airground ride spins its occupants inside a flying saucer-shaped container. If the horizontal circular path the riders follow has an 11 m radius, at how many revolutions per minute will the riders be subjected to a centripetal acceleration 2.3 times that due to gravity

-- As she lands on the air mattress, her momentum is (m v)

Momentum = (60 kg) (5 m/s down) = 300 kg-m/s down

-- As she leaves it after the bounce,

Momentum = (60 kg) (1 m/s up) = 60 kg-m/s up

-- The impulse (change in momentum) is

Change = (60 kg-m/s up) - (300 kg-m/s down)

Magnitude of the change = 360 km-m/s

The direction of the change is up /\ .

The direction of a body or object's movement is defined by its velocity.In its basic form, speed is a scalar quantity.In essence, velocity is a vector quantity.It is the speed at which distance changes.It is the displacement change rate.

Solve the problem ?

      To learn more about magnitude refer

       https://brainly.com/question/24468862

      #SPJ2

Answer:

The angular speed of the new system is [tex]3\,\frac{rad}{s}[/tex].

Explanation:

Due to the absence of external forces between both disks, the Principle of Angular Momentum Conservation is observed. Since axes of rotation of each disk coincide with each other, the principle can be simplified into its scalar form. The magnitude of the Angular Momentum is equal to the product of the moment of inertial and angular speed. When both disks begin to rotate, moment of inertia is doubled and angular speed halved. That is:

[tex]I\cdot \omega_{o} = 2\cdot I \cdot \omega_{f}[/tex]

Where:

[tex]I[/tex] - Moment of inertia of a disk, measured in kilogram-square meter.

[tex]\omega_{o}[/tex] - Initial angular speed, measured in radians per second.

[tex]\omega_{f}[/tex] - Final angular speed, measured in radians per second.

This relationship is simplified and final angular speed can be determined in terms of initial angular speed:

[tex]\omega_{f} = \frac{1}{2}\cdot \omega_{o}[/tex]

Given that [tex]\omega_{o} = 6\,\frac{rad}{s}[/tex], the angular speed of the new system is:

[tex]\omega_{f} = \frac{1}{2}\cdot \left(6\,\frac{rad}{s} \right)[/tex]

[tex]\omega_{f} = 3\,\frac{rad}{s}[/tex]

The angular speed of the new system is [tex]3\,\frac{rad}{s}[/tex].

Answer:

The wavelength is  [tex]\lambda = 886 \ nm[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The  energy band gap is  [tex]E = 1.4 eV[/tex]

Generally the energy of  a single photon of light emitted for an electron jump in a GaAS solar cell is mathematically represented as

      [tex]E = \frac{hc}{\lambda }[/tex]

Where  h is the Planck's  constant with values

     [tex]h = 4.1357 * 10^{-15} eV[/tex]

and  c is  the speed of light with values  [tex]c = 3*10^{8} \ m/s[/tex]

So  

     [tex]\lambda = \frac{hc}{E}[/tex]

substituting values

    [tex]\lambda = \frac{4.1357 *10^{-15} * 3.0 *10^{8}}{1.4}[/tex]

  [tex]\lambda = 886 \ nm[/tex]

Answer:

 Torque = 1191.68 N-m

Explanation:

Given data

mass m = 76 kg

standingdistance r  = 1.6 m

Solution

we get here torque  that si express as

torque  = force × distance ................1

torque  = r × F sin(theta)

and we know that

F = mg   .........2

and g = 9.8 m/s²

put here value in equation 1 we get

Torque = 76 × 1.6 × 9.8 × sin(90)

 Torque = 1191.68 N-m

Answer:

a. 6.41 m/s

b. 120.85 m/s^2

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

a. Pebble speed is

As we know that according to the tangential speed,

[tex]v = r \times \omega[/tex]

[tex]= \frac{0.68}{2} \times 18.84[/tex]

= 6.41 m/s

The 18.84 come from

[tex]= 2 \times 3.14 \times 3[/tex]

= 18.84

b. The pebble acceleration is

[tex]a = \frac{v^2}{r}[/tex]

[tex]= \frac{6.41^2}{0.34}[/tex]

= 120.85 m/s^2

We simply applied the above formulas so that the pebble speed and the pebble acceleration could come and the same is to be considered

Answer:

visual basics

Explanation:

not suited for programming, slower than the other languages. hard to translate to other operating systems

Answer:

it changes into liquid

Answer:

It changes in to liquids

Explanation:

This is because the water vapor cools down and condenses it attaches it self to dust forming water droplets. Those water droplets are water.

Answer: 192 ft/s

Explanation:

The initial height of the object is:

576ft above the ground.

The position equation is:

p(t) = -16*t^2 + 576

in the position equation, we only can see the therm of the initial height and the term of the acceleration (that is equal to the gravitational acceleration g = 32 ft/s^2 over 2)

So we have no initial velocity, this means that at the beginning we only have potential energy:

U = m*g*h

where m is the mass of the object, g = 32m/s^2 and h = 576 ft.

Now, as the object starts to fall down, the potential energy is transformed into kinetic energy, and when the object is about to hit the ground, all the potential energy has become kinetic energy.

The kinetic energy equation is:

K = (m/2)*v^2

where v is the velocity of the object, then the maximum kinetic energy (when the object reaches the ground) is equal to the initial potential energy:

m*g*h = (m/2)*v^2

now we can solve this for v.

v = √(2*g*h) = √(2*32ft/s^2*576ft) = 192 ft/s

Answeri believe it is the first one but not sure

Explanation:

Answer:

The answer is sensorimotor.

Explanation:

Answer:

(a) B = 2.85 × [tex]10^{-6}[/tex] Tesla

(b) I =  I = 0.285 A

Explanation:

a. The strength of magnetic field, B, in a solenoid is determined by;

r = [tex]\frac{mv}{qB}[/tex]

⇒ B = [tex]\frac{mv}{qr}[/tex]

Where: r is the radius, m is the mass of the electron, v is its velocity, q is the charge on the electron and B is the magnetic field

B = [tex]\frac{9.11*10^{-31*1.0*10^{4} } }{1.6*10^{-19}*0.02 }[/tex]

  = [tex]\frac{9.11*10^{-27} }{3.2*10^{-21} }[/tex]

B = 2.85 × [tex]10^{-6}[/tex] Tesla

b. Given that; N/L = 25 turns per centimetre, then the current, I, can be determined by;

B = μ I N/L

⇒    I = B ÷ μN/L

where B is the magnetic field,  μ is the permeability of free space = 4.0 ×[tex]10^{-7}[/tex]Tm/A, N/L is the number of turns per length.

I = B ÷ μN/L

 = [tex]\frac{2.85*10^{-6} }{4*10^{-7} *25}[/tex]

I = 0.285 A

Answer:

The bottom two lines.

Explanation:

They need their own line of voltage quantity. A parallel circuit has the definition of 'two or more paths for current to flow through.' The voltage does stay the same in each line.

Answer:

404.3 J

Explanation:

Given that

Weight of the merry go round = 790 N

Radius if the merry go round = 1.6 m

Horizontal force applied = 45 N

Time taken = 4 s

To find the mass of the merry go round, we divide the weight by acceleration due to gravity. Thus,

m = F/g

m = 790 / 9.8

m = 80.6 kg

We know that the moment of inertia is given as

I = ½mr², on substitution, we have

I = ½ * 80.6 * 1.6²

I = 103.17 kgm²

Torque = Force applied * radius, so

τ = 45 * 1.6

τ = 72 Nm

To get the angular acceleration, we have,

α = τ / I

α = 72 / 103.17

α = 0.70 rad/s²

Then, the angular velocity is

ω = α * t

ω = 0.7 * 4

ω = 2.8 rad/s

Finally, to get the Kinetic Energy, we have

K.E = ½ * Iω², on substituting, we get

K.E = ½ * 103.17 * 2.8²

K.E = 404.3 J

Therefore, the kinetic energy is 404.3 J

Answer:

a) 5.19 W/m²

b) 1.79 J

Explanation:

For the calculation of intensity, I. We have

I = E(rms)² / (cμ), where

c = speed of light

μ = permeability of free space

I = (62.5 / √2)² / [(2.99 x 10^8) (1.26 x 10^-6)]

I = 1954 / 376.74

I = 5.19 W/m²

Therefore, the intensity, I = 5.19 W/m²

t = 14.9 s

A = 0.0231 m²

Amount if energy flowing, U = IAt

U = (5.19) (0.0231) (14.9) J

U = 1.79 J

Answer: evaporation

Explanation:

Refrigerators work by causing the refrigerant circulating inside them to change from a liquid into a gas. This process, called evaporation, cools the surrounding area and produces the desired effect.

Answer:

μ_k = 0.1773

Explanation:

We are given;

Initial velocity;u = 20 m/s

Final velocity;v = 0 m/s (since it comes to rest)

Distance before coming to rest;s = 115 m

Let's find the acceleration using Newton's second law of motion;

v² = u² + 2as

Making a the subject, we have;

a = (v² - u²)/2s

Plugging relevant values;

a = (0² - 20²)/(2 × 115)

a = -400/230

a = -1.739 m/s²

From the question, the only force acting on the puck in the x direction is the force of friction. Since friction always opposes motion, we see that:

F_k = −ma - - - (1)

We also know that F_k is defined by;

F_k = μ_k•N

Where;

μ_k is coefficient of kinetic friction

N is normal force which is (mg)

Since gravity acts in the negative direction, the normal force will be positive.

Thus;

F_k = μ_k•mg - - - (2)

where g is acceleration due to gravity.

Thus,equating equation 1 and 2,we have;

−ma = μ_k•mg

m will cancel out to give;

-a = μ_k•g

μ_k = -a/g

g has a constant value of 9.81 m/s², so;

μ_k = - (-1.739/9.81)

μ_k = 0.1773

The coefficient of kinetic friction between the hockey puck and ice is equal to 0.178

Given the following data:

Scientific data:

To determine the coefficient of kinetic friction between the hockey puck and ice:

First of all, we would calculate the acceleration of the hockey puck by using the third equation of motion.

[tex]V^2 = U^2 + 2aS\\\\0^2 =20^2 + 2a(115)\\\\-400=230a\\\\a=\frac{-400}{230}[/tex]

Acceleration, a = -1.74 [tex]m/s^2[/tex]

Note: The negative signs indicates that the hockey puck is slowing down or decelerating.

From Newton's Second Law of Motion, we have:

[tex]\sum F_x = F_k + F_n =0\\\\F_k =- F_n\\\\\mu mg =-ma\\\\\mu = \frac{-a}{g}\\\\\mu = \frac{-(-1.74)}{9.8}\\\\\mu = \frac{1.74}{9.8}[/tex]

Coefficient of kinetic friction = 0.178

Read more: https://brainly.com/question/13821217

Complete question:

The exit nozzle in a jet engine receives air at 1200 K, 150 kPa with negligible kinetic energy. The exit pressure is 80 kPa, and the process is reversible and adiabatic. Use constant specific heat at 300 K to find the exit velocity.

Answer:

The exit velocity is 629.41 m/s

Explanation:

Given;

initial temperature, T₁ = 1200K

initial pressure, P₁ = 150 kPa

final pressure, P₂ = 80 kPa

specific heat at 300 K, Cp = 1004 J/kgK

k = 1.4

Calculate final temperature;

[tex]T_2 = T_1(\frac{P_2}{P_1})^{\frac{k-1 }{k}[/tex]

k = 1.4

[tex]T_2 = T_1(\frac{P_2}{P_1})^{\frac{k-1 }{k}}\\\\T_2 = 1200(\frac{80}{150})^{\frac{1.4-1 }{1.4}}\\\\T_2 = 1002.714K[/tex]

Work done is given as;

[tex]W = \frac{1}{2} *m*(v_i^2 - v_e^2)[/tex]

inlet velocity is negligible;

[tex]v_e = \sqrt{\frac{2W}{m} } = \sqrt{2*C_p(T_1-T_2)} \\\\v_e = \sqrt{2*1004(1200-1002.714)}\\\\v_e = \sqrt{396150.288} \\\\v_e = 629.41 \ m/s[/tex]

Therefore, the exit velocity is 629.41 m/s

Answer:

22.66Nm²/C

Explanation:

Flux through an electric field is expressed as ϕ = EAcosθ

When a piece of paper is held with one face perpendicular to a uniform electric field the flux through it is 25N.m^2/c. If the paper is turned 25 degree with respect to the field the flux through it can be calculated using the formula.

From the formula above where:

EA = 25N.m^2/C

θ = 25°

ϕ = 25cos 25°

ϕ = 22.66Nm²/C

Answer:

q1 = 7.6uC , -2.3 uC

q2 = 7.6uC , -2.3 uC

( q1 , q2 ) = ( 7.6 uC , -2.3 uC ) OR ( -2.3 uC , 7.6 uC )

Explanation:

Solution:-

- We have two stationary identical conducting spheres with initial charges ( q1 and q2 ). Such that the force of attraction between them was F = 0.6286 N.

- To model the electrostatic force ( F ) between two stationary charged objects we can apply the Coulomb's Law, which states:

                              [tex]F = k\frac{|q_1|.|q_2|}{r^2}[/tex]

Where,

                     k: The coulomb's constant = 8.99*10^9

- Coulomb's law assume the objects as point charges with separation or ( r ) from center to center.  

- We can apply the assumption and approximate the spheres as point charges under the basis that charge is uniformly distributed over and inside the sphere.

- Therefore, the force of attraction between the spheres would be:

                             [tex]\frac{F}{k}*r^2 =| q_1|.|q_2| \\\\\frac{0.6286}{8.99*10^9}*(0.5)^2 = | q_1|.|q_2| \\\\ | q_1|.|q_2| = 1.74805 * 10^-^1^1[/tex] ... Eq 1

- Once, we connect the two spheres with a conducting wire the charges redistribute themselves until the charges on both sphere are equal ( q' ). This is the point when the re-distribution is complete ( current stops in the wire).

- We will apply the principle of conservation of charges. As charge is neither destroyed nor created. Therefore,

                             [tex]q' + q' = q_1 + q_2\\\\q' = \frac{q_1 + q_2}{2}[/tex]

- Once the conducting wire is connected. The spheres at the same distance of ( r = 0.5m) repel one another. We will again apply the Coulombs Law as follows for the force of repulsion (F = 0.2525 N ) as follows:

                          [tex]\frac{F}{k}*r^2 = (\frac{q_1 + q_2}{2})^2\\\\\sqrt{\frac{0.2525}{8.99*10^9}*0.5^2} = \frac{q_1 + q_2}{2}\\\\2.64985*10^-^6 = \frac{q_1 + q_2}{2}\\\\q_1 + q_2 = 5.29969*10^-^6[/tex]  .. Eq2

- We have two equations with two unknowns. We can solve them simultaneously to solve for initial charges ( q1 and q2 ) as follows:

                         [tex]-\frac{1.74805*10^-^1^1}{q_2} + q_2 = 5.29969*10^-^6 \\\\q^2_2 - (5.29969*10^-^6)q_2 - 1.74805*10^-^1^1 = 0\\\\q_2 = 0.0000075998, -0.000002300123[/tex]

                          [tex]q_1 = -\frac{1.74805*10^-^1^1}{-0.0000075998} = -2.3001uC\\\\q_1 = \frac{1.74805*10^-^1^1}{0.000002300123} = 7.59982uC\\[/tex]

Answer:

-67 m/s

Explanation:

We are given that

Mass of ball,m=0.4 kg

Initial speed,u=14 m/s

Impulse,I=-32.4 N-s

Time,t=27 ms=[tex]27\times 10^{-3} s[/tex]

We have to find the mass's velocity in the x- direction.

We know that

[tex]Impulse=mv-mu[/tex]

Substitute the values

[tex]-32.4=0.4v-0.4(14)[/tex]

[tex]-32.4+0.4(14)=0.4 v[/tex]

[tex]-26.8=0.4v[/tex]

[tex]v=\frac{-26.8}{0.4}=-67m/s[/tex]

Answer:

Corresponding raft speed = -0.875 m/s (the minus sign indicates that the raft moves in the direction opposite to the diver)

Explanation:

Law of conservation of momentum gives that the momentum of the diver and the raft before the dive is equal to the momentum of the diver and the raft after the dive.

And since the raft and the diver are initially at rest, the momentum of the diver after the dive is equal and opposite to the momentum experienced by the raft after the dive.

(Final momentum of the diver) + (Final momentum of the raft) = 0

Final Momentum of the diver = (mass of the diver) × (diving velocity of the diver)

Mass of the diver = 73 kg

Diving velocity of the diver = 5.54 m/s

Momentum of the diver = 73 × 5.54 = 404.42 kgm/s

Momentum of the raft = (mass of the raft) × (velocity of the raft)

Mass of the raft = 462 kg

Velocity of the raft = v

Momentum of the raft = 462 × v = (462v) kgm/s

404.42 + 462v = 0

462v = -404.42

v = (-404.42/462) = -0.875 m/s (the minus sign indicates that the raft moves in the direction opposite to the diver)

Hope this Helps!!!

Answer:

Dear user,

Answer to your query is provided below

The angle for which the rope will break θ = 41.8°

Explanation:

Explanation of the same is attached in image

A bag is gently pushed off the top of a wall at A and swings in a vertical plane at the end of a rope of length l. The angle θ for which the rope will break, is 41.81°

The tension is a kind of force which acts on linear objects when subjected to pull.

The maximum tension Tmax =2W

From the work energy principle,

T₂ = 1/2 mv²

Total energy before and after pushing off

0+mglsinθ = 1/2 mv²

v² = 2gflsinθ..............(1)

From the equilibrium of forces, we have

T= ma +mgsinθ = mv²/l +mgsinθ

2mg = mv²/l +mgsinθ

2g = v²/l +gsinθ

Substitute the value of v² ,we get the expression for θ

θ = sin⁻¹(2/3)

θ =41.81°

Hence, the angle θ for which the rope will break, is 41.81°

Learn more about tension.

https://brainly.com/question/13397436

#SPJ2

Answer:

mass 20 times of an amazing and all its motion

Answer:

The difference is height is [tex]\Delta h =6.92 \ m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The distance of ball  from the goal is [tex]d = 36.0 \ m[/tex]

    The height of the crossbar is  [tex]h = 3.05 \ m[/tex]

       The speed of the ball is [tex]v = 21.6 \ m/s[/tex]

       The angle at which the ball was kicked is [tex]\theta = 50 ^o[/tex]

The height attained by the ball is mathematically represented as

      [tex]H = v_v * t - \frac{1}{2} gt^2[/tex]

Where [tex]v_v[/tex] is the vertical component of  velocity which is mathematically represented as

     [tex]v_v = v * sin (\theta )[/tex]

substituting values

     [tex]v_v = 21.6 * (sin (50 ))[/tex]

     [tex]v_v = 16.55 \ m/s[/tex]

Now the time taken is  evaluated as

       [tex]t = \frac{d}{v * cos(\theta )}[/tex]

substituting value

     [tex]t = \frac{36}{21.6 * cos(50 )}[/tex]

    [tex]t = 2.593 \ s[/tex]

So

     [tex]H = 16.55 * 2.593 - \frac{1}{2} * 9.8 * (2.593)^3[/tex]

     [tex]H = 9.97 \ m[/tex]

The difference  in height is mathematically evaluated as

      [tex]\Delta h = H - h[/tex]

substituting value

    [tex]\Delta h = 9.97 - 3.05[/tex]

    [tex]\Delta h =6.92 \ m[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]solution \\ distance \: travelled = 1.8 \: km \\ \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: = 1.8 \times 1000m \\ \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: = 1800 \: m \\ time \: taken = 5 \: minute \\ \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: = 5 \times 60 \: seconds \\ \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: = 300 \: seconds \\ average \: velocity = \frac{distance \: travelled}{time \: taken} \\ \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: = \frac{1800}{ 300} \\ \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: = 6 \: {ms}^{ - 1} [/tex]

hope this helps..

Its average speed is (1,800 m) / (300 sec) = 6 m/s .

There's not enough information in the question to calculate the velocity with.  We would need to know the straight-line distance and direction from the place he started from to the place he ended at.

Answer: Part 1: Propellant Fraction (MR) = 8.76

Part 2: Propellant Fraction (MR) = 1.63

Explanation: The Ideal Rocket Equation is given by:

Δv = [tex]v_{ex}.ln(\frac{m_{f}}{m_{e}} )[/tex]

Where:

[tex]v_{ex}[/tex] is relationship between exhaust velocity and specific impulse

[tex]\frac{m_{f}}{m_{e}}[/tex] is the porpellant fraction, also written as MR.

The relationship [tex]v_{ex}[/tex] is: [tex]v_{ex} = g_{0}.Isp[/tex]

To determine the fraction:

Δv = [tex]v_{ex}.ln(\frac{m_{f}}{m_{e}} )[/tex]

[tex]ln(MR) = \frac{v}{v_{ex}}[/tex]

Knowing that change in velocity is Δv = 9.6km/s and [tex]g_{0}[/tex] = 9.81m/s²

Note: Velocity and gravity have different measures, so to cancel them out, transform km in m by multiplying velocity by 10³.

Part 1: Isp = 450s

[tex]ln(MR) = \frac{v}{v_{ex}}[/tex]

ln(MR) = [tex]\frac{9.6.10^{3}}{9.81.450}[/tex]

ln (MR) = 2.17

MR = [tex]e^{2.17}[/tex]

MR = 8.76

Part 2: Isp = 2000s

[tex]ln(MR) = \frac{v}{v_{ex}}[/tex]

ln (MR) = [tex]\frac{9.6.10^{3}}{9.81.2.10^{3}}[/tex]

ln (MR) = 0.49

MR = [tex]e^{0.49}[/tex]

MR = 1.63

Answer: C. Petal. Length

Explanation: Petal are unit of Corolla which are usually brightly colored. This part of a plant or flower, helps attracts insects to the plant for pollination. And also provide protection to the reproductive parts of the plant or flower.

Examples of flowers with petals is the Sun Flower, which coincidentally is the flower plant with most petals.

Answer:

A. a (-321.393, 383.022) b (-76.40, -64.278)

B. (-397.991, 318.744)

C. a. resulting speed 509.9mph  b. bearing of the plane = 51.6°

Explanation:

Answer:

B = 0.024T positive z-direction

Explanation:

In this case you consider that the direction of the motion of the electron, and the direction of the magnetic field are perpendicular.

The magnitude of the magnetic force exerted on the electron is given by the following formula:

[tex]F=qvB[/tex]     (1)

q: charge of the electron = 1.6*10^-19 C

v: speed of the electron = 1.6*10^7 m/s

B: magnitude of the magnetic field = ?

By the Newton second law you also have that the magnetic force is equal to:

[tex]F=qvB=ma[/tex]       (2)

m: mass of the electron = 9.1*10^-31 kg

a: acceleration of the electron = 7.0*10^16 m/s^2

You solve for B from the equation (2):

[tex]B=\frac{ma}{qv}\\\\B=\frac{(9.1*10^{-31}kg)(7.0*10^{16}m/s^2)}{(1.6*10^{-19}C)(1.6*10^7m/s)}\\\\B=0.024T[/tex]

The direction of the magnetic field is found by using the right hand rule.

The electron moves upward (+^j). To obtain a magnetic forces points to the positive x-direction (+^i), the direction of the magnetic field has to be to the positive z-direction (^k). In fact, you have:

-^j X ^i = ^k

Where the minus sign of the ^j is because of the negative charge of the electron.

Then, the magnitude of the magnetic field is 0.024T and its direction is in the positive z-direction

Answer:

we see that the lights with the most extreme wavelength are blue and red

we see that the separation between the interference lines (y) increases linearly with the wavelength for which the phenomenon is best observed in the RED response 2

Explanation:

In Young's double-slit experiment, constructive interference is written by the equation

       d sin θ = m λ

where you give the gap separation, lam the length of the donda used and m the order of interference

in many he uses trigonometry to express the synth in confusing the distances on a very distant screen

so θ = y / L

in this experiment the angles are generally very small, so

     tan θ = sin θ / cos θ = sin θ

     sint θ = y / L

let's replace

      d y / L = mλ

      y = (m L / d) λ

now let's examine the effect of changing the wavelength

1 yellow lam = 600 10⁻⁹ m

2) red lam = 750 10⁻⁹m

3) blue lam = 450 10⁻⁸ nm

4) green lam = 550 10⁻⁹ nm

we see that the lights with the most extreme wavelength are blue and red

we see that the separation between the interference lines (y) increases linearly with the wavelength for which the phenomenon is best observed in the RED response 2