according to federal guidelines, hospices may provide no more than what percentage of the aggregate annual patient-days at the inpatient level?

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Answer 1

Federal guidelines state that hospices are only allowed to administer 20% of total annual inpatient patient days.

Who Can Receive Hospice Care?

1. Palliative care has been chosen by the patient and/or family when the illness is terminal (with a prognosis of less than six months).

2. The patient's nutritional condition has changed; for example, over the past 4-6 months, there has been a > 10% loss of body weight.

3. Reduced capacity for physical activity.

4. Decline in brain function.

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assessment of a patient who complains of the sudden onset of chest discomfort reveals a central intravenous catheter to his right upper chest. while assessing this piece of medical​ equipment, which finding related to the catheter should be of greatest concern to the​ emt?

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The line of the catheter should be unclamped and without a cap is the greatest concern to the emt (emergency medical technician) for treating chest discomfort.

What is the use of catheter attached to the chest?

Cardiac catheterization is used to test the reason for having chest pain and abnormal heart rhythm. It is a small, flexible, hollow tube fixed into the blood vessel in the groin, arm, or neck that will enter into the blood vessel of aorta.

Chest discomfort is caused by heartburn (burning sensation behind the breastbone) occurs when acid in the stomach washes up from stomach into the tube.

It may also be caused by:

Heart attack- blockage of blood flow to the heart muscleAngina pectoris- Chest pain caused by the reduced blood flow in the heartPericarditis- Swelling and irritation of the membrane surrounding the heart (Pericardium)Myocarditis- Swelling or inflammation of the middle layer of heart wall (Myocardium).

Hence, catheter should be unclamped and without a cap to minimize the pressure in the tube during the introduction to right upper chest.

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the nurse is caring for a client with copd who was recently admitted to the hospital with an acute exacerbation of the illness. what indicates to the nurse that the client is in the comeback phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness?

Answers

There are no symptoms felt. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbations are periods of worsening symptoms that cause significant morbidity and mortality.

Which of the following qualifies as a chronic illness symptom?

Complex causation, with several causes contributing to their beginning, is one of the most common characteristics of chronic diseases. a protracted period of development during which there may be no symptoms. a lengthy illness that can cause additional health issues.

Choose all that apply to the following conditions that are chronic illnesses that cause death.

Heart disease, cancer, stroke, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and diabetes are the five chronic diseases that account for more than two-thirds of all fatalities.

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which strength test best measures muscular endurance? a. 1-minute sit-up test b. bench press (1rm) c. grip strength d. leg press (1rm)

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The best strength measure test for muscular endurance is a. 1-minute sit-up test

What is muscular endurance ?

The capacity of a muscle or group of muscles to sustain repeated contractions against a force over an extended period of time is known as muscular endurance. The more repetitions you could perform, the stronger your muscle endurance was.

The term "muscular endurance" describes a muscle's capacity to continue contracting repeatedly despite opposition for an extended period of time. Long-distance running, cycling, or swimming, as well as circuit training and bodyweight workouts, are exercises that increase muscle endurance.

Push-ups, sit-ups, and repeated squat tests were used to measure the muscular endurance of subjects. The push-up test evaluates how well the arm, shoulder, and trunk muscles work to stabilize the trunk during performance.

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the nurse is performing nasotracheal suctioning. after suctioning the client's trachea for fifteen seconds, large amounts of thick yellow secretions return. what action should the nurse implement next?

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A nurse performing nasotracheal suction, suctioning the patient's trachea for 15 seconds, returns a profuse dark yellow discharge. The nurse should then re-oxygenate the patient before attempting suction again.

What is Nasotracheal Suctioning and can nurses use nasotracheal suction?Nasotracheal suctioning is one of the most common methods of maintaining a patient's airway. A flexible catheter is inserted through the nose and throat into the trachea to remove secretions, blood, vomit, and other foreign objects.A registered nurse (RN), licensed practice nurse (LPN), or respiratory therapist can perform nasotracheal suctioningHow does nasopharyngeal and nasotracheal suction differ each other?The most important difference between nasopharyngeal and nasotracheal aspiration is that nasotracheal aspiration is more invasive. This means that the latter requires longer catheters and greater precision. Nasopharyngeal suctioning is indicated when there is evidence of fluid retention but the child is unable to expel the fluid on its own and the fluid is deep in the airways.

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which condition causes hypoventilation in a patient who has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (

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In a patient with a history of both diabetes mellitus and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), an excess of oxygen therapy results in hypoventilation.

How can hypoventilation occur?

The term "hypoventilation" refers to breathing that is either too shallow or too slowly for the body's needs. The amount of CO2 in the body increases when someone hypoventilates. Acid level increases and there is insufficient oxygen in the blood as a result of this. Hypoventilation can make a person feel dizzy.

What is the ideal course of action for COPD?

Short-acting bronchodilator inhalers are the initial line of treatment for the majority of COPD patients. By broadening your airways, bronchodilators help you breathe more easily. Short-acting bronchodilator inhalers come in two varieties: beta-2 agonist inhalers, such as salbutamol and terbutaline.

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Overdose of oxygen therapy causes hypoventilation in a patient who has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

What is hypoventilation?

It is breathing that is too shallow or too slow to meet the needs of the body. If a person hypoventilates, the body's carbon dioxide level rises.

This causes a buildup of acid and too little oxygen in blood

What is obstructive pulmonary disease?

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a chronic inflammatory lung disease that causes obstructed airflow from lungs.

Symptoms include breathing difficulty, cough, mucus production and wheezing.Smoking is main cause of COPD and is thought to be responsible for around 9 in every 10 cases.

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the nurse is reviewing the record of a newborn infant in the nursery and notes that the primary health care provider (phcp) has documented the presence of a cephalohematoma. based on this documentation, what should the nurse expect to note on assessment of the infant?

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The nurse should expect : Edema caused from bleeding below the brain's periosteum.

What is Edema ?

Edema is an engorgement of fluid in your bodily tissues that results in swelling. Edema can affect any area of your body, although it tends to manifest itself more visibly in the hands, arms, feet, ankles, and legs.

Edema can be brought on by medicine, pregnancy, or an underlying illness, which is frequently cirrhosis of the liver, congestive heart failure, or kidney disease.

Edema is frequently relieved by taking medications to drain extra fluid and consuming less salt. When edema is a symptom of an underlying illness, that illness needs to be treated separately.

Edema symptoms include:

Especially in your legs or arms, there may be swelling or puffiness in the tissue that lies right under your skin.

elongated skin

skin that, after being pushed for a few seconds, still has dimples (pits)

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name 2 conditions that require anticoagulant therapy. please indicated for each condition if therapy will be short or long term?

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Medication are often used to treat and prevent; the most common situation for this is heart disease .

What is the most used therapy?

Cognitive behaviour therapy may currently be the most popular form of therapy (CBT). CBT investigates the connection between a person's feelings, thoughts, and behaviors, as was previously mentioned. It usually focuses on identifying unfavorable thoughts and changing them to better ones.

Why is therapy so important?

You get the chance to examine your thoughts, feelings, your behavioral patterns when you engage in therapy with only a psychologist, therapist, and counselor. Moreover, it can help you develop new strategies to cope and methods for handling daily pressures and symptoms related to your disease.

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the nurse is caring for an 8-month-old infant. a urinalysis has been prescribed, and the nurse plans to collect the specimen. which method should be used for urine collection in an infant?

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For collecting urine the nurse should do Option b) that is : Attaching a urine collection device to the infant's perineum

What is a urine collecting device ?

The most popular way to collect urine samples from people, especially men, is midstream (clean-catch) urine collection. This technique enables the collection of a specimen devoid of external contamination without the need for catheterization.

The most frequent cause of severe bacterial infections in febrile children younger than 90 days is urinary tract infections (UTIs). In order to diagnose a condition, urine must be collected using one of four methods: clean-catch, suprapubic aspiration, urethral catheterization, or sterile urine bags (CC).

This sample will be collected by a medical professional using a catheter. With an antiseptic, the region around the urethra is cleaned. To collect the urine, a tiny catheter is inserted into the baby's bladder.

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during shift change report, the nurse receives report that a client has abnormal heart sounds. which placement of the stethoscope should the nurse use to hear the client's heart sounds?

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Over the anterior chest's valvular areas, place the stethoscope bell.

When a client with a nasogastric tube complains of nausea, what urgent step would the nurse take?

Some patients could be permitted to eat ice chips. Report it right away if the patient has nausea, stomach pain, or any of these symptoms, or if they start to vomit. The drainage tube has to be watered because it is possibly blocked in flow. Never allow these patients to rest entirely flat.

The diaphragm is best at transferring higher frequency sounds, whereas the bell is best at sending lower frequency sounds. Some stethoscopes have a single surface that serves both of these purposes.

All of the anterior lobes of the lungs should be thoroughly auscultated.

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a multivitamin/mineral is recommended for all patients with pressure injuries. group of answer choices true false

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It is untrue that all patients with pressure injuries should take a multivitamin/mineral.

What is important to prevent injuries?

Warm up to improve blood circulation and also to relax your body. Any slow, rhythmic motions were beneficial, including taking deep breathes. Stretching carefully, only remaining in each position for 20 seconds at a time. Do not stretch parts that are already sore or to the point of pain.

Which is best to prevent injury?

One of the best ways to prevent injury is to keep your body fluid and flexible. So accomplish this, incorporate flexibility exercises into your routine. According to Radcliffe, more the supple your physique is, the more range of motion you enjoy and the lower your risk of injury.

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a client with a traumatic brain injury is able, with eyes closed, to identify a set of keys placed in his or her hands. on the basis of this assessment finding, the nurse determines that there is appropriate function of which lobe of the brain?

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The parietal lobe is suspected to be affected after the brain injury patient was able to identify the set of keys placed in his or her hands.

What is the Parietal lobe?

Just behind the parietal bone of the skull is where the parietal lobe is located. This crucial brain region supports the integration of sensory information and language processing.

What is a Brain?

The brain is made up of a variety of specialized regions that cooperate:

The cortex is composed of the brain's outermost layer of cells. The cortex is where thought and free will movement start. Between the spinal cord and the base of the brain is the brain stem. Here, you can regulate fundamental processes like breathing and sleeping.The brain's core contains a collection of structures known as the basal ganglia. Messages between numerous additional brain areas are coordinated by the basal ganglia.

The base and back of the brain contain the cerebellum. Balance and coordination are functions of the cerebellum.

Hence, the parietal lobe is suspected to be affected after the brain injury patient was able to identify the set of keys placed in his or her hands.

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the nurse will notify the health care provider immediately if the client taking amoxicillin for otitis media is also taking what medication?

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The nurse will notify the health care provider immediately if the client taking amoxicillin for otitis media is also taking tetracycline for acne

Amoxicillin is first-line antibiotic recommended by most scientific societies for treatment of uncomplicated acute otitis media (AOM) in children and adults

Tetracycline works by slowing down growth of the bacteria that cause acne. It also acts as anti-inflammatory, so it helps make pimples less swollen and red.

The tetracycline class of antibiotics inhibits C. acnes growth in pilosebaceous unit thus making the tetracyclines successful in treating acne.

Ear infections happen when bacteria or virus infect and trap fluid behind eardrum, causing pain and swelling/bulging of the eardrum.

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a nurse needs to administer a continuous medication drip to a client. the nurse knows that, for a continuous infusion, she will likely need to add medication to which volume of iv solution?

Answers

The amount of medication she will need to add is Option C that is 500 to 1000 ml

What is a continuous infusion ?

A parenteral medication is infused continuously over several hours. Adding medication to a sizable amount of IV solution—approximately 500 to 1,000 cc, not less—is known as a continuous drip and is done in this manner.

We defined "continuous infusion" as continuous intravenous administration throughout a 24-hour period, and "intermittent dosing" as the administration of an intravenous infusion for a duration of less than or equal to 30 minutes.

In the following situations, continuous infusion should be taken into account: children have pain for which oral and intermittent parenteral opioids do not sufficiently control pain; intractable vomiting prevents oral medications;

IV lines are not preferred; and children would prefer to stay at home despite severe pain.

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select all that apply: the nurse is assessing the abilities of an older adult. which activities are considered iadl’s?

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The nurse is assessing abilities of an older adult then activities that are considered IADLs are : preparing a meal, balancing checkbook and grocery shopping.

What is IADLs?

The major domains of IADLs are cooking, cleaning, transportation, laundry, and also managing finances. Occupational therapist assess IADLs in the setting of rehab to determine the level of need of an individual for assistance and cognitive function.

Instrumental activities of daily living or IADLs are the things that you do every day to take care of yourself and home.

IADLs are the self-care tasks we generally learn as teenagers. They require  complex thinking skills and  including organizational skills. They also include: managing finances like paying bills and managing financial assets.

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the nurse will notify the health care provider immediately if the client taking amoxicillin for otitis media is also taking what medication?

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The nurse will notify the health care provider immediately if the client taking amoxicillin for otitis media is also taking tetracycline for acne.

Tetracycline is used to treat acne and typically manifests as hives or wheals on the skin after a hypersensitivity reaction.

Infections are treated with tetracyclines, and they also aid in controlling acne. Your doctor may prescribe demeclocycline, doxycycline, or minocycline for further issues. Tetracyclines won't help with the flu, the cold, or any other viral illnesses.

Middle ear irritation or infection is known as otitis media. An infection of the respiratory system, a cold, or a sore throat can all lead to otitis media.

An infection of the air-filled area behind the eardrum is known as otitis media (the middle ear).

Acute otitis media Bacteria or viruses are typically the culprits behind ear infections.

Fever and ear discomfort are typical symptoms. Hearing loss or fluid leaking from the ear are less frequent possibilities.

The majority of ear infections heal on their own. Many people need antibiotics.

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hillcrest health system includes an acute care hospital, a nursing facility, and primary care clinics. all records are stored in the him department, thus making the file area very active. for scheduled visits to primary care providers, records must be requisitioned 24 hours in advance. this is a(n) requisition.

Answers

It is a planned requisition before 24 hours. Offer you this notice of our legal obligations with regard to your health information, maintain the privacy of any health information that identifies you, and adhere to the provisions of the notice that is now in place.

Which numbering scheme compiles all pieces of information on a patient into a single file or location?

Patients are assigned a new number under serial-unit numbering each time they register with the institution, and records from an earlier admission or encounter are given the new number. The most recent folder contains the most recent copies of all patient records.

Which of the following describes a health record's secondary purpose?

The management of the health system, including improving patient safety, resource planning, system evaluation, and quality improvement, is one of these "secondary functions."

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you have been called to a residence for a patient who is sick and not feeling well. the patient has multiple medical problems and is confined to​ bed, with care provided by family members. the patient has a gastric tube and an indwelling urinary catheter. which assessment finding should raise your suspicion that the patient has a urinary tract​ infection?

Answers

The catheter bag must be positioned beneath the patient's bladder by the EMT. The patient is being looked for by family members despite having numerous medical issues. There is a gastric tube in the patient.

What is the purpose of a gastric tube?

A gastrostomy tube, commonly known as a G-tube, is a tube that is put into the stomach to deliver food directly to a stomach. It's one method doctors can guarantee that picky eaters get the calories and fluids they require.

A stomach tube is it everlasting?

Having a gastrostomy might be permanent or temporary. Compared to NG- or NJ-tube feeding, it is regarded as a longer-term alternative feeding technique. (Feeding through NJ tube also occurs through the nose,

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a client who is in hospice care reports increasing amounts of pain. the healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. which action should the nurse implement?

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The action that should the nurse implement is to give an around-the-clock schedule for the administration of analgesics.

What is Analgesic?

An analgesic may be defined as a type a class of drug or medication that is specifically designed in order to relieve pain, but which is less potent and safer than opioids.

These analgesics may include acetaminophen (Tylenol), which is available over the counter (OTC) or by prescription when combined with another drug, and opioids (narcotics), which are only available by prescription.

Therefore, giving an around-the-clock schedule for the administration of analgesics is the action that should the nurse implement under the given scenario.

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an adult client with low functioning down syndrom (trisomy 21) appears in the emergency department via ambulance after an accident. which assessment method would be the best instrument to use when determining the client's level of pain

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Using the "Wong-Baker FACES Pain" Rating Scale, to assess the level of pain of the patient with down syndrome.

What is Down syndrome?

Chromosome 21 is duplicated extra, in this syndrome. The physical traits and developmental abnormalities associated with down syndrome are brought on by this excess genetic material. It can cause developmental delays and intellectual handicap that lasts a lifetime, depending on the individual. It is the most frequent genetic chromosomal defect and the root of learning impairments in kids. Additionally, it frequently results in gastrointestinal and cardiac conditions.

What is Pain?

Uncomfortable bodily feelings are generally referred to as pain. It results from nervous system stimulation. Pain can be bothersome or incapacitating. It could feel like mild pain or a violent stabbing. Also, possible adjectives for it are throbbing, pinching, stinging, scorching, or sore.

Hence, it can be concluded that using the "Wong-Baker FACES Pain" Rating Scale, to assess the level of pain of the patient with down syndrome.

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a nursing assistant wants to check the temperature of a patient. however, when she enters the room of the patient, she discovers that the patient very recently had a cold drink. how long should the nursing assistant wait before taking the oral temperature of the patient?

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The nurse should wait for 10 to 20 minutes before taking the oral temperature of the patient who recently had a cold drink.

You will receive an incorrect reading if you take a patient's oral temperature after he or she has taken a hot or cold drink. The average time it takes for a patient's temperature to return to normal after consuming a cold beverage is 15 minutes, according to nurses who studied this issue.

Clinical judgments have long been based on oral temperature. It has been suggested that consuming cold drinks, like iced water, which is usually available at patients' bedsides or in clinic waiting areas, may reduce oral temperature readings.

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the nurse is teaching a client proper use of an inhaler. when should the client administer the inhaler-delivered medication to demonstrate correct use of the inhaler?

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It is best to give the client instructions to administer the medication during the last part of inhalation.

When administering medication using an inhaler you should?

Inhale via the inhaler. As you begin to breathe in slowly, immediately press down on the inhaler to release the medication. Take three to five deep breaths. Hold your breath for ten seconds to allow the medication to enter your lungs deeply.

What should you assess before administering Albuterol?

Indications: The treatment of asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease with albuterol is widely utilized (COPD). Nursing Considerations: Prior to and following administration, listen for changes in breathing rate, oxygen saturation, and lung sounds. If multiple inhalations are required, at least two minutes should pass between each ONE.

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the client has been taking levofloxacin iv since admission 12 hours ago for a urinary tract infection. the nurse assesses the client's temperature at 99.8ºf. what is the nurse's best response?

Answers

The optimal nursing reaction is to continue monitoring vital signs since the nurse determines that the client's temperature is 99.8ºf.

What is urinary tract infection?

Urinary tract infections are any infections of the urinary system (UTI). The lower urinary system, which includes the bladder and urethra, is where the majority of infections occur.

Women are more prone to develop a UTI than males. Even a bladder-specific infection can be uncomfortable and painful. However, a UTI can spread to the kidneys and result in serious medical problems. A urinary traction infection is a common infection of the urinary system (UTI). Any component of your urinary system, including the urethra, ureters, bladder, and kidneys, can be impacted by a UTI. Frequent urination, discomfort during urination, and side or lower back pain are typical symptoms

What causes a urinary tract infection (UTI)?

Urinary tract infections are brought on by microbes, primarily bacteria, that enter the urethra and bladder and cause inflammation and infection. UTIs most frequently occur in the urethra and bladder, but bacteria can also travel up the ureters and infect your kidneys.

E. coli, a bacteria that typically lives in the intestines, is responsible for more than 90% of bladder infections.

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a young client is being treated for a femoral fracture suffered in a snowboarding accident. the nurse's most recent assessment reveals that the client is uncharacteristically confused. what diagnostic test should be performed on this client?

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A young client is being treated for a femoral fracture suffered in a snowboarding accident. the nurse's most recent assessment reveals that the client is uncharacteristically confused. So, arterial blood gases (ABG) diagnostic test should be performed on this patient.

What are arterial blood gases used for?

Due to the risk of fat embolism syndrome, subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, or disorientation in a patient who has received a fracture are grounds for prompt arterial blood gas investigations. This evaluation finding does not suggest that electrolyte levels, an ECG, or abdominal ultrasound are required right away.

What causes arterial blood gas?

An arterial blood gases (ABG) test determines the acidity (pH) and amounts of oxygen and carbon dioxide in artery blood.

This test determines how well your lungs can transfer oxygen into your blood and eliminate carbon dioxide from your blood.

This can occur as a consequence of the lungs failing to function correctly (called respiratory acidosis) or as a result of a buildup of acid from metabolic reasons, most commonly as a result of tissues being deprived of oxygen (called metabolic acidosis).

So, arterial blood gases (ABG) diagnostic test should be performed on this patient.

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a patient has (age-related) osteoporosis. they are seen for an initial encounter in the ed and diagnosed with a current pathological fracture of the right humerus. which icd10cm code is assigned to describe this scenario?

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A patient has (age-related) osteoporosis. They are seen for an initial encounter in the ed and diagnosed with a current pathological fracture of the right humerus. ICD code-M8 1.0 is assigned to describe this scenario.

What is the ICD-10 code for osteoporosis caused by advancing age?

Age-Related Osteoporosis without Current Pathological Fracture is a billable ICD-10 code used for healthcare diagnosis reimbursement. Age-related osteoporosis with a recent pathological fracture is classified as a medical condition by the WHO under the category of osteopathies and chondropathies, and its ICD-9 code is 733.

ICD-10 code M81.0, which is billable for osteoporosis, unspecified, is typically used to code DEXA scan or bone density scan procedure codes. The two most common diagnoses used to code DEXA scan examinations are osteoporosis and osteoeopenia.

The WHO classifies ICD-10 code Z13. 820, Encounter for osteoporosis screening, as a medical condition that falls under the heading of "Factors influencing health status and interaction with health services."

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to maintain skeletal, muscular, and cardiovascular health, a child should be physically active for at least minutes each day?

Answers

Children and  adolescent between the ages of 6 and 17 should engage in 60 minutes (or more) of moderate-intensity physical activity each day.

What characterizes adolescence?

A teen who has begun puberty but who has not yet reached adulthood. A kid goes through physical, hormonal, and cognitive changes during adolescence that signal the start of adulthood. Typically, adolescence occurs in older of ten and 19.

When does adolescence officially end?

Puberty, which is biologically normal, signals the start of adolescence, which ends when an adulthood identity and behavior are accepted. The World Health defines adolescence as the time between ages of 10 to 19 years, which generally correlates to this developmental stage.

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a nurse is teaching an older adult client to use an incentive spirometer following hip replacement surgery when the client asks why using this machine is necessary. how will the nurse respond?

Answers

You can be asked to wear a spirometer after surgery if you suffer from lung conditions, a smoking history or have been inactive for a time.

What is the purpose of a spirometer?

A spirometer is indeed a diagnostic tool that analyzes your capacity to breathe both in and out as well as how long it takes someone to completely exhale after taking a deep breath. You must breath into a tube connected to a device called a spirometer in order to undergo a spirometry test.

Is using a spirometer a healthy lung exercise?

The way a lung-training equipment works is similar to how an incentive spirometer works. It helps to maintain lung health or helps weak lungs recover after an illness and damage. A motivating spirometer after surgery

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question 1 according to research by the national survey on drug use and health (nsduh), in 2013 an estimated 28.7 million people reported driving under the influence of alcohol at least once during the previous year. a) true b) false

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According to research by the national survey on drug use and health (nsduh), in 2013 an estimated 28.7 million people reported driving under the influence of alcohol at least once during the previous year, the statement is true.

What is drug?

Anything that is used to treat, diagnose, or relieve the symptoms of an illness or other abnormal condition that is not food. Additionally, drugs may alter the way the brain and the rest of the body function, resulting in modifications to mood, consciousness, thoughts, feelings, or behavior.

Why is it called drug?

Etymology. The term "drug" in English is assumed to derive from the Old French "drogue," maybe from "droge (vate)" from Middle Dutch meaning "dry (barrels)," alluding to medicinal herbs kept as dry materials in barrels.

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a patient at a hospital was poisoned. it was found that her tissues had higher than normal amounts of pyruvate, lower than normal amounts of nadh, and lower than normal amounts of intermembrane h . what specific part of cellular respiration is being interrupted in this patient? how did you determine this?

Answers

No exchange of gases would occur. Due to a lack of oxygen, cells, tissues, and other organs will begin to perish. Within the cells and tissues, carbon dioxide will begin to build up.

Both the amount of oxygen taken in and the amount of carbon dioxide released can be used to determine the rate of cellular respiration. The rate of cellular respiration can be determined using respirometers, which are instruments that measure these kinds of gas volume changes.

What aspect of the cells' function was disrupted in the patients?

In these patients, the process of cellular respiration was disrupted. Since the body needs energy to carry out other functions, which was produced during cellular respiration, this could result in death.

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many elderly patients appear to be stooped as if they have recently lost weight. the main reason for this can be attributed to?

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Many older patients appear to be stooped as if they have recently lost weight because of calcium loss in the body, which causes changes in the spinal column.

This stooped posture, also known as hyperkyphosis, or an overly rounded upper spinal column, is the result of a number of reasons. These include disc degeneration, osteoporosis, and a loss of muscle strength. The vertebrae, which are the bones that make up the spinal column, are cushioned by discs.

Parkinson's disease is characterized by a stooped posture. This hunched posture has been linked to an increase in muscular stiffness or rigidity. Parkinson's disease is characterized by a forward head, rounded shoulders, increased thoracic kyphosis, increased trunk flexion, and knee bending.

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the texas department of health has isolated yersinia pestis from wood rats and prairie dogs in west texas and the texas panhandle. in addition to the fever, chills, and severe headache, this patient has developed hemorrhages under the skin. what disease is this camper likely to have? the texas department of health has isolated yersinia pestis from wood rats and prairie dogs in west texas and the texas panhandle. in addition to the fever, chills, and severe headache, this patient has developed hemorrhages under the skin. what disease is this camper likely to have? septicemic plague pneumonic plague bubonic plague tularemia

Answers

Bubonic plague is a disease that campers are likely to have.

What is the bubonic plague?

The most prevalent type of plague is bubonic plague. The plague happens when a person is bitten by an infected flea or when objects contaminated with yersinia pestis enter through a skin breach.

How plague is discovered and diagnosed

On board ships, rats carried fleas and the bubonic plague. The bubonic plague, often known as the "Black Death," was so named because the majority of those who contracted it perished and many frequently had gangrenous tissue. The bubonic plague lacked a treatment. By collecting samples from the patient, particularly blood or a portion of a swollen lymph gland, and sending them to the lab for analysis, a diagnosis can be obtained. Once the plague has been ruled out as a possible cause of the illness, the proper course of treatment should begin immediately.

Hence, campers have bubonic plague.

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