a village school starts at 8.30am and end at 3.45pm.how long is the school day
​

Answer:

look at the picture i sent...........

Answer:

523.3

Step-by-step explanation:

The volume of a cone is 1/3 hB where h is the height and B is the area of the base.

Step 1: Find the area of the base (B). The base of a cone is a circle so use the formula pi*r^2. Plug in numbers. 3.14*10^2. 3.14*100=314

Step 2: Plug into the formula. 1/3(5*314) --> 1/3(1570)=523.3

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{12u^3+8u^2-6u+9}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex](8u^3+8u^2+6)+(4u^3-6u+3) = 8u^3+8u^2+6+4u^3-6u+3[/tex]

Once

[tex]8x+4x = 12x, \text{ as } x = u^3[/tex]

[tex]8u^3+8u^2+6+4u^3-6u+3 = 12u^3+8u^2+6-6u+3 = \boxed{12u^3+8u^2-6u+9}[/tex]

You don't need to factor.

Answer:

Total paint left over = [tex]\frac{13}{12}L[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given - To paint a house, 5/4 L of white paint and 1/2 L of blue paint

             were mixed. In the end only 2/3 L of the mixture were used.

To find - How many liters of paint were left over ?

Proof -

Given that,

5/4 L of white paint and 1/2 L of blue paint were mixed.

So, total mixture = [tex](\frac{5}{4} + \frac{1}{2})L[/tex]

                          = [tex]\frac{5 + 2}{4}L[/tex]

                          = [tex]\frac{7}{4}L[/tex]

⇒Total mixture =  [tex]\frac{7}{4}L[/tex]

Now,

Given that ,

In the end only 2/3 L of the mixture were used.

So, total mixture left = [tex](\frac{7}{4} - \frac{2}{3})L[/tex]

                                = [tex]\frac{21 - 8}{12}L[/tex]

                                = [tex]\frac{13}{12}L[/tex]

∴ we get

Total paint left over = [tex]\frac{13}{12}L[/tex]

Answer: 10.5

Step-by-step explanation:

The median is the middle number in a data set, so in this set 5,6,10,11,12,16

the mean of 10 and 11 would be the median.

Answer:

question 1(2)

answer 4

question 2(3)

answer 1

question 3(4)

(a)6; factored

(b)7; factored

c(8); factored

Answer:

i got 65.8/9. i hope this is correct , if not, i wish you the besy<3

Answer:

62.7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 220 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's write the equations for each case:

A Hertz Rent-a Car:

Charges a fixed amount of $40, plus a $0.10 per mile.

Then if you drive x miles, we get a total cost of:

C(x) = $40 + $0.10*x

Enterprise Rent-A-Car:

Chares a fixed amount of $18 plus $0.20 per mile, so if you drive x miles, the cost is:

K(x) = $18 + $0.20*x

Now, we want to find how many miles you can drive such that you would pay the same in both companies.

Then we need to find x such that:

C(x) = K(x)

$40 + $0.10*x = $18 + $0.20*x

Let's solve this for x.

$40 - $18 = $0.20*x - $0.10*x

$22 = ($0.20 - $0.10)*x

$22 = $0.10*x

$22/$0.10 = x

220 = x

So if you drive exactly 220 miles, you would pay the same in both companies.

Answer:

163 I would think

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

y = 2x - 1

Step-by-step explanation:

-1 is the y-intersect of the slope

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The prime factorization of 200 using exponential notation is [tex]2^{3}\times 5^{2}[/tex].

Step-by-step explanation:

First, we decompose the number given on statement by applying prime numbers in ascending order. We see that 200 is an even number, therefore, we infer that smallest prime number within is 2.

1) [tex]\frac{200}{2} = 100[/tex] (Even number)

2) [tex]\frac{100}{2} = 50[/tex] (Even number)

3) [tex]\frac{50}{2} = 25[/tex] (Even number)

4) [tex]\frac{25}{5} = 5[/tex] (Odd number, not a multiple of 3, but a multiple of 5 since last digit is 5)

5) [tex]\frac{5}{5} = 1[/tex] (Odd number, not a multiple of 3, but a multiple of 5 since last digit is 5)

Now, we construct the prime factorization using exponential notation:

[tex]200 = 2^{3}\times 5^{2}[/tex]

The prime factorization of 200 using exponential notation is [tex]2^{3}\times 5^{2}[/tex].

Answer:

2 * 3 * 5

Step-by-step explanation:

made a 100 on the text trust!!!!!

Answer:

He had 5 minutes left for question C.

Step-by-step explanation:

20 minutes to do the quiz.

He spent:

11 minutes on question A

4 minutes of question B.

So, for the first 2 questions, he used 15 minutes.

How much time did he have left for question C?

Total of 20 minutes, in the first two questions he used 15. So

20 - 15 = 5

He had 5 minutes left for question C.

Answer:

the answer is 3/6 cause you go up 3 and over 6

Answer:250 feet

Step-by-step explanation: a rectangle has four sides, now you have two numbers, 70 and 50. so you do  4÷2 = 2 now take 2 a multiply it 70(140) now do it with 50(100) now add em (250) it is how i do it

Answer:

I would help but I don’t know what all of those symbols are.

Answer:

24

Step-by-step explanation:

Area of a triangle

A = 1/2 bh

b=12

h=4

A= 1/2 * 12 * 4

A = 24

Answer:

1/8th of a foot

Step-by-step explanation:

All you have to do is divide the 5 feet by how ever many sections there are in this case it's 8.

5 / 8 = 0.625 = 1/8

Answer:

A. (y - 2) = 3/2 ( x + 1)

Explanation:

The point-slope formula is ( y - y1) = m ( x - x1). Just distribute the given where m is 3/2, x1 = - 1 and y1 = 2.

Answer:

1.5 moles

Step-by-step explanation:

number of moles = no. of particles / Avagadro number

therefore, number of moles. = 9.033 * 10^23 / 6.022 * 10^23

therefore, no. of moles = 1.5

There are 1.5 moles in 9.033 * 10^23 Lithium atoms.

Answer:

(0, 4 ) and (2, - 4 )

Step-by-step explanation:

(2)

3x + 4y = 16 → (1)

- 3x + 2y = 8 → (2)

Adding (1) and (2) term by term will eliminate the x- term

0 + 6y = 24

6y = 24 ( divide both sides by 6 )

y = 4

Substitute y = 4 into either of the 2 equations and solve for x

Substituting into (1)

3x + 4(4) = 16

3x + 16 = 16 ( subtract 16 from both sides )

3x = 0 , then

x = 0

solution is (0, 4 )

(3)

2x - 4y = 20 → (1)

5x + 4y = - 6 → (2)

Adding (1) and (2) term by term will eliminate the y- term

7x + 0 = 14

7x = 14 ( divide both sides by 7 )

x = 2

Substitute x = 2 into either of the 2 equations and solve for y

Substituting into (2)

5(2) + 4y = - 6

10 + 4y = - 6 ( subtract 10 from both sides )

4y = - 16 ( divide both sides by 4 )

y = - 4

solution is (2, - 4 )

Answer:

105m by 105m

Step-by-step explanation:

multiply 7 x 15 to get 105.

Hope it helps!!! :)))

Answer:

37:31 or any other way of writing 37 to 31

Step-by-step explanation:

Write the ratio the same way the question asks, there are 37 girls and 31 boys. This cannot be simplified.

Answer:

[tex]P(3) = 0.3397[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The given details represent binomial distribution. So, we have:

[tex]n = 5[/tex]

[tex]p = 64\% = 0.64[/tex]

Required

Calculate P(3)

This is calculated using:

[tex]P(x) = ^nC_x * p^x * (1- p)^{n-x}[/tex]

This gives:

[tex]P(3) = ^5C_3 * 0.64^3 * (1- 0.64)^{5-3}[/tex]

[tex]P(3) = 10 * 0.64^3 * 0.36^2[/tex]

[tex]P(3) = 0.3397[/tex]

13-8=5

8-5=3

3-5=-2

-2-5=-7

etc.

Just keep subtracting 5 until you have the 18th term

---

hope it helps

Answer:

-77

Step-by-step explanation:

Reasoning:

Every step is decreasing by 5, therefor you will do 13-5 18 times. this will get you -77

Answer:

it's b

Step-by-step explanation:

correct on edge!

The equivalent expression is tanx.

We have given that,

tan(x – pi)

We have to determine the expression equivalent to the given expression

tan(x)=sinx/cosx

[tex]=\frac{\sin \left(x\right)}{\cos \left(x\right)}[/tex]

[tex]=\tan \left(x\right)[/tex]

Therefore the equivalent expression is tanx.

To learn more about the equivalent expression visit:

https://brainly.com/question/24734894

#SPJ2

Answer:

The answer for  4+2×3²-9​ is 13

Step-by-step explanation:

4+2×3²-9​=13

Answer:

4+2×3-9 i think forgot

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Number of strawberry candy = [tex]\bold{8\ pieces}[/tex]

Number of rhubarb candy = [tex]\bold{7 \ pieces}[/tex]

Find the number of ways for equally distributing candy to all 5 children

Using formula:

[tex]\to \bold{_{n} C_{r}=\frac{n !}{r!(n-r) !}}[/tex]

Calculating the distributing way for strawberry candy:

[tex]\to \bold{_{8} C_{5}=\frac{8 !}{5!(8-5) !}}[/tex]

           [tex]\bold{=\frac{8 !}{5! \ 3 !}}\\\\\bold{=\frac{8 \times 7 \times 6 \times 5!}{5! \ 3 \times 2\times 1}}\\\\\bold{=\frac{8 \times 7 \times 6 }{ 6}}\\\\\bold{=8 \times 7}\\\\\bold{=56}[/tex]

Calculating the distributing way for rhubarb candy:

[tex]\to \bold{_{7} C_{5}=\frac{7 !}{5!(7-5) !}}[/tex]

           [tex]\bold{=\frac{7 !}{5! \ 2 !}}\\\\\bold{=\frac{7 \times 6 \times 5!}{5! \ 2\times 1}}\\\\\bold{=\frac{ 7 \times 6 }{ 2}}\\\\\bold{=7 \times 3}\\\\\bold{=21}[/tex]

Adding both distributing ways:

[tex]\to \bold{56+21=77}[/tex] ways

Learn more:

probability: brainly.com/question/23044118