTt rrTt RRtt
b. RrTt RRtt rrTt
c. rrTt RRtt RrTt
a. RrTt rrTt RRtt. Mendel's theory is based on the hybrid cross trait. Take the example of a dihybrid cross, which occurs when two doubly heterozygous individuals are bred together.
Using this Punnett square as a guide, next:
Dihybrid cross: where A stands for the dominant white seed characteristic, B stands for the recessive wrinkled seed trait, and a stands for the recessive yellow seed trait. B stands for the dominant smooth seed trait.
These are the dihybrid cross-ratios:
Dihybrid cross's genotypic ratio is 1: 2: 1: 2: 4: 2: 1: 2: 1.
9:3:3:1 would be the phenotypic ratio.
One can color the Punnett squares with comparable allele combinations to calculate the genotypic ratios, and then count the number of Punnett squares with the same color to determine the genetic ratios.
Take a look at the illustration below for a visual illustration: a dihybrid hybridization of pea plants that takes into account two features
Y, for green seeds against y, for yellow seeds (the dominating seed color characteristic) (recessive seed color trait)
R, for wrinkled seeds against r, for round seeds (the dominating seed texture feature) (recessive seed texture trait).
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What is the main mode of reproduction in bacteria?
Answer:
Binary fission
Explanation:
what is the net amount of atp gained from anaerobic breakdown (glycolysis) of one molecule of glucose in the cytoplasm during anaerobic respiration?
Only two net molecules of ATP are produced during glycolysis for every glucose molecule.
What is glycolysis?
The metabolic process that changes glucose into pyruvate is known as glycolysis. The high-energy molecules adenosine triphosphate and reduced nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide are created using the free energy released during this process. A series of ten enzyme-catalyzed processes make up glycolysis. Hexokinase, a phosphorylating enzyme, assists in the phosphorylation process that traps glucose.
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sexual dysfunctions are associated with all the phases of the human sexual response cycle identified by masters and johnson, except
Any stage of the sexual response cycle is susceptible to sexual dysfunction. You are unable to enjoy sexual activities to your delight.
The classic stages of the sexual response cycle are excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution. Both arousal and desire are a part of the sexual response's excitement phase. It's vital to understand that women don't always experience these phases sequentially.
Sexual dysfunctions are associated with all the phases of the human sexual response cycle
Four categories are commonly used to classify sexual dysfunction:
Disorders of desire: loss of sex drive.
Arousal disorders: the inability to get sexually thrilled physically.
abnormalities of orgasm: absence or delay (climax).
Pain disorders: discomfort during sex.
The conventional theories of sexual response have come under fire for having a male bias, or for being good at explaining male sexual experience but bad at explaining female sexual experience. These conventional models have been subjected to four main criticisms: The following assumptions are made: (1) that sexual desire is an automatic, spontaneous drive; (2) that arousal and desire are distinct states; (3) that the stages of arousal are sequential; and (4) that the psychological, relational, and environmental factors of sexual response are incidental to the physiological factors.
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what is a trochophore? what is a trochophore? a synapomorphy that defines lophotrochozoans a specialized filter-feeding structure the single opening in species with a blind gut a distinctive type of larva with a band of cilia submit
A band of cilia on the underside of the larva known as a trochophore gives it away.
Trochophores are spherical or pear-shaped, and their prototroch (a ring of tiny hairlike structures) gives them the ability to swim. An apical tuft of cilia, an ocellus, and a sensory plate are located above the prototroch (simple eye). The solenocyte, whose purpose appears to be to maintain adequate internal salt-water balance, and, in some species, one or two more ciliary rings, is located below the prototroch. Other structures below the prototroch include the mouth, stomach, anus, and other organs. Before metamorphosing to an adult form in some mollusks (such as gastropods and bivalves), the trochophore develops Trochophore-like organisms include rotifers and the larvae (sometimes referred to as trochophores) of invertebrates like phoronids and bryozoans.
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Neurexins are cell adhesion proteins that are important for connecting neurons at the synapse. Mammals have 3 neurexin genes. However, 2000 forms of neurexin proteins are found in cells where they play a role in determining synapse specificity. What mechanism most likely underlies this diversity?.
Alternative mRNA splicing is the mechanism associated with the diversity of isoforms of a given gene.
What is the cellular mechanism of alternative messenger RNA splicing?The cellular mechanism of alternative messenger RNA splicing refers to a processing step that suffers mRNA in order to maturate and then be used as template during the process of translation, which is fundamental to producing different proteins from distinct isoforms of a primary mRNA transcript sequence in a given cell.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the cellular mechanism of alternative messenger RNA splicing is associated with the formation of different mRNA variants or isoforms in the primary mRNA transcript which may lead to the generation of distinct proteins and open the repertory of related proteins form a given particular gene sequence that contains three or more exons to be linked.
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when examining a phylogenetic tree, the tree provides information on shared ancestry but not necessarily on how organisms are similar or different
It's true, when examining a phylogenetic tree, the tree provides information on shared ancestry but not necessarily on how organisms are similar or different.
However, they may not always reveal how closely related or dissimilar species are. Phylogenetic connections reveal information about common ancestry. creatures or communities of creatures. Since it is impossible to go back in time to verify the links claimed by phylogenetic trees, scientists see them as historical hypotheses.
Regardless of the lengths of the branches, patterns of evolutionary descent convey the same information. The branching history of shared ancestry is the sole thing that a phylogenetic tree shows, unless otherwise stated. Even within the same creature, various genes might produce diverse phylogenetic trees. It is acknowledged that methodological difficulties might be the root of such disparities. On a phylogenetic tree, trace each taxon's ancestry backwards until all the lineages converge to discover the group's most recent common ancestor.
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which of the following is untrue about ecosystems? group of answer choices an ecosystem is a dynamic complex of plants, animals, and microorganisms a temporary pond in a hollow tree ca be an ecosystem. ecosystems are being degraded rapidly. the interconnected components of an ecosystem are in a steady state. human beings are not considered to be part of the ecosystems.
A region's ecology can be defined as the sum of all its living and non-living components ecosystems. Biologic factors are the environment's live constituents. Plants, animals, and microorganisms are biotic factors.
Abiotic factors are the non-living elements of the environment. The term "abiotic factors" refers to things like rocks, water, soil, light, etc.The non-living elements of an ecosystem, such as soil, rivers, sunlight, air, and so on, are referred to as abiotic components.Together, these biotic and abiotic elements create a comprehensive ecosystem.The dynamic ecosystem's abiotic components play a significant role.
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Select ten flowers from the list to use in making a dichotomous key. If actual specimens are not available, color pictures or artificial flowers may be substituted. You may also want to use a microscope, magnifying glass, razor blade, tweezers, or dissecting needles. azalea marigold carnation orchid chrysanthemum pansy daisy peony four o'clock petunia gardenia poppy geranium rose hydrangea snapdragon iris sweet pea
Interpreting a dichotomous key is not too difficult. Simply do the following:- closely monitor your organism, own a biological vocabulary or be familiar with some technical phrases; adhere to the instructions.
The dichotomous key will direct you to the solution. In the illustration, we have a type of plant with irregularly shaped blue blooms that have five petals. The fruits are follicles or ripened flower ovaries.
The phrase "irregular flower" describes asymmetrical flowers with only one plane.
Follicle: A term used to describe the dry, dehiscent fruits that result from a single-carpel flower. When fully grown, they split along the ventral suture.
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A dichotomous key's interpretation is not too challenging. Simply follow the instructions, keep a careful eye on your organism, have a working knowledge of some technical terms or possess a biological vocabulary.
The answer will be revealed by using the dichotomous key. In the illustration, we see a particular kind of plant with five-petalled, atypically formed blue blossoms. Follicles or matured flower ovaries are the fruits.
One-planed asymmetrical flowers are referred to as "irregular blooms."
The term "follicle" refers to the dried, dehiscent fruits that emerge from a single-carpel flower. They divide at the ventral suture when completely grown.
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derived characters unique to the vascular plant clade (branch point blank) include blank.target 1 of 8target 2 of 8 derived characters unique to the monilophyte and the seed plant clade (branch point blank) include blank.target 3 of 8target 4 of 8 derived characters unique to the charophyte and the plant clade (indicated by branch point blank) include blank.target 5 of 8target 6 of 8 derived characters unique to the plant clade (branch point blank) include blank.
Life cycles dominated by sporophytes, intricate vascular plant (xylem and phloem), and highly developed roots and leaves are derived traits that are specific to the vascular plant clade (branch point 3).
There is strong evidence that two major clades of vascular plants, known as lycophytes (clubmosses) and euphyllophytes, exist (seed plants, ferns, horsetails)
Even though the Charophytes share similarities with plants, there are other properties that set them apart from plants. Stomata, cuticles, solid spore walls, and multicellular embryos are some examples of these characteristics.
-Rings of cellulose-synthesizing complexes, flagellated sperm structure, and a phragmoplast are examples of derived characteristics specific to the charophyte and plant clade (shown by branch point 1).
Megaphylls and roots that can branch at different locations along the length of an existing root are examples of derived characteristics that are specific to the monilophyte and seed plant clade (branch point 4).
The apical meristems, alternation of generation, and walled spores formed in sporangia are derived characteristics that are specific to the plant clade.
Life cycle with dominant sporophyte, complex vascular systems (xylem and phloem), and well-developed roots and leaves are derived characteristics specific to the vascular lant clade.
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Mendel worked with pea plants, which are usually choose. . When he transferred pollen from one pea plant to another, he was choose. The pea plants to choose. The eggs and form embryos within a seed.
Mendel started out by testing out a single pea plant trait at a time. He began with the hue of flowers.
When did Mendel spread pollen between different pea plants?Mendel's groundbreaking research on inheritance was conducted using the garden pea, Pisum sativum.
Natural self-fertilization occurs in this species when pollen and ova are present in the same flower. To avoid pollinating neighboring plants, flower petals remain securely shut until pollination is complete.
Since pea plants are known to self-pollinate, Mendel's practice of transferring pollen from one pea plant to another is known as cross-pollination. Consider it an exchange. As a result, the eggs could be fertilized by the pea plants.
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A forensic scientist does a flame on a substance that was found at a crime scene. What might the scientist conclude if the flame turns green?.
The substances like Borax (sodium borate), Copper(II) sulfate, barium, and boric acid burn with a characteristic green flame.
A qualitative test called the flame test is used to identify the constituents of a combination. With the aid of a fine wire, the unidentified item or mixture is exposed to a flame (such as the flame of a Bunsen burner or a spirit lamp) in this procedure. It is mentioned what the hue of the flame is. The identification of metals with this test is sensitive. It also has the ability to discern between colors that are similar, allowing for reliable ingredient identification. This technique can also be used to detect impure chemicals.
Impurities could prevent the test from identifying the metal ions using this method, but the mixture is dipped in hydrochloric acid before being exposed to the flame. The similar flame colors of metal ions would present another challenge. The substances like Borax (sodium borate), Copper(II) sulfate, barium, and boric acid burn with a characteristic green flame.
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what is a major difference between the extracellular matrix (ecm) of a plant cell and the ecm of an animal cell?
Plant ECM is primarily composed of proteins, whereas animal ECM is primarily composed of carbohydrates. Plant ECM is primarily composed of carbohydrates, whereas animal ECM is primarily composed of protein.
The main molecules that make up the animal extracellular matrix are: Structural proteins such as collagen and elastin, glycosaminoglycans, proteoglycans and glycoproteins. In plants, the cell wall is composed of carbohydrates (mainly cellulose) and glycoproteins. Both plants and animals have ECM . The cell wall of plant cells is a type of extracellular matrix. In animals, the ECM can surround cells either as fibrils that contact all sides of the cell or as a layer on which cells "sit" called the basement membrane. Animal fibers are made up of proteins. Plant fibers are composed of polysaccharides.
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in the process of renal autoregulation a. the afferent arterioles dilate, increasing glomerular filtration rate b. the nephron loop reabsorbs more sodium and chloride ions c. the collecting tubule reabsorbs less water d. the efferent arterioles dilate, allowing blood to flow through the kidney faster
Afferent arterioles expand as a result of renal autoregulation, speeding up glomerular filtration rate.
what is renal autoregulation?
The pace of blood flow can be effectively controlled by the kidneys over a wide range of blood pressures. While you're unwinding or sleeping, your blood pressure will drop.
When you exercise, it will rise. The rate of filtration via the kidney won't vary much despite these modifications. This is a result of two independent internal autoregulatory processes, the myogenic mechanism and the tubulo-glomerular feedback mechanism.
JGA and a paracrine signalling system using ATP, adenosine, and nitric oxide are both part of the tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism (NO). Afferent arteriolar smooth muscle cells are stimulated by this mechanism to contract or relax. Recall that the afferent and efferent arterioles of the glomerulus are in close contact with the DCT.
In this section of the tubule, specialised macula densa cells react to variations in fluid flow and Na+ concentration. A higher osmolarity in the filtrate is caused by less time for NaCl to be reabsorbed in the PCT as GFR rises.
Single nonmotile cilia on macula densa cells are deflected by the increased fluid flow more strongly. Due to the higher flow rate within the DCT and the increased osmolarity of the producing urine, the macula densa cells are activated and respond by releasing ATP and adenosine (a metabolite of ATP).
Local paracrine substances, including ATP and adenosine, cause the myogenic juxtaglomerular cells of the afferent arteriole to contract, delaying blood flow and lowering GFR. In contrast, as GFR falls, less Na+ will be in the producing urine, and the majority of it will be reabsorbed before it reaches the macula densa .
This will lead to a decrease in ATP and adenosine, which will enable the afferent arteriole to widen and raise GFR. The afferent arteriole is stimulated to constrict by ATP and adenosine, but NO has the opposite effect, relaxing it.
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which is the best evidence that a gene involved in antibiotic resistance in bacteria underwent lateral gene transfer?
The correct option (d) It has a phylogeny that is very different from those of most other genes.
The nonsexual transmission of genetic material across unrelated genomes is referred to as horizontal gene transfer, also known as lateral gene transfer. As a result, horizontal gene transfer entails the transmission of genes across species borders.
A mechanism known as lateral gene transfer (LGT) complicates the distribution of genes and phylogenies using a rRNA tree.
Because of this, a transfer event can be used to establish a relative age constraint between nodes in a phylogeny without the use of a molecular clock: the ancestor node of the donor lineage must precede the descendant node of the receiving lineage.
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Full Question : Which is the best evidence that a gene involved in antibiotic resistance in bacteria underwent lateral gene transfer?
a) The number of copies of the gene varies across lineages.
b) It shows many more nonsynonymous substitutions compared with synonymous ones.
c) It has accumulated many deleterious mutations within a lineage.
d) It has a phylogeny that is very different from those of most other genes.
e) It shows many more synonymous substitutions compared with nonsynonymous ones.
In response to chemical signals, prokaryotes can do which of the following?
A) turn off translation of their mRNA
B) alter the level of production of various enzymes
C) increase the number and responsiveness of their ribosomes
D) inactivate their mRNA molecules
E) alter the sequence of amino acids in certain proteins
In response to chemical signals, prokaryotes can alter the level of production of various enzymes
What are prokaryotes?
Any organism without internal membranes is referred to as a prokaryote, usually written procaryote. These organisms lack a defined nucleus and other organelles. One of the most well-known prokaryotic species is bacteria. Prokaryotes differ from eukaryotes by not having internal membranes. Both a distinct nucleus and membrane-bound cell organelles are absent in prokaryotic cells. Blue-green algae, bacteria, and mycoplasma are prokaryotes. Bacteria are the most prevalent and fastest-growing prokaryotes. Prokaryotes are single-celled organisms that belong to the domains of Bacteria and Archaea only. Pro means before and Kary means nucleus. Eukaryotes, which are made up of eukaryotic cells, include animals, plants, fungi, and protists.
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Meiosis i is described as ______ division because it results in two daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes.
Meiosis I is described as reductional division because it results in two daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes.
Meiosis is a part of the sexual process because gametes (sperm and eggs) have one-half the number of chromosomes as diploid (2N) individuals. Meiosis has two divisions; the first is meiosis I, in which the number of cells doubles but the number of chromosomes does not. As a result, each cell has half as many chromosomes. Meiosis is also known as "reduction division" because it reduces the number of chromosomes to half the normal number so that when sperm and egg fusion occurs, the baby has the correct number.
Sister chromatids within the two daughter cells separate during meiosis II, resulting in the formation of four new haploid gametes. Meiosis II mechanics are similar to mitosis, with the exception that each dividing cell has only one set of homologous chromosomes. Meiosis II is the second division of meiosis in which each chromosome's chromatids are segregated equally into daughter cells. During the interphase that precedes meiosis II, no DNA replication occurs. Prophase II is the initial stage of meiosis II.
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c) what is the probability in the f2 generation of a green stem offspring? use a punnett square(s) and quantitative data to explain your thinking. upload your punnett square(s).
The percentages of various genotypes that are anticipated to be present in the children of two parents may be calculated using a Punnett square.
The overall number of squares in each Punnett Square should be counted. You are then provided with the estimated total number of offspring. Subtract the (phenotype's prevalence in the population) from (the total number of offspring). To get your %, multiply the value given step 4 by 100. Punnett squares can be used to predict the proportions of phenotypes that known genotypes will produce in a cross's offspring. Based on other genotypes included in the cross, a missing genotype can be identified using a Punnett square. Because two heterozygous parents were crossbred, the F2 generation is much more varied. The genotype pattern of the F2 generation is as follows: 50% heterozygous, 25% homozygous recessive, and 25% homozygous dominant.
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A typical meteor that hits the earth's upper atmosphere has a mass of only 2. 5 g, about the same as a penny, but it is moving at an impressive 40 km/s. As the meteor slows, the resulting thermal energy makes a glowing streak across the sky, a shooting star. The small mass packs a surprising punch.
v = 67 m/s when meteor that hits the earth's upper atmosphere has a mass of only 2. 5 g, about the same as a penny, but it is moving at an impressive 40 km/s.
What is thermal energy, and how is it used?Molecules moving within an item or substance are referred to as thermally moving. The sun is the main source of thermal energy in our solar system, but every material possesses some form of thermal energy. Heat is a flow of thermal energy that occurs when energy is transferred from one substance or object to another.
The meteor has a mass (m) of 2.5 g and a speed (v) of 40 km/s. In SI units:
2.5 g × (1 kg / 10³ g) = 2.5 × 10⁻³ kg
40 km/s × (10³ m / 1 km) = 4.0 × 10⁴ m/s
The kinetic energy (KE) is:
KE = 1/2 × m × v² = 1/2 × (2.5 × 10⁻³ kg) × (4.0 × 10⁴ m/s)² = 2.0 × 10⁶ J
A 900 kg compact car, with the same kinetic energy, must have the following speed.
KE = 1/2 × m × v²
2.0 × 10⁶ J = 1/2 × 900 kg × v²
v = 67 m/s
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when studying the brains of our fossil relatives, why do we rely on indirect evidence (cranial capacity) instead of direct evidence (brain tissue)?
This is true that we rely on indirect evidence (cranial capacity) rather than direct evidence when studying the brains of our fossil relatives.
Cranial capacity is the book of the interior of the skull of vertebrates that possess a skull and a mind (1). Cranial capacity is used to approximate the capacity of the intellect, which is still dirty from the data of the animal (1). Cranial capacity is often proven by the contents of the cranial crater accompanying cup beads and weighing their capacity, or by CT scan image.
Fossils are the maintained debris of plants and animals whose bulks were engrossed in sediments, to a degree soil and mud, under old seas, reservoirs, and waterways. Fossils further involve any continued trace of history namely usually in addition to 10 000 years traditional.
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based on the 10% rule, if there are 10,000 calories of net primary productivity in an ecosystem, how much energy will be generally available to a secondary consumer?
The 10% rule states that 10% of the energy available in an ecosystem is transferred to secondary consumers.
Calories in an ecosystem:So, with 10,000 calories of net primary productivity in an ecosystem, it is estimated that 1,000 calories would generally be available to a secondary consumer.
Energy transferred to secundary consumers = 10,000 calories *10%
Energy transferred to secundary consumers = 10,000 calories * 10/100
Energy transferred to secundary consumers = 10,000 calories * 0.1
Energy transferred to secundary consumers = 1,000 calories
This amount of energy is sufficient to feed organisms at higher trophic levels.
What is the 10% energy rule in a food chain?The 10% energy rule states that only 10% of the energy available in one trophic level is passed on to the next trophic level in a food chain. This means that, as energy is transferred from one organism to the next, 90% of the energy is lost, usually as heat.
This energy loss limits the amount of energy available to higher trophic levels.
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