Answer:
The main implications of the agency separation are goal incongruence, self-interest, and low productivity.
Explanation:
Goal incongruence between an agent and the principal arises from the lack of alignment in their interests. While the agent is appointed to represent the principal, most often, the agent acts in her own interest instead of in the best interest of the principal. This lack of alignment reduces the productivity that could result from the agency relationship. Another implication of the management separation is that the agent's risk appetite will be different from that of the principal. The principal will need to exercise some control over the agent to curb excessive risk-taking by the agent.
During the 1970s, some economists argued that the cause of the woes of the economy were due to __________. g
Explanation:
Stagflation. Which is stagnant growth combined with inflation. Which was caused in large part by repeated disruptions to global oil supplies, which led to soaring prices and gasoline shortages in the United States.
From 2006 to 2010, per capita real gross domestic product (GDP) in Croatia grew an average of 1.08 percent per year. At that rate, according to the Rule of 70, in roughly how many years will the Croatian economy double in size?
Answer:
Number of Years to Double= 64.81
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
From 2006 to 2010, per capita real gross domestic product (GDP) in Croatia grew an average of 1.08 percent per year.
The rule of 70 is a means of estimating the number of years it takes for an investment or your money to double. In this case, the GDP.
Number of Years to Double= 70/Annual growth
Number of Years to Double= 70/1.08
Number of Years to Double= 64.81
A one year call option has a strike price of 50, expires in 6 months, and has a price of $4.74. If the risk free rate is 3%, and the current stock price is $45, what should the corresponding put be worth?
A) $12.74.
B) $10.48.
C) $5.00.
D) $9.00.
E) $8.30.
Answer:
$9.90
Explanation:
Using Put Call Parity Equation:
C + X/(1 + r)^t + S + P
Call price + PV of exercise price = Spot price + Put price
4.74 + 50/(1.03)^0.30 = 45 + P
4.74 + 50/1.00891 = 45 + P
4.74 + 49.5584 = 45 + P
P = 4.74 + 49.5584 - 45
P = 9.2984
P = $9.90
Thus, the Price of Put Option with $50 exercise price = $9.90
The Treasury bill rate is 6%, and the expected return on the market portfolio is 10%. According to the capital asset pricing model:________
Answer: See explanation
Explanation:
Your question is not complete. Here is the completed question:
The Treasury bill rate is 6%, and the expected return on the market portfolio is 10%. According to the capital asset pricing model, what is the risk premium?
The risk premium will be the difference between the market portfolio and the treasury bill rate. This will be:
= 10% - 6%
= 4%
Jasmine's Boutique has 2,000 bonds outstanding with a face value of $1,000 each and a coupon rate of 9 percent. The interest is paid semiannually. What is the amount of the annual interest tax shield if the tax rate is 34 percent?A. $58,500B. $60,750C. $60,100D. $62,250E. $61,200
Answer:
E. $61,200
Explanation:
total interest expense = 2,000 bonds x $1,000 per bond x 9% = $180,000
the interest shield is the amount of taxes saved by paying interest expense
interest shield = total interest expense x tax rate = $180,000 x 34% = $61,200
this means that the company will be able to reduce its income taxes by $61,200 because it paid interests on their bonds
A production line is to be designed for a product whose completion requires 21 minutes of work. The factory works 400 minutes per day. Can an assembly line with five workstations make 100 units per day?
a. yes, with exactly 100 minutes to spare
b. no, but four workstations would be sufficient
c. no, it will fall short even with a perfectly balanced line
d. yes, but the line's efficiency is very low
e. cannot be determined from the information given
Answer:
C. no, it will fall short even with a perfectly balanced line
Explanation:
In this question, if a factory has a work time that is 400 minutes per day. The required units per day is a 209 units. With 5 available workstations.
Then we would calculate the time cycle as
400 x 5/100
= 400x0.05
= 20minutes/unit
So In conclusion, if the time required is more than 20 minutes, that is 21 minutes, it is going to fall short with a perfectly balanced line. Hence option c.
The correct option is c.
c. no, it will fall short even with a perfectly balanced line
The following information should be considered:
An assembly line having with five workstations that can't make 100 units per day.Because it will fall short even with a perfectly balanced line
Therefore, we can conclude that the correct option is c.
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What is the standard deviation of a stock that has a 10% chance of earning 18%, a 10% chance of making 11%, a 40% chance of making 5%, and a 40% chance of making 22%?
A. 7.95%.
B. 13.70%.
C. 7.78%.
D. 13.05%.
Answer:
A. 7.95%.
Explanation:
Calculate the expected rate of return for the investment as follows:
[tex]\begin{aligned}
\text { Expected rate of return } &=(\text { Probability } \times \text { Rate of return })+(\text { Probability } \times \text { Rate of return })+\\
&(\text { Probability } \times \text { Rate of retum }) \\
=&(0.40 \times 15 \%)+(0.50 \times 10 \%)+(0.10 \times-3 \%) \\
=& 0.06+0.05-0.003 \\
=& 0.107[/tex]
Calculate the standard deviation of the investment as follows:
[tex]\begin{aligned}
\text { Standard deviation }=&\left\{\begin{array}{l}
\text { Probability } \left.\times(\text { Return }-\text { Expected return })^{2}\right)+ \\
\text { (Probability } \left.\times(\text { Return }-\text { Expected return })^{2}\right)+ \\
\text { (Probability } \left.\times(\text { Return }-\text { Expected return })^{2}\right)
\end{array}\right.[/tex]
=[tex]\sqrt{\left(0.40 \times(0.15-0.107)^{2}\right)+\left(0.50 \times(0.10-0.107)^{2}\right)+} \\
=\sqrt{0.0007396+0.0000245+0.0018769} \\
=\sqrt{0.002641} \\
=0.05139066063011[/tex]
Grey, Inc., uses a predetermined rate to apply overhead. At the beginning of the year, Grey budgeted its overhead costs at $220,000, direct labor hours at 55,000, and machine hours at 20,000. Actual overhead costs incurred were $233,250, actual direct labor hours were 62,000, and actual machine hours were 15,000. If the PDOH rate uses machine hours as the cost driver, what is the total amount credited to the overhead account control account
Answer:
$165,000
Explanation:
Calculation for what is the total amount credited to the manufacturing overhead account for the year for Grey
First step is to calculate Predetermined overhead rate using this formula
Predetermined overhead rate = Estimated overhead costs / Estimated machine hours
Let plug in the formula
Predetermined overhead rate = $220,000 / 20,000 machine hours
Predetermined overhead rate= $11
Second step is to calculate Total amount credited to the factory overhead account for the year for Grey
Using this formula
Total amount credited to the factory overhead account for the year for Grey = Predetermined overhead rate × Actual machine hours
Let plug in the formula
Total amount credited to the factory overhead account for the year for Grey= $11 × 15,000 machine hours
Total amount credited to the factory overhead account for the year for Grey = $165,000
Therefore the Total amount credited to the factory overhead account for the year for Grey will be $165,000
Which characteristics make it so that perfectly competitive firms and monopolistically competitive firms have zero economic profit in the long run?
Answer:
A. Homogeneous product and perfect information
Explanation:
The characteristics in which the perfectly competitive market and the monopolistic market would have zero economic profit in the long run that should be the same product and perfect information as the high prices would vary . Also it decreases the asymmetric information
Therefore as per the given situation, the correct option is A
Rory Company has a machine with a book value of $101,000 and a remaining five-year useful life. A new machine is available at a cost of $116,000, and Rory can also receive $83,000 for trading in its old machine. The new machine will reduce variable manufacturing costs by $17,000 per year over its five-year useful life. Calculate the incremental income. (Any losses or outflows should be entered with a minus sign.)
Answer:
Incremental Income $52,000
Explanation:
The computation of the incremental income is shown below:
Reduction in variable manufacturing costs ($17,000 × 5) $85,000
Cost of the new machine -$116.000
Cash received from trade in old machine $83,000
Incremental Income $52,000
The machine should replacement as there is an increase in income by $52,000
The most competitively effective and very likely most profitable long-term approach to reduce or eliminate the impact of paying tariffs on pairs imported to a company's distribution warehouse in Europe-Africa is to:___________.
A) raise the selling prices of all footwear being marketed in Europe-Africa by enough to cover somelall of the tariff costs. build and equip a production facility in Europe-Africa and then expand it as may be needed to supply all (or at least most) of the pairs the company intends to try to sell in Europe- Africa.
B) cut distribution and warehouse expenses and marketing expenses per pair sold in Europe Africa by enough to cover some/all of the tariff costs.
C) pursue a strategy of selling fewer pairs in Europe-Africa than rival companies, which will then keep the company's costs for import tariffs in Europe-Africa lower than those of rivals and give the company a competitive advantage based on low tariff costs on its sales in Europe-Africa.
D) pursue a strategy of selling footwear to retailers in Europe-Africa at a wholesale price of $39 per pair or less--no import tariffs have to be paid on branded pairs shipped to footwear retailers in Europe-Africa when the wholesale price is below $40 per pair.
Answer:
build and equip a production facility in Europe-Africa and then expand it as may be needed to supply all (or at least most) of the pairs the company intends to try to sell in Europe- Africa
Explanation:
In order to have effective competition and profitable for the long term approach for decreasing or removing the effect of tariff that would be paid on pairs is that to establish the production facility so that it would get expanded and the same is to be sell in Europe-Africa
Therefore the above represents the answer
The most appealing way to reduce or eliminate the impact of paying tariffs on pairs imported to a company's or organization's distribution warehouse in Europe-Africa is to:
Build and equip a manufacturing plant in Europe-Africa, then expand it as needed to supply all (or at least the majority) of the pairs the company plans to sell in Europe-Africa.To have effective competition and a successful long-term strategy for reducing or eliminating the effect of tariffs paid on pairs, it is necessary to develop a production facility that can be expanded and sold in Europe.Therefore, option A is the correct response to the distribution warehouse.
For more information regarding the Europe-Africa distribution:
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To determine the dutiable status of goods, it is necessary to know their classification, country of origin, and details pertaining to:___________.a. Perishable/non-perishable status.b. Partially or fully manufactured goods.c. Raw materials to be used in production.d. Value.
Answer:
d. Value
Explanation:
The dutiable goods are subjected to duties. Dutiable goods may be defined as the goods and products on which tax have to be paid when they brought to a country from other countries.
In order to known the dutiable status of any goods, it is very important to know the classification of the good, the place of their origin and all the details relating to its value.
When is a variance considered to be 'material'?
a) When it could have been controlled more effectively
b) When it is infrequent
c) When it is unfavorable
d) When it is large compared to the actual cost
Driving skills are a basic qualification of
Military Infantry.
Mail Carriers.
Ambassadors.
Tax Examiners.
Answer quick
Answer: The answer is B mail carriers
Explanation:
Answer: B
Explanation:
Mail carriers
Bonita Company's inventory records show the following data:
Units Unit Cost
Inventory, January 1 10900 $8.00
Purchases: June 18 8700 8.10
November 8 5700 5.00
A physical inventory on December 31 shows 5700 units on hand. Under the FIFO method, the December 31 inventory is:_______
Answer:
$28,500
Explanation:
FIFO will give the same result whether you use perpetual or periodic system.
Ending Inventory = Units Left × Earliest Price
Therefore,
Ending Inventory = 5700 units × $5.00
= $28,500
Magix Productions orders new equipment for the company. The new equipment costs $50,000 and will help the company to save $10,000 annually. What is the average rate of return of the equipment?
A. 15 percent
B. 20 percent
C. 35 percent
D. 40 percent
Answer:
B. 20 percent
Explanation:
The computation of the average rate of return of the equipment is shown below:
= Average net profit or savings ÷ average investment
= ($10,000 ÷ 2) ÷ ($50,000 ÷ 2)
= $5,000 ÷ $25,000
= 20%
hence, the average rate of return of the equipment is 20%
We simply applied the above formula so that the correct value could come
And, the same is to be considered
On January 1, 2018, Brazos Company purchased equipment and signed a six-year mortgage note for $97,000 at 15%. The note will be paid in equal annual installments of $25,631, beginning January 1, 2019. On January 1, 2019, the journal entry to record the first installment payment will include a ________. (Round your answer to the nearest whole number.) A. credit to Mortgage Payable for $97,000
Answer:
the original journal entry should be:
January 1, 2018, equipment purchased
Dr Equipment 97,000
Cr Notes payable 97,000
accrued interest on December 31 2018 should be:
Dr Interest expense 14,550
Cr Interest payable 14,550
the first installment should be recorded as:
January 1, 2019, first installment paid on notes payable
Dr Interest payable 14,550
Dr Notes payable 11,081
Cr Cash 25,631
The firm should shut down if the market price is:___________.
A. above $8.
B. above $6.30 but less than $8.
C. above $4.50 but less than $6.30.
D. less than $4.50.
Answer: D. less than $4.50.
Explanation:
In the short run, a business should shutdown if the market price is below the Average Variable costs as because at this point, only losses are being made if the company stays in action.
If price is below the variable cost, it is best to shutdown so that the company can stop incurring the variable costs and incur the fixed cost alone. The lowest Average Variable cost is $4.50 for this good and so if the price falls below $4.50, the should shutdown.
Susan won $2,000 at the blackjack tables on her birthday. Her winnings are an example of:________.
a. an in-kind transfer.
b. transitory income.
c. life-cycle income.
d. permanent income.
Answer:
B. Transitory income.
Explanation:
As the name sounds, it is seen to be a form of income that is said to be anticipated. This form of income does not play key roles in the standard of living of the said person. This income is clearly a short-lived kind as it cannot hold a person or family towards a certified period of time. Also in many cases, economists are seen to believe that people base their consumption on their permanent income, therefore, inequality in consumption is one gauge of inequality of permanent income; making consumption less effectective, as transitory changes in income, they are more equally is current income.
What type of mortgage requires fixed monthly interest payments for 3 to 5 years whereupon full payment of the mortgage principal is due?
Answer:
Balloon Payment Mortgages
Explanation:
Mortgages are simply loans to persons or businesses to get/purchase homes, land, or other real property.
A balloon payment mortgage is a a type of mortgage known for its ability to not fully amortize over the term of the note, thereby leaving a balance due at maturity. Its last or final payment is called a balloon payment because of its notable large size. This type of mortgages are more more common in commercial real estate than in residential real estate. the above statement of it that it require fixed monthly interest payments for 3 to 5 years whereupon full payment of the mortgage principal is due is correct.
Which of the following is a potential disadvantage when considering long-term loans as an option for raising capital?
OA. They are available to firms with a weak credit rating.
O B. Not all companies can qualify for loans and acceptable terms.
O C. Such loans can restrict the way an organization uses its assets.
D. They require diluting ownership in organizations.
O E. They cannot provide substantial sums of money to businesses.
Answer:
A potential disadvantage when considering long-term loans as an option for raising capital is:
D. They require diluting ownership in organizations.
Explanation:
This potential disadvantage becomes a reality when the long-term loans are converted into shares. At this point, the ownership in the organization is diluted. Ownership dilution reduces the percentage of the ownership of shares in the entity. The investment becomes less attractive to the original owners since more owners are brought on board.
A potential disadvantage when considering long-term loans as an option for raising capital is D. They require diluting ownership in organizations.
A long-term loan refers to a loan that is paid for more than three years. This is different from a short-term loan that is usually expected to be paid back within a few years.
A disadvantage when considering long-term loans as an option for raising capital is that require diluting ownership in organizations. When one doesn't pay back on time, one may lose some percentage of ownership in the company.
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when it comes to managing money success is about 80% knowledge and 20% Behavior true or false
Answer:
huh
Explanation:
do you have a picture of the question because I don't get it but I'm trying to help
Here I Sit Sofas has 7,500 shares of common stock outstanding at a price of $98 per share. There are 760 bonds that mature in 34 years with a coupon rate of 7.2 percent paid semiannually. The bonds have a par value of $2,000 each and sell at 110.5 percent of par. The company also has 6,400 shares of preferred stock outstanding at a price of $51 per share. What is the capital structure weight of the debt
Answer:
61.28%
Explanation:
Equity market value = Number of shares*price/share
Equity market value = 7,500 * $98
Equity market value = $735,000
Current debt value = Number of bonds*price/bond
Current debt value = 760*(1.105*2000)
Current debt value = $1,679,600
Preferred stock value = Number of shares*price/share
Preferred stock value = 6,400 * $51
Preferred stock value = $326,400
Total capital = Common equity value + Debt value + Preferred stock value
Total capital = $735,000 + $1,679,600 + $326,400
Total capital = $2,741,000
Weight of debt = Debt value / Total capital
Weight of debt = $1,679,600 / $2,741,000
Weight of debt = 0.6127690623859905
Weight of debt = 61.28%
An aging of a company's accounts receivable indicates that $8400 are estimated to be uncollectible. If Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has a $3800 credit balance, the adjustment to record bad debts for the period will require a:_____.
1. debit to Bad Debts Expense for $1,800.
2. debit to Bad Debt Expense for $2,200.
3. credit to Allowance for Doubtful Accounts for $3,000.
4. debit to Bad Debts Expense for $2,000.
Answer:
Debit to Bad Debts Expense for $4,600
Explanation:
Based on the information given we were told that the company's accounts receivable shows the amount of $8400 which was estimated to be uncollectible which means that If Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has the amount of $3800 as credit balance, the adjustment to record bad debts for the period will require a Debit to Bad Debts Expense for $4,600 calculated as
Bad Debts Expense=Accounts receivable-Allowance for Doubtful Accounts
Bad Debts Expense=$8,400-$3,800
Bad Debts Expense=$4,600
How do i get as much mony as bill gates todey?
Answer:
be very famous
Explanation:
thinking strategically about industry and competitive conditions in a given industry involves evaluating such considerations as
Answer:
E. how often sellers alter their prices, how sensitive buyers are to price differences among sellers, whether the item being purchased is a good or a service, and whether buyers buy frequently or infrequently.
Explanation:
Options are "A. cultural, lifestyle, and demographic changes, B. the birth of new industries, new knowledge, and disruptive technologies, C. weather, climate change, and water shortages, D. interest rates, exchange rates, unemployment rates, inflation rates, and economic growth, E. how often sellers alter their prices, how sensitive buyers are to price differences among sellers, whether the item being purchased is a good or a service, and whether buyers buy frequently or infrequently."
Thinking strategically about industry and competitive conditions in a given industry involves evaluating such considerations as how often sellers alter their prices, how sensitive buyers are to price differences among sellers, whether the item being purchased is a good or a service, and whether buyers buy frequently or infrequently.
The strategy decision making about the industry and competitive conditions involve evaluating the prices, buyer sensitivity to the prices, serviceability & frequency.
Franklin corporation issues $97,000, 8%, 5-year bonds on January 1, for $101,370. Interest is paid semiannually on January 1 and July 1. If Franklin uses the straight-line method of amortization of bond premium, the amount of bond interest expense to be recognized on July 1 is:________.
a. $4,317
b. $7,760
c. $3,443
d. $3,880
Answer:
c. $3,443
Explanation:
Date Account Titles Debit Credit
Jan 1 Cash 101370
Bond payable 97000
Premium on issue of bonds 4,370
(101370-97000)
Jul 1 Interest expenses (3680 - 437) 3,443
Premium on issue on bond 437
(4379/5 * 6/12)
Cash (97,000*8%*6/12) 3,800
The common stock of the C.A.L.L. Corporation has been trading in a narrow range around $50 per share for months. The price of a 3-month put option with an exercise price of $50 is $4. If the risk-free interest rate is 10% per year, what must be the price of a 3-month call option on C.A.L.L. stock at an exercise price of $50 if it is at the money
Answer:
$5.18
Explanation:
Calculation for call option
Using this formula
Call option=Put option + Exercise price-[Exercise price/(1+Risk-free interest rate)^Time
Let plug in the formula
Call option= 4 + 50 - [50/(1+.10)^1/4]
Call option= 4 + 50 - [50/(1.10)^1/4]
Call option= $5.18
Therefore what must be the price of a 3-month call option on C.A.L.L. stock at an exercise price of $50 if it is at the money is $5.18
g __________ conversion is the least expensive and highest risk IS conversion strategy because the old system is cut off and the new system is turned on at a certain point in tim
Answer:
Direct
Explanation:
There are different types of conversion systems. Example includes the direct conversion and parallel conversion.
In this conversion system, users stops using the old system one day and starts using the next system the next.
Its requires fewer resources and is simple if nothing goes wrong. Risk involved mostly if the hardware and software are old or at a cutting edge.
Direct conversion is said to be an abrupt change where the the old system is simply unplugged and the new system is turned on. It does not allow users with any choice but to work with the new system. It is said to be risky and least cost.
Short Company purchased land by paying $22,000 cash on the purchase date and agreed to pay $22,000 for each of the next seven years beginning one-year from the purchase date. Short's incremental borrowing rate is 10%. On the balance sheet as of the purchase date, after the initial $22,000 payment was made, the liability reported is closest to: (FV of $1, PV of $1, FVA of $1, and PVA of $1) (Use appropriate factor(s) from the tables provided.)
Answer:
The liability reported is closest to $107,105.21.
Explanation:
This can be calculated using the formula for calculating the present value of an ordinary annuity as follows:
PV = P * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) …………………………………. (1)
Where;
PV = Present value or the the liability reported =?
P = Annuity payment = $22,000
r = Student's desired return rate = 10%, or 0.10
n = number of years = 7
Substitute the values into equation (1) to have:
PV = $22,000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.10))^7) / 0.10)
PV = $22,000 * 4.86841881769293
PV = $107,105.21
Therefore, the liability reported is closest to $107,105.21.